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Addiction Medicine > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of drug addiction/substance dependence?

A

Compulsive drug use, despite adverse consequences that interfere with normal activities and may include tolerance and dependence

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2
Q

What is the definition of drug misuse?

A

A pattern of drug use that produces recurrent and significant adverse consequences related to repeated use of the drug (doesn’t involve or result in physical addiction)

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3
Q

What is the neuroadaptive mechanism for long term drug use?

A

long term potentiation

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4
Q

Almost all substances of misuse release ___ in the ___.

A

dopamine in the nucleus accumbens

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5
Q

Withdrawal is linked to decreased dopamine in the ___.

A

nucleus accumbens

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6
Q

Stimulation of the ___ leads to dopamine release

A

ventral tegmental area (VTA)

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7
Q

What is the drug reward accelerator loop?

A

GABA inhibition of a second GABA neuron leads to increased dopamine, which then stimulates the cycle further

glutamate (prefrontal cortex) –> GABA (nucleus accumbes) –| GABA (ventral pallidum) –> dopamine (VTA) –> glutamate (prefrontal cortex)

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8
Q

What are the drug reward brakes?

A

glutamate (prefrontal cortex) –> GABA (nucleus accumbens) –| dopamine (VTA)

dopamine (VTA) –> GABA (nucleus accumbens) –| dopamine (VTA)

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9
Q

What is the target of nicotine?

A

nicotinic acetylcholine receptors –> stimulation

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10
Q

What is the target of amphetamine?

A

DAT transporter and VMAT2 transporter –> competes with dopamine for storage –> higher cytoplasmic dopamine levels –> dopamine leakage into extracellular space

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11
Q

What is the target of cocaine?

A

DAT transporter antagonist –> results in blockade of dopamine reuptake

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12
Q

What is the target of morphine?

A

µ opiate receptor (metabotropic, G-protein linked receptor)

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13
Q

What is the target of cannabinoids?

A

CB1 and CB2 receptors (G-protein linked receptors; CB1 receptor has the highest density in CNS out of drug receptors)

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14
Q

What is the target of barbiturates and benzodiazepines?

A

allosteric sites of GABA-A receptor –> inhibition of neurotransmission

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15
Q

What is the target of hallucinogens and phencyclidine?

A

NMDA receptor

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16
Q

What is the target of inhalants?

A

NMDA and GABA-A receptors

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17
Q

What are the targets of ethanol?

A
  • disinhibition of VTA dopamine neurons –> euphoria

- positive modulator of GABA-A receptor + negative modulator of NMDA receptor –> inhibition of neurotransmission

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18
Q

profile of most stressed physician

A
  • less than 48 years old
  • female
  • 100% solo practice
  • increased work hours and hours in direct patient care
  • few vacation days
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19
Q

contributors to burnout, substance misuse, and mental illness

A
  • dysfunctional families
  • inherent personality structure
  • self imposed demands
  • long hours
  • caring for chronically ill patients
  • isolation
  • accessibility
  • overall stress of job
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20
Q

contributors to substance use disorders

A
  • stress
  • isolation
  • accessibility
  • genetic predisposition
  • chronic mental illness
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21
Q

What are the first 3 steps of AA?

A

acknowledge powerlessness and relinquish control

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22
Q

What is the 4th step of AA?

A

make an inventory (especially of resentments)

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23
Q

What is the 5th step of AA?

A

admit wrongdoing

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24
Q

What is the 6th step of AA?

A

be ready to change

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25
Q

What is the 7th step of AA?

A

humbly ask God to remove shortcomings

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26
Q

What is the 8th step of AA?

A

make list of harm caused

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27
Q

What is the 9th step of AA?

A

make amends

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28
Q

What is the 10th step of AA?

A

continue personal inventory

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29
Q

What is the 11th step of AA?

A

improve connection with God

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30
Q

What is the 12th step of AA?

A

spiritual awakening

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31
Q

What are the 4 points of the SMART program?

A
  1. enhance motivation to change
  2. cope with urges
  3. manage thoughts, feelings, behaviors
  4. lifestyle balance (emphasizing enduring satisfactions rather than immediate gratification)
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32
Q

What are the 5 alcohol use clusters?

A
  1. young adult
  2. functional
  3. intermediate familial
  4. young antisocial
  5. chronic severe
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33
Q

What is correct treatment for someone with a substance use disorder and mental illness?

A

mental health services + specialty substance use treatment (less than 12% of people receive this)

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34
Q

What are the primary care provider roles in addiction?

A
  1. patient education
  2. screen for high risk patients
  3. prevention of progression and reduction of morbidity and mortality when SUD does exist
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35
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of beer?

A

12 oz

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36
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of malt liquor?

A

8.5 oz

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37
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of table wine?

A

5 oz

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38
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of fortified wine?

A

3.5 oz

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39
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of cordial, liqueur, or aperitif?

A

2.5 oz

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40
Q

How many ounces is 1 drink of hard alcohol?

A

1.5 oz

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41
Q

In regards to the criteria for a substance use disorder, how many equal no diagnosis?

A

0-1

42
Q

In regards to the criteria for a substance use disorder, how many equal a mild diagnosis?

A

2-3

43
Q

In regards to the criteria for a substance use disorder, how many equal a moderate diagnosis?

A

4-5

44
Q

In regards to the criteria for a substance use disorder, how many equal a severe diagnosis?

A

6 or more

45
Q

What are the criteria for a substance use disorder?

A
  1. using more than intended
  2. unsuccessful quit attempts
  3. too much time
  4. failure to fulfill major obligations
  5. continued use despite knowledge of problems
  6. giving up activities
  7. use despite physical hazards
  8. continued use despite social or interpersonal problems
  9. tolerance
  10. withdrawal
  11. craving
46
Q

What are the ABC’s of a poisoned patient?

A 
Airway
Breathing
Circulation/Cessation seizure/C-spine
Decontamination/Diagnostics
Enhanced elimination
Specific antidotes
47
Q

What are the effects seen with opiates?

A
  • depressed respiration
  • increased pleasure
  • blocked pain
  • pinpoint pupils
48
Q

Coma, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

opiate/narcotic

49
Q

Hypertension, tachycardia, increased temperature, dilated pupils, and anxiety are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

Sympathomimetic

50
Q

Confusion or coma, respiratory depression, hypotension, decreased temperature, and variable pupillary changes are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

sedative or hypnotic

51
Q

Tachycardia, dilated pupils, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and piloerection are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

withdrawal

52
Q

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastric cramps, emesis, killer B’s (bradycardia, bronchorrhea, bronchoconstriction) are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

cholinergic

53
Q

Fever, ileus (lack of intestinal movement), flushing, tachycardia, urinary retention, myoclonus, hallucinations are suggestive of the ___ toxidrome.

A

anticholinergic

54
Q

The antidote for CO poisoning is ___.

A

O2

55
Q

The antidote for opiate poisoning is ___.

A

naloxone

56
Q

The antidote for anticholinergic poisoning is ___.

A

physotigmine

57
Q

The antidote for organophosphates poisoning is ___.

A

atropine, pralidoxime

58
Q

The antidote for acetaminophen poisoning is ___.

A

N-acetylcysteine

59
Q

The antidote for methanol/ethylene glycol poisoning is ___.

A

ethanol, fomepizole

60
Q

The antidote for cyanide poisoning is ___.

A

nitrites/lilly kit

61
Q

The antidote for digoxin poisoning is ___.

A

digibind

62
Q

The antidote for betablocker poisoning is ___.

A

glucagon

63
Q

The antidote for Ca2+ channel blocker poisoning is ___.

A

calcium, glucagon

64
Q

The antidote for iron poisoning is ___.

A

deferoxamine

65
Q

The antidote for Pb/Cu/Cd/Zn poisoning is ___.

A

calcium EDTA

66
Q

The antidote for As/Au/Hg inorganic poisoning is ___.

A

BAL

67
Q

The antidote for heparin poisoning is ___.

A

protamine

68
Q

The antidote for coumadin poisoning is ___.

A

Vitamin K

69
Q

The antidote for isoniazid poisoning is ___.

A

Vitamin B6

70
Q

A BAC of 20-50 is associated with ___.

A

feeling good, loss of inhibitions, buzz

71
Q

A BAC of 50-100 is associated with ___.

A

impaired judgment and coordination

72
Q

The legal BAC limit is ___.

A

80

73
Q

A BAC of 100-150 is associated with ___.

A

difficult with gait and balance

74
Q

A BAC of 150-250 is associated with ___.

A

lethargy, difficulty sitting upright

75
Q

A BAC of 300 is associated with ___.

A

coma in the naive drinker

76
Q

A BAC of 400 is associated with ___.

A

respiratory depression

77
Q

A BAC of 600 is associated with ___.

A

death

78
Q

What is the appropriate treatment intervention for precontemplation?

A

feedback

79
Q

What is the appropriate treatment intervention for contemplation?

A

psychotherapy to deal with ambivalence

80
Q

What is the appropriate treatment intervention for preparation?

A

menu of treatment options

81
Q

What is the appropriate treatment intervention for action?

A

let patient choose

82
Q

What is the appropriate treatment intervention for maintenance?

A

relapse prevention

83
Q

___ is the most effective pharmacotherapy option because it reduces cravings and relapse.

A

Naltrexone

84
Q

Chantix functions

A
  • decreases cravings and withdrawal

- blocks nicotine binding to reduce reward

85
Q

What are the effects of cocaine?

A
  • euphoria
  • talkativeness
  • decreased sleep
  • decreased appetite
  • sexual stimulation
  • irritability
  • anxiety
  • restlessness
  • paranoia (chronic user needs lower and lower does for this to happen)
86
Q

Faster onset and faster wearing off of drug makes it __.

A

more addictive

87
Q

What is a cocaine metabolite? How long is it detectable in the urine?

A

Benzoylecgonine (BE); 48 hours

88
Q

Cocaine tolerances

A
  • complete tolerance to euphoria
  • incomplete tolerance to increased HR
  • reverse tolerance to paranoia and seizures
89
Q

Effects of marijuana

A
  • stimulation (^ BP, P, RR, appetite, decreased executive function)
  • sedation (dry mouth, slurred speech, uncoordinated movements, anti-emetic)
  • anesthesia (pain relief, memory and judgment loss)
  • hallucinogen (mild euphoria, visual, delusion, paranoia)
90
Q

Methamphetamine symptoms

A
  • sympathetic discharge (stimulation, flight of ideas, insomnia)
  • hyperthermia
  • sweating
  • flushing
  • tachypnea
  • tachycardia
  • hypertension
  • seizures
  • long term memory/IQ impairment
91
Q

Psuedoaddiction definition

A

misinterpretation of relief seeking behaviors as drug seeking behavior

92
Q

Hyperalgesia definition

A

condition in which opioid use results in hypersensitivity to pain

93
Q

What are the levels of managed care for treatment and referral of SUD?

A
  1. outpatient treatment
  2. intensive outpatient program (day/evening, partial hospitalization)
  3. medically monitored program (freestanding or hospital based)
  4. medically managed program (hospital based)
94
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence for SUD in males and females? Incidence?

A

Prevalence

  • 15% in males
  • 5% in females

Incidence
6-8% in males
2-3% in females

95
Q

What are alcohol concerns specific to women?

A
  • BAC gets 50% higher
  • greater incidence of hepatic disease
  • greater cerebral atrophy
96
Q

What are the types of alcoholism? Who is at risk for each?

A

Type I - late onset - functional and intermediate groups

Type II - early onset - antisocial and severe/chronic groups

97
Q

What are the neurobiologic susceptibilities for alcoholism?

A
  • temperamental deviations
  • prefrontal-midbrain neuroaxis dysfunction
  • serotonin deficit
  • D2 dopamine receptor gene mutation
  • lower baseline plasma beta-endorphins
98
Q

What are the symptoms of nicotine withdrawal?

A
  • nicotine craving
  • irritability, anger, impatience
  • restlessness
  • difficulty concentrating
  • insomnia
  • anxiety
  • depressed mood
  • increased appetite
99
Q

What does CAGE assess?

A
  • felt the need to CUT DOWN drinking
  • people ANNOY you by criticizing drinking
  • felt GUILTY
  • had an EYE OPENER first thing in morning
100
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of alcohol relapse?

A

Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT)

101
Q

What are the biomarkers used to measure long-term drinking?

A
  • CDT
  • GGT
  • MCV
  • liver function - AST, ALT, alkaline phosphate
  • CAMP
102
Q

What are the direct tests used to measure immediate drinking?

A
  • BAC
  • Ethyl glucuronide (EtG)
  • phostphatidyl ethanol (Peth)

Addiction Medicine (1 decks)

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