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OPP > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

For any disease state, the patient must be ____ before performing OMT
New onset of ____ or ____ is not a time for OMT

A

Stable
Chest pain
SOB

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2
Q

Somatic dysfunction can occur anywhere in the body at:
____
____
____

A

Sympathetic levels
Parasympathetic levels
Some (not autonomic related)

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3
Q

Viscerosomatic reflexes occur at
____
____

A

Sympathetic levels

Parasympathetic levels

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4
Q

Facilitated segments ONLY occur at ____

A

Sympathetics

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5
Q

Treatment for temporal arteritis is ____

A

Steroids

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6
Q

Sometimes muscle hypertonicity, contraction, spasm can be caused by ____ of what is overlaying the muscle

A

Direct irritation

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7
Q

If there is a renal lithiasis, it may cause the ____ to become hypertonic and you would have a positive ____ test

A

Psoas

Thomas

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8
Q

If there is appendicitis, it may cause the ____ to become hypertonic and you would have a positive ____ test

A

Psoas

Thomas

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9
Q

If there are inflamed lymph nodes, this may make the muscle they are touching to become hypertonic such as ____

A

SCM

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10
Q

After obtaining a history, you perform a physical exam: ____ is one of the first things you do in a physical exam

A

Observation

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11
Q

A reversible dextroscoliosis or levoscoliosis means there is no ____ component present so it follows Fryette type ___ mechanics
A dextroscoliosis would have the convex side pointing to the ____, therefore indicating a ____ pattern for the vertebrate

A

Sagittal
1
Right
NSLRR

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12
Q

A left lateral convexity means the vertebrae are sidebent ____
A right lateral convexity means the vertebrae are sidebent ____

A

Right

Left

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13
Q

When treating a group dysfunction with OMT, go for the ____ of the group curve

A

Apex

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14
Q

Type II dysfunction would usually occur at the ____ of the group curve. However, reversible dextro/levoscoliosis that do not have a ____ component and would not have a type ____ mechanics present

A

Apex
Sagittal
II

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15
Q

The body is a unit; the person is a unit of mind, body, and spirit
I.e. gastric ulcer causes thoracic tissue texture changes

A

Principle 1

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16
Q

The body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing and health maintenance
I.e. healed fracture

A

Principle 2

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17
Q

Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated

A

Principle 3

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18
Q

Rational treatment is based upon an understanding of the basic principles of body unity, self-regulation, and the inter-relationship of structure and function

A

Principle 4

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19
Q

Anatomy of muscles, spine, extremities; posture, motion
OMT directed toward normalizing mechanical somatic dysfunction, structural integrity, physiological function, homeostasis

A

Biomechanical (structural, postural)

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20
Q

Emphasizes CNS, PNS, and ANS that control, coordinate and integrate body functions
Proprioceptive and muscle imbalances, facilitation, nerve compression disorders, autonomic reflex, and visceral dysfunctions, brain/CNS dysfunctions

A

Neurological

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21
Q

Emphasizes pulmonary, circulatory, and fluid (lymphatic, CSF) systems
Lymphatic techniques

A

Respiratory/Circulatory

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22
Q

Regulates through metabolic processes

A

Metabolic/Nutritional

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23
Q

Focuses on mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions related to health and disease

A

Behavioral (Psychobehavioral)

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24
Q

Localized somatic stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related somatic structures
I.e. rib somatic dysfunction from an innominate dysfunction

A

Somatosomatic reflex

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25
Q

Localized somatic stimulation producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures
I.e. triggering an asthmatic attack when working on thoracic spine

A

Somatovisceral reflex

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26
Q

Localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related somatic structures
I.e. gallbladder disease affecting musculature

A

Viscerosomatic reflex

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27
Q

Localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures
I.e. MI and vomiting

A

Viscerovisceral reflex

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28
Q

____ ganglionic sympathetic fibers lead to tissue texture changes such as hypertonicity, moisture, erythema, etc

A

Post

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29
Q

____ of the spinal cord is where somatic and visceral afferent nerves synapse giving viscerosomatic reflex

A

Dorsal horn

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30
Q

Sharp and severe localized pain
Warm, moist, sweaty skin
Boggy, edematous tissue
Erythematous
Local increase in muscle tone, contraction, spasm, increased muscle spindle firing
Normal or sluggish ROM
May be minimal or no somatovisceral effect

A

Acute somatic dysfunction

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31
Q 
Dull, achy, diffuse pain 
Cool, smooth, dry skin 
Possible atrophy
Fibrotic, ropy feeling tissue 
Pale/skin pallor
Decreased muscle tone, contracted muscles, sometimes flaccid 
Restricted ROM 
Somatovisceral effects are more often present
A

Chronic somatic dysfunction

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32
Q

Orientation of superior facets:
Cervical:
Thoracic:
Lumbar:

A

BUM
BUL
BM

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33
Q

Orientation of inferior facets
Cervical:
Thoracic:
Lumbar:

A

AIL
AIM
AL

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34
Q

When side-bending is attempted from neutral position, rotation of vertebral bodies follows to the opposite direction
Typically a group of vertebrae
No sagittal component
Side-bending precedes rotation
Side-bending occurs towards the concavity of the curve
Rotation occurs towards the convexity of the curve

A

Fryette Law 1

Type I dysfunction

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35
Q

When side-bending is attempted from non-neutral position, rotation must precede side-bending to the same side
Typically applies to a single vertebra
Occurs on a sagittal component
Rotation precedes side-bending
Rotation of the vertebra occurs into the concavity of the curve
May be describes as a traumatic injury

A

Fryette Law 2

Type II dysfunction

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36
Q

If ____ treatment used: exaggerate/augment the dysfunction

If ____ treatment used: engage the barrier/reverse the dysfunction

A

Indirect

Direct

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37
Q

SD is exaggerated or augmented
SD is taken the way it likes to go
Restrictive barrier is disengaged
Dysfunction is taken into position of injury
Uses inherent forces
Uses a compressive, tractional, or torsional component

A

Indirect technique

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38
Q

SD is taken the way it does not like to go
Restrictive barrier is engaged
Uses external forces

A

Direct technique

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39
Q 
Myofascial release 
Soft tissue 
Articulatory 
ME 
HVLA
Springing 
Cranial 
Still technique (ending position)
A

Examples of direct techniques

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40
Q

Muscle Energy: ____

Patient is instructed to gently push AWAY from the barrier

A

Postisometric relaxation

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41
Q

Muscle Energy: ____

Patient is instructed to gently push TOWARDS the barrier

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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42
Q

A longitudinal or parallel traction technique in which the origin and insertion of the myofascial structures being treated are longitudinally separated

A

Stretching

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43
Q

A perpendicular traction technique in which a rhythmic, lateral stretching of a myofascial structure, where the origin and insertion are help stationary and the central portion of the structure is stretched like a bowstring

A

Kneading

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44
Q

A deep inhibitory pressure, which is a sustained deep pressure over a hypertonic myofascial structure

A

Inhibition

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45
Q

Gently stroking of congested tissue used to encourage lymphatic flow

A

Effleurage

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46
Q

Involves pinching or tweaking one layer and lifting it or twisting it away from the deeper areas

A

Petrissage

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47
Q

Striking the belly of a muscle with the hypothenar edge of the open hand in rapid succession in order to decrease it’s tone and arterial perfusion. A hammering chopping percussion of tissues to break adhesions and/or encourage bronchial secretion

A

Tapotement

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48
Q 
Counterstrain 
FPR 
BLT 
Functional technique 
Myofascial release
Cranial
Still technique (initial position)
A

Examples of indirect techniques

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49
Q

Root C4
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Shoulder
None
None

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50
Q

Root C5
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Lateral elbow
Biceps
Biceps

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51
Q

Root C6
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Thumb, index finger
Wrist extensors
Brachioradialis

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52
Q

Root C7
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Mid finger
Triceps
Triceps

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53
Q

Root C8
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Ring finger, pinky
Wrist flexors
None

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54
Q

Root T1
Sensation:
Motor:
Reflex:

A

Medial elbow
Interossi
None

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55
Q

Head and Neck (Sympathetics)

A

T1-T4

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56
Q

Heart (Sympathetics)

A

T1/T2-T5/T6

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57
Q

Respiratory (Sympathetics)

A

T1/T2-T6/T7

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58
Q

Esophagus (Sympathetics)

A

T2-T8

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59
Q

Upper GI Tract (Sympathetics)

Stomach, Liver, Gallbladder, Spleen, Pancreas, Duodenum

A

T5-T9

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60
Q

Middle GI Tract (Sympathetics)

Pancreas, Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Ascending Colon, Right Transverse Colon, Kidney, Upper Ureter, Gonads

A

T10-T11

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61
Q

Lower GI Tract (Sympathetics)

Left Transverse Colon, Descending Colon, Sigmoid Colon, Rectum, Prostate, Bladder, Lower Ureter

A

T12-L2

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62
Q

Appendix (Sympathetics)

A

T10-T11

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63
Q

Kidneys (Sympathetics)

A

T10-T11

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64
Q

Adrenal Medulla (Sympathetics)

A

T10

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65
Q

Upper Ureters (Sympathetics)

A

T10-T11

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66
Q

Lower Ureters (Sympathetics)

A

T12-L1

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67
Q

Bladder (Sympathetics)

A

T12-L2

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68
Q

Gonads (Sympathetics)

A

T10-T11

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69
Q

Uterus and Cervix (Sympathetics)

A

T10-L2

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70
Q

Erectile Tissue (Sympathetics)

A

T11-L2

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71
Q

Prostate (Sympathetics)

A

T12-L2

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72
Q

Arms (Sympathetics)

A

T2-T8

73
Q

Legs (Sympathetics)

A

T11-L2

74
Q

Parasympathetic Levels
Trachea, esophagus, heart, lungs, liver, gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, proximal ureter, small intestine, ascending colon, and transverse colon up to the splenic flexure

A

Vagus Nerve (OA, AA, C2)

75
Q

Parasympathetic Levels
Distal to the splenic flexure of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, reproductive organs, and external genitalia

A

S2-S4

76
Q

Parasympathetic Levels

Variations: Ovaries and Testes

A

Vagus Nerve

S2-S4

77
Q

Sympathetic Pre-Ganglionics T5-L2

A 
Greater splanchnic (T5-T9)
Lesser splanchnic (T10-T11)
Least splanchnic (T12) 
Lumbar splanchnic (L1-L2)
78
Q 
Celiac Ganglionic (T5-T9) Post-Ganglionic to: 
(7 organs)
A 
Distal esophagus 
Stomach (epigastric) 
Liver
Gallbladder (cholecystitis) 
Spleen
Portions of pancreas
Proximal duodenum (foregut)
79
Q

Superior Mesenteric Ganglion (T10-T11) Post-Ganglionic to:

10 organs

A 
Portions of pancreas
Duodenum 
Jejunum 
Ileum 
Ascending colon 
Proximal 2/3 of transverse colon (midgut) 
Adrenals 
Gonads
Kidneys 
Upper 1/2 ureter
80
Q

Inferior Mesenteric Ganglion (T12-L2) Post-Ganglionic to:

8 organs

A 
Distal 1/3 transverse colon 
Descending colon 
Sigmoid 
Rectum (hindgut) 
Lower 1/2 ureter 
Bladder 
Prostate 
Genitalia
81
Q

Greater Splanchnic Nerve (T5-9) synapses at ____ ganglion

A 
Synapses at the celiac ganglion 
Stomach 
Liver 
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Parts of duodenum
82
Q

Lesser Splanchnic Nerve (T10-T11) synapses at ____ ganglion

A

Synapses at the superior mesenteric ganglion

Small intestines and right colon (appendix is found here)

83
Q

Least Splanchnic Nerve (T12) and Lumbar Splanchnic (L1-L2) synapses at ____ ganglion

A

Synapses at the inferior mesenteric ganglion

Innervates the left colon and pelvic organs

84
Q

Sympathetic nerve supple to the head and neck

A

T1-T4
It forms the cervical ganglia (inferior, middle, and superior cervical ganglia), which affects the mid to lower cervical spine
From there, it contributes to other collateral ganglion that govern the sympathetic innervation to the head

85
Q

Increased sympathetic activity

A 
Increased goblet cells 
Increased thick, sticky secretions 
Dries the mucous membranes 
Pupillary dilation 
Decreased lymphatic/circulatory drainage 
Impaired immune response 
Tinnitus 
Increased intraocular pressure
86
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Liver

A

Anterior: 5th intercostal space near sternum on the right

87
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Stomach (Acid)

A

Anterior: 5th intercostal space near sternum on the left

Think ulcers/NSAIDs use/steroid use

88
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Liver and gallbladder (Cholecystitis)

A

Anterior: 6th intercostal space near sternum on the right

89
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Stomach (Peristalsis)

A

Anterior: 6th intercostal space near sternum on the left

Think of emptying time

90
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Pancreas (Amylase/Lipase/Blood Glucose)

A

Anterior: 7th intercostal space near sternum on the right

91
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Spleen

A

Anterior: 7th intercostal space near sternum on the left

92
Q

Anterior Chapman Reflex Point

Appendix

A

Anterior: Tip of the right 12th rib

93
Q

Chapman Reflexes
5th IC space
Right:
Left:

A

Right: Liver
Left: Stomach acid (gastritis/NSAID use)

94
Q

Chapman Reflexes
6th IC space
Right:
Left:

A

Right: Liver, gallbladder (cholecystitis)
Left: Stomach peristalsis (may have delayed stomach emptying time, food may not pass quickly through system)

95
Q

Chapman Reflexes
7th IC space
Right:
Left:

A

Right: Pancreas (glucose, amylase, lipase)
Left: Spleen

96
Q

Chapman reflex points are also known as

A

Ganglioform nodules or tissue

97
Q

Chapman Reflexes
Sinuses
Anterior Points:
Posterior Points:

A

Anterior Points: lie 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum on the upper edge of the second rib
Posterior Points: upon C2 midway between the spinous process and the tip of the transverse process

98
Q

Chapman Reflexes
Pharynx
Anterior Points:
Posterior Points:

A

Anterior Points: lie upon the first ribs 3-4 cm medial to where the ribs emerge from beneath the clavicles
Posterior Points: upon C2 midway between the spinous process and the tip of the transverse process

99
Q

Chapman Reflexes
Larynx
Anterior Points:
Posterior Points:

A

Anterior Points: lies upon the second ribs, 5-7 cm lateral to the sternocostal junction
Posterior Points: upon C2 midway between the spinous process and the tip of the transverse process

100
Q

Chapman Reflexes
Tonsils
Anterior Points:
Posterior Points:

A

Anterior Points: between the first and second ribs adjacent to the sternum
Posterior Points: midway between the spinous process** (posterior tubercle) and the tip of the transverse process

101
Q 
Chapman Reflexes
Middle ear (also TM) 
Anterior Points: 
Posterior Points:
A

Anterior Points: lie upon the superior anterior aspect of the clavicles just lateral to where they cross the first ribs
Posterior Points: upon the posterior aspect of the tips of the transverse processes of C1

102
Q

Chapman Reflexes
Eyes (Retina/Conjunctiva)
Anterior Points:
Posterior Points:

A

Anterior Points: lie upon the anterior aspect of the humerus at the level of the surgical neck
Posterior Points: lie upon the squamous portion of the occipital bone below the superior nuchal line

103
Q

Parasympathetic cranial nerves:

A

CN III, VII, IX, X

104
Q

Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)

A

Ciliary ganglion

105
Q

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

A

Otic ganglion

106
Q

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

A

Pterygopalatine ganglion

Submandibular ganglion

107
Q

Although CN V conveys no presynaptic parasympathetic (visceral efferent) fibers from the CNS, ________ are associated with the divisions of CN V

A

All four parasympathetic ganglia

108
Q

Postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers from the four parasympathetic ganglia join branches of CN V and are:

A

carried to their destinations along with the CN V sensory and motor fibers

109
Q

Short ciliary nerves to

A

ciliary body and sphincter pupillae

110
Q

Branches of CN V2 to

A

lacrimal, oral, palatal, nasal, and pharyngeal mucous glands

111
Q

Lingual nerve to

A

submandibular and sublingual glands

112
Q

Auriculotemporal nerve to

A

parotid gland

113
Q

Increased parasympathetic activity

A

Increased clear, thin, watery secretions of glands
Pupillary constriction
Improved/increased drainage

114
Q

Dry mouth (xerostomia) can be caused by CN VII

A

Lacrimal glands, sublingual and submandibular glands.
Remember CN VII is associated with the sphenopalatine (pterygopalatine) ganglion and exits through the stylomastoid foramen

115
Q

Dry mouth (xerostomia) can be caused by CN IX

A

Parotid gland.

Remember CN IX is associated with the otic ganglion and exits through the jugular foramen

116
Q

Treating Lymphatics

A

Thoracic inlet/outlet has to be cleared/opened/treated BEFORE any other lymphatic treatment

117
Q

Thoracic inlet/outlet components:

A

Supraclavicular space

1st rib

118
Q

Lymphatic treatment examples include

A

Anterior cervical fascia release
Thoracic inlet myofascial release
Pectoral traction

119
Q

Approximately 85% of the venous drainage from the head occurs via the internal jugular veins

A

They pass through the jugular foramina, located along the occipitomastoid suture between the occipital and temporal bones
Altered temporal bone motion and occipitomastoid compression may impair venous flow through the jugular foramen and may lead to congestion in the head

120
Q

Sphenopalatine Ganglion Technique

A

Myofascial release to the pterygoid fascia can be used to treat maxillary sinusitis by stimulating the parasympathetic supply to the nasal mucosa, which is CN VII

121
Q

Mandibular Drainage: Galbreath Technique

Indications:

A

This technique is indicated for any dysfunction or lymphatic congestion in the ENT or submandibular region, especially dysfunction in the Eustachian tubes. Can be taken in patients with active TMJ dysfunction with severe loss of mobility and/or locking
Great for treating otitis media, fluid in the middle ear, Eustachian tube somatic dysfunction

122
Q

Mandibular Drainage: Galbreath Technique

A

You are pulling traction on the mandible and the goal is decongestion of fluid in the middle ear

123
Q

Eustachian Tube

Internal rotation

A

Internal rotation of the temporal bone partially or completely closes the Eustachian tube and may result in the perception of a high-pitched ringing in the ear

124
Q

Eustachian Tube

External rotation

A

External rotation of the temporal bone may open the Eustachian tube and result in the perception of a low-pitched roar

125
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN I

A

Anosmia

126
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN V

A

Headache, trigeminal neuralgia

127
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN VII

A

Altered taste, Bell’s palsy

128
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN VIII

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, labrynthitis

129
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN IX and X

A

Poor suckling, failure to thrive (FTT)

130
Q

CN Dysfunction/Entrapment

CN III, IV, VI

A

Petrosphenoidal ligament

Symptoms: blurred vision, diplopia, nystagmus, eye fatigue, HA

131
Q

Cranial Nerve Entrapment

CN III, IV, VI

A

Pass under petrospenoidal ligament (formed by the tentorum cerebelli) can get trapped here
Increased dural strain has adverse affect
Temporal/sphenoid bone attachments

132
Q

Cranial Nerve Entrapment

CN III, IV, VI Symptoms

A

Blurred vision, diplopia, nystagmus, eye fatigue, headache

CN VI is closest to the dura, most likely affected- result is medial strabismus

133
Q

Cranial Somatic Dysfunction Affects Function

Ophthalmologic

A

CN II, III, IV, VI

134
Q

Cranial Somatic Dysfunction Affects Function

GI

A

CN IX, X, XII

135
Q

Cranial Somatic Dysfunction Affects Function

Respiratory

A

CN X

136
Q

Cranial Somatic Dysfunction Affects Function

Musculoskeletal

A

CN XI

137
Q

CN Parasympathetics

A

III, VII, IX, X

138
Q

Cribriform plate

A

CN I

139
Q

Optic Canal

A

CN II

140
Q

Superior Orbital Fissure

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI

141
Q

Foramen Rotundum

A

CN V2

142
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

CN V3

143
Q

Internal Acoustic Meatus

A

CN VII, VIII

144
Q

Jugular Foramen

A

CN IX, X, XI

145
Q

Hypoglossal Canal

A

CN XII

146
Q

Difficulty nursing/latching

A

CN XII

147
Q

Colic

A

CN X

148
Q

GERD

A

CN X

149
Q

Nausea/Vomiting

A

CN X

150
Q

Torticollis

A

CN XI

151
Q

Asthma

A

CN X

152
Q

Otitis media/tinnitus/vertigo/labrynthitis

A

CN VIII

153
Q

CN I

A

Anosmia

Cribiform plate through ethmoid bone

154
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal neuralgia/tic deloureaux

May complain of sudder, severe facial, ear, and/or jaw pain

155
Q

CN VII

A

Exits stylomastoid foramen

Bell’s palsy

156
Q

CN VIII

A

Labyrinthitis, tinnitus, vertigo

Temporal bone associated with tinnitus, labrynthitis, vertigo

157
Q

CN X

A

Exits jugular foramen

Can cause nausea/vomiting

158
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal canal

Can cause nursing/latching problems in infants

159
Q

Jugular Foramen

A

Formed by temporal bone and occiput, which make the occipitomastoid suture
CN IX, X, XI exit from the jugular foramen
CN XI is involved with torticollis. There is usually compression at the occipitomastoid suture/jugular foramen
CN X is involved with nausea/vomiting

160
Q

Trigeminal Stimulation or Inhibition

The foramina which are contacted:

A 
Supraorbital foramen (frontal sinusitis) 
Infraorbital foramen (maxillary sinusitis) 
Mandibular (aka mental) foramen
161
Q

Indications and Contraindications for techniques

A

If a patient is too young or is not able to follow commands, you can not do techniques such as ME
If a patient has lax ligaments such as RA or trisomy 21, you do not want to do HVLA, or any type of articulatory techniques in the upper cervical spine

162
Q

Tension Description

A

Bilateral pressure

No aura, nausea

163
Q

Migraine Description

A

Unilateral, triggers, may have aura, nausea/vomiting, photophobia/phonophobia

164
Q

Cluster Description

A

Unilateral, severe

165
Q

SCM refers pain

A

lateral and behind the eye

166
Q

Splenius capitus muscle refers pain

A

to the vertex of the head

167
Q

TMJ Masseter Counterstrain

Indication for treatment

A

SD of the head/cranium and/or cervical region
The patient may complain of pain in the neck, face, jaw, ear or TMJ and have difficulty opening mouth fully, Mandible may deviate or shift to the side of dysfunction

168
Q

TMJ Masseter Counterstrain

Tender Point Location

A

Masseter: just inferior to the zygoma in the belly of the masseter muscle typically found on the side of mandibular deviation

169
Q

TMJ Medial Pterygoid Counterstrain

Indication for Treatment

A

SD of the head/cranium and/or cervical region
The patient may complain of pain in the neck, face, jaw, ear or TMJ and have difficulty opening mouth fully, Mandible may deviate or shift to the side of dysfunction

170
Q

TMJ Medial Pterygoid Counterstrain

Tender Point Location

A

Jaw angle point or medial pterygoid: on the posterior surface of the ascending ramus of the mandible about 2 cm above the angle of the mandible on the side opposite of mandibular deviation

171
Q

Occipital Condylar Compression

A

The most important or most clinically significant SD which should be addressed in all newborns is occipital condylar compression
Affecting CN IX, X, XI, XII; it can be the cause of poor suckling, swallowing difficulties, colic, emesis/vomiting, hiccups, congenital torticollis
OA decompression is useful in treating condylar compression

172
Q

One gait cycle

A

Considered from heel contact of one foot through heel contact of that same foot again

173
Q

Two phases of gait cycle

A

Stance and swing 60/40%

174
Q

Subdivision of Stance

A 
Single legged (40%) 
Double legged (10% each side of the single legged stance)
175
Q

Phases of Gait

A 
Heel strike 
Loading response
Midstance 
Terminal stance 
Preswing 
Initial and Mid-swing
Terminal swing
176
Q

Tight iliopsoas contralateral to short leg provides ____

A

compensation for lumbar curve

177
Q

Recognize and interpret innominate, sacral, and lumbar rotational biomechanic during gait cycle

A

L5/S1 tordion is normal biomechanics
Oblique axis on weight bearing side
Forward rotation of sacrum around axis
Normally produces lumbar sidebending to axis side due to type 1 neutral mechanics of lumbars in gait and L5/S1 torsion

178
Q

Anterior Cervical 7 (AC7) Treatment

A

FSTRA

179
Q

Anterior Cervical 8 (AC8) Treatment

A

FSARA

OPP (3 decks)

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