Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet 415 - Clinical Skills > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many animals are needed to generate a reference interval?

A

minimum of 40 animals

Davis uses about 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: as prevalence increases, PPV increases and PVN decreases.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the perfusion parameters? (list 6)

A
  1. mentation
  2. mucous membrane colour
  3. capillary refill time
  4. heart rate
  5. pulse quality
  6. extremities temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clinical signs associated with hypovolemia-vasoconstriction (gen. d/t decreased preload)

A
  1. obtundation
  2. pale mucous membranes
  3. slow capillary refill time
  4. tachycardia (cats-brady)
  5. poor pulse quality
  6. cold extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical signs associated with vasodilation (gen. d/t decreased afterload)

A
  1. obtundation
  2. hyperemic mucous membranes
  3. very fast capillary refill time
  4. tachycardia
  5. bounding pulse quality
  6. warm extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define: Sedation

A

mild to moderate depression of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sedation vs chemical restraint

A

chemical restraint is just heavier sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Site of action for local anesthetics

A
  1. Nociceptors
  2. Nerves
  3. Spinal Cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Site of action for general anesthetics

A
  1. spinal cord
  2. thalamus
  3. cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two Risk Classification Schemes?

A
  1. ASA status ( only takes into account patient)

2. Operative Risk ( estimates overall risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: Emergency surgeries have the same level of risk as elective surgeries.

A

False: higher mortality rates for emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Purpose of pre-anesthetic fasting

A
  • reduce risk of vomiting/ regurgitation

- ruduce size of gi tract in Large Animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why give anesthetic pre-medication (pros and cons)?

A
  • decrease apprehension
  • provide analgesia
  • reduce dose of induction and maintenance drugs
  • minimize undesirable autonomic reflexes

Cons:

  • takes time/ organization
  • concerns about polypharmacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk of mortality (during surgery) increases with:

A
  • systemic illness
  • emergency
  • after hours
  • lack of familiarity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define: pain

A

unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

nociception =/= pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pain Assessment (Physiological variables)

A
  • not sensitive nor specific

- HR, RR, blood pressure, GI sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pain Assessment (Neuroendrocrine variables)

A
  • indicator of disease severity =/= pain

- stress hormones, endorphins, acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pain Assessment (Objective Physical Measurements)

A
  • weight and food consumption
  • gait analysis
  • activity level
  • nociceptive threshold tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pain Assessment (Subjective Assessments)

A

use of pain scales:

  1. one dimensional scoring system
  2. multidimensional
  • good for bringing attention to and documenting many different parameters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One dimensional scoring system (subjective)

A
  • easy to sue
  • not good for small changes
  • high subjectivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Multidimensional scoring system (subjective)

A
  • behavioral +/- physiological data

- n behaviour must be known + categorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acepromazine (drug category, moa)

A

Category: phenotiazine
MOA: central dopamin receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Acepromazine (4 Actions)

A
  1. mild sedation (highly variable)
  2. decreased alertness
  3. anesthetic sparing
  4. lasts a long time (4-6 hours)(non-reversible)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acepromazine (adverse effects)

A
  1. Vasodilation (peripheral alpha 1 antagonism)
  2. syncope reported in boxers
  3. no analgesic action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists (drug examples)

A
  1. dexmedetomidine
  2. Xylazine
  3. Romifidine
  4. Detomidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists (6 Actions)

A
  1. Sedation (rousable)
  2. Analgesia
  3. Anxiolysis
  4. muscle relaxation
  5. potent drug sparing
  6. reversible effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists (Adverse Effects)

A
  1. CV effects (initial vasoconstriction followed by decreased sympa. output)
  2. Diuresis, vomiting, reduced gi motility
  • much more potent in cattle than horses
  • sheep get pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anticholinergics (dug examples, moa)

A

Drugs: atropine, glycopurrolate
MOA: muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist (parasympatholytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anticholinergics (5 Actions)

A
  1. increased HR
  2. bronchodilation
  3. decreased secretions
  4. decreased GI motility
  5. mydriasis

– no sedative or analgesic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Benzodiasepines (drug examples, moa)

A

Drugs: Diazepam, Midazolam
MOA: GABA receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Benzodiasepines (6 Actions)

A
  1. Anxiolytic
  2. Amnestic
  3. Muscle relaxant
  4. Anticonvulsant
  5. Mild drug sparing
  6. Reversible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Benzodiasepines (adverse effects)

A
  1. agitation, mania, disinhibition in some healthy adults dogs/ cats
  2. not analgesic
  3. mixed resp. between young and old animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Opioids (Mu agonist) (drugs, actions)

A

Drugs: morphine, oxymorphone, hydromorphone
Actions: Analgesia, Sedation (dogs, rabbits ruminants) or Euphoria (cats, horses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Opioids (Mu agonist) (Adverse Effects)

A
  • minimal CV effets
  • resp. depression
  • hot cats, cool dogs
  • reversible
  • variable drug sparing (dog > cat > horse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Opioids (Mu antag/ Kappa agonist) (all)

A

Drugs: Butorphinol
Short duration of effect (about 1 hour)
limited analgesia + good sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Opioids (Mu partial agonist) (all)

A

Drugs: Buprenorphine
acts v similar to agonist, but with less effect for longer
high affinity for receptor = non-reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: Therapeutic Index is a measure of drug safety (LD50/ED50) and so a higher TI means a safer drug.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Selectivity of a drug?

A

the preference of a drug for its respective ligand

normally expressed as a comparison between two receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Potency vs Efficacy

A

Potency: the dose needed to create a specific effect (hig potency means lower dose for the effect)

Efficacy: the maximal effect produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: Antagonists work by producing no intrinsic activity at the target receptor.

A

T: A reverse agonist is different than an antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Non-competitive vs competitive antagonist

A

Non-competitive: decreased binding affinity of agonist to R

Competitive: can overcome antagonims w/ high enough [agonist]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Effects of untreated pain?

A
  • increased SNS activity (change in healing rate)
  • decreased mobility –> muscle wasting
  • splinting of chest muscles and diaphragm
  • decreased GI motility and urinary retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Non-pharmacological pain management mechanisms (7 ways)

A
  1. handling
  2. nursing care
  3. weight optimization
  4. warm (chronic) and cold (acute) therapy
  5. Acupuncture
  6. dress wounds
  7. env. modifications (ramps vs stairs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 Drug types for pharmacological pain management

A
  1. Opioids
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Local Anesthetics

Also, alpha-2-agonists (dex, xylazine), NMDA receptor antagonists (ketamine, amantadine), Gabapentine/ pregabalin, Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Opioids (pain management)

A
  • moderate to severe pain
CNS: sedation in dogs -- euphoria in cats/ horses
resp. depression
decreased HR (vagal tone decrease)
urinary retention
cool dogs, hot cats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Local Anesthetics

A
  • Lidocaine, Procaine
  • reversibly block Na channels to prevent nerve trans.
  • [drug] and volume affects intensity and duration of effects

Dose dependent toxicity of CNS and CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

NSAIDs

A
  • both acute and chronic pain
  • COX-1,2 inhibitors reduce prostaglandins
  • not behavior modifying + oral formulations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the routes of administration of Opioids?

A

IV, IM, SQ, Topical (fentanyl patch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the effects of NSAIDs

A
  • anti-inflammatory
  • anti-thrombosis
  • analgesia
  • anti-endotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why would you pair Xylazine (alpha 2) with morphine?

A

Xylazine will have synergistic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Indications for Ketamine, Amantadine?

A
  • chronic pain, antihyperalgesic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define: hernia

A

defect in wall of body cavity that allows protrusion of an organ or organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hernia anatomy

A
  • Ring (connective tissue)
  • Sac
  • Contents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True vs False Hernia

A

True - congenital or degenerative process w/ intact hernial sac (peritoneum)

False - no hernia sac; usually acute/ traumatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

4 Causes of hernia

A
  1. congenital
  2. acquired/ degenerative
  3. traumatic
  4. incisional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why treat a hernia?

A
  • pain
  • protect viscera
  • adhesions
  • abnormal organ fx
  • strangulation, incarceration, perforation, sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Incarcerations vs strangulation

A

Incarceration - impeded organ fx

Strangulation - impeded blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Herniopathy ( 3 parts)

A
  • reduction of contents
  • repair of defect
  • prevent recurrence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Oral Absorption (Cats vs Ruminants)

A

Cats:

  • shorter GI
  • intermittent eating
  • slow esophageal transit time

Ruminants:

  • degredation/ metabolism in rumen
  • rumen dilution effects
  • pH variation of rumen vs saliva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Drug Metabolism (cats vs dogs)

A

Cats: no glucoronidation
Dogs: no acetylation

61
Q

Drug Clearance (variations)

A
  • dogs have higher GFR than horses causing higher clearance rates
62
Q

ADME in Pediatric patients

A

A: decreased
D: increased % of TBW
M: decreased hepatic enzymes
E: decreased renal fx

63
Q

ADME in Geriatric patients

A

A: decreased
D: decreased CO, albumin; increased body fat
M: decreased hepatocyte #
E: decreased renal fx

64
Q

Loading Dose Eq

A

(target C)(Vd) / (F)

65
Q

What is the most common approach to the equine abdomen?

A

ventral midline

66
Q

Possible approaches to the Equine abdomen?

A
  1. Ventral midline
  2. Paramedian
  3. Parainguinal
  4. Laprascopic
  5. Flank
67
Q

Ventral Midline Approach (Equine)

A
  • most common approach

- Most colic surgeries (allows exteriorization of 75% of GI w/ minimal hemorrhage)

68
Q

Linea Alba

A
  • extends from xyphoid to prepubic tendon

- dense connective tissue made from the ext. abdominal oblique and transverse abdominus aponeurosis

69
Q

Closure of the ventral midline

A
  1. Linea Alba
  2. Subcutaneous Layer
  3. Skin
70
Q

Paramedian Approach

A
  • 8-12 cm lateral to midline
  • more hemorrhage (going through muscle)
  • main holding layer for closing is the external sheath of the rectus abdominus
71
Q

Parainguinal Approach

A
  • 12-14cm incision
  • gain access to the bladder (for stones)
  • used for cryptorchid fixing
72
Q

Laprascopic Approach

A
  • most commonly done standing w/ sedation

- ovariectomy, cryptorchidism, exploratory, close nephro-splenic space

73
Q

Flank Approach

A
  • not common in horses

- ovariectomy, uterine torsion, small colon

74
Q

Equine Rectal Exam (purpose)

A
  • look for gas distension, tight bands, impaction, distended small intestine
75
Q

How to prevent rectal tears?

A
  • lots of lube

- gentle palpation, relax w/ contraction

76
Q

IV vs Inhalent Anesthetic Induction

A

IV: must have vein, titrate dose to effect, rapid onset, typically smooth, (alfaxalone, ketamine, propofol)

Inhalent: when IV is difficult, stressful for animal, CV depression, env. pollution (isoflurane, sevoflurance, desflurane)

77
Q

T/F: Injectable anesthetics cannot be removed and overdose can be fatal

A

T

78
Q

What is the end effect of redistribution of anesthetic in the body

A

redistribution is the mech by which anesthetics move from CNS to other tissues to allow for waking up (in IV anesthetics; inhalants will saturate)

79
Q

Why do we pre-oxygenate?

A
  1. hypoventilation or apnea
  2. delayed intubation
  3. sensitive to hypoxemia
80
Q

Alfaxalone (cat, MOA, Effects)

A

Category: neuroactive steroid
MOA: enhances GABA at GABAa receptors
FDA: dogs and cats (IM formulation available)
Effects: min CV depres, mod resp depres, rapidly metabolized –> suitable for total IV anesthesia (dogs), recovery can be rough

81
Q

Ketamine (cat, moa, effects)

A

Category: cyclohexanones
MOA: NMDA receptor antagonist uncouples sensory and motor systems
FDA: cats and primates (IV, IM, SQ, PO)
Effects: anesthesia and some analgesia, muscle rigidity, sympa NS stimulant, min, resp depression

82
Q

Propofol

A

Category: hindered phenol
MOA: enhances GABA at GABAa receptors
FDA: dogs
Effects: mod. CV and Resp depression (fast admin = apnea), anesthesia and no analgesia, caution for cats, smooth recoveries

83
Q

IV Anesth. Maintenance (pros/ cons)

A

Pros:

  • increase depth quickly
  • limited costs/ overhead
  • simple/ can be made complex

Cons:

  • reduction in depth can be slow
  • can be rough recovery
84
Q

Inhalant Anesth. Maintenance (pros/ cons)

A

Pros:

  • depth easily controlled
  • recovery requires no metabolism
  • admin via ET tube
  • {drug} can be measured

Cons:

  • need anesthetic machine
  • atm. pollution and toxicity
  • limited portability
85
Q

Inhalant Maint. (common agents)

A
  • Isoflurane
  • Sevoflurane
  • Desflurane
86
Q

Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)

A
  • alverolar [inhaled anesthetic] at which 50% of subjects fail to move in response to supramaximal noxious stimuli
  • ED95 =~ 1.3 MAC
87
Q

Factors that decrease MAC

A
  • sedatives, analgesics, inj. anesthetics
  • systemic disease, hypothermia
  • increasing age, pregnancy
88
Q

Inhalant Solubility

A

Iso > Sevo > Des>

lower solubility = fast onset/ offset, but less potent

89
Q

Inhalant Clinical Effects

A

CNS depression
NOT analgesic
dose dependent decrease in CO and BP (vasodilation and negative inotropy)

90
Q

PE signs of dehydration (hydration parameters)

A
  1. Skin Turgor
  2. Mucous Membrane Moisture
  3. Eye Position
  4. Body Weight
91
Q

How does BCS affect skin turgor test?

A

fat holds onto water so BCS 8 dog can be dehydrated without presenting turgor test positive

92
Q

How to correctly interpret BW for dehydration status?

A

only use for day to day measurements

93
Q

Determining Deficity Volume

A

% dehydration (0.05 - 0.12) x BW(kg)

94
Q

Crystalloid Fluids

A

LRS, Plasmalyte, 0.9% NaCl

good when patient 165>Na>130

95
Q

Maintenance Fluid Rates

A

2-4mL/kg*hour

96
Q

Potassium Supplementation (fluids)

A

max safe = 0.5mEq/ kg*hour

higher blood [K] means lower mEq/L KCl administered

97
Q

Colloids in Fluid Therapy

A

Colloids - high MW molecules that largely remain IV to generate oncotic pressure
NAtural: Albumin
Synthetic: Hetastarch, Vetstarch

98
Q

Colloids (possible adverse effects)

A
  • coagulopathy
  • increased risk of renal injury
  • pruritis
  • anaphylaxis (rare)
99
Q

Why give IV fluids in anesthetized patients?

A
  • replace fluid loss (evaporation)
  • meet maintenance requirements
  • compensate for losses (hemorrhage)
  • replace deficits
  • ultimate goal is to maintain tissue perfusion
100
Q

Pre-existing fluid deficits and anesthesia?

A

try to rehydrate prior to anesthesia as dehydration may become more severe during surgery

101
Q

Why give isotonic crystalloids?

A
  • can give large columes
  • minimal electrolyte imbalances
  • bicarb precursors minimize pH changes
102
Q

What’s the problem with the traditional fluid plan (10-20mL/kg*hour)

A
  • rates are likely excessive

- leads to fluid accumulation (interstitial edema, decreased 02 transfer)

103
Q

Why is there altered fluid balance during anesthesia?

A
  • change in vascular tone/ blood pressure
  • decreased urine production and output
  • degradation of glycocalyx (endothelial protective layer) promotes extravasation
104
Q

What is the most effective type of opioid analgesic?

A
  • mu receptor agonists
105
Q

Do alpha-2-agonists (Xylazine, dex) have a significant effect on the CV system?

A

yes

106
Q

Can you use Xylazine to produce sedation w/out ataxia in a horse?

A

No

107
Q

Meloxicam can be used as an analgesic in an aged cat with renal failure?

A

No, NSAIDs further reduce GFR making it not suitable

108
Q

Glycopyrrolate offsets the vagally-mediated decrease in heart rate produced by initially giving morphine?

A

True

109
Q

What drug combination would be the MOST appropriate choice for pre-anesthetic medication in a friendly but extremely hyperactive 12-month old 20kg dog prior to elective ovariohysterectomy (OVH) in student surgery lab?

A

Opioid (painful surgery) + Ace (anxiolytic/ sedation mainly)

110
Q

Give an example of an ASA 1 animal.

A

18 month-old dog with a skin laceration

any minor wound that poses no threat to the animal’s wellbeing overall

111
Q

Which of the injectable benzodiazepines would be the best choice for IM administration?

A

Midazolam

Diazepam is not for IM as it is poorly soluble in water

112
Q

Morphine causes a non-specific mast cell degranulation

A

True

113
Q

Does Acepromazine do analgesia?

A

no

114
Q

Does smaller suture mean tighter knots?

A

yes

115
Q

Generally, you should always try to use the smallest suture that is suitable to use?

A

True

116
Q

Function of breathing circuits

A
  • deliver O2 and anesthetic; remove O2

- provide means of ventilation

117
Q

Minute Ventilation

A

(Tidal Volume) * (Respiratory Rate)

118
Q

What is the most popular type of non-rebreathing system?

A

Bain Circuit

119
Q

Non-rebreathing system facts

A
  • low resistance
  • simple and inexpensive
  • rebreathing prevented by high gas flow rate
  • used w/ smaller animals (<10kg)
120
Q

What type of rebreathing system would you use in smaller animals?

A

Non-rebreathing system

121
Q

Minimum flow rate for a non-rebreathing system

A

FGF of 200 mL/ kg*min with an overall minimum of 500mL/ min

122
Q

Bain Circuit facts

A
  • inspired [anesth] = vaporizer setting
  • very little time lag
  • Gas is cool and dry (heat and h2o loss)
    • pressure ventilation possible
123
Q

Rebreathing Circuit facts

A
  • ability to remove CO2 from exhaled gases prior to rebreathing
  • more parts/ complexity
  • can use much lower gas flow rates
124
Q

Track the path of a Circle System circuit

A

yeah . boi

125
Q

Reservoir Bag

A
  • provides a means by which to ventilate patient
  • allows visible and tactile obersvation of breathing
  • bag size = 5 * Tidal Volume
126
Q

CO2 absorption (rebreathing)

A
  • needs H2O
  • Ca(OH)2 is main chemical
  • Signs of exhaustion = granules harden, color change
127
Q

In a rebreathing circuit how should flow rate and minute ventilation match up?

A
  • They should be roughly equal during anesthesia

- As anesthesia begins, it is ok to have higher flow rate to prime the line with anesthetic

128
Q

Scavenging Waste Gases (anesthetic circuits)

A
  • use a charcoal waste canister to collect the gases
129
Q

Breathing Circuit hazards

A
  • disconnection issues
  • increased deadspace
  • pressure buildup in circuit
130
Q

Why place an ET tube?

A
  • maintain patent airway
  • ability to deliver gas
  • ability to manually ventilate
  • some protection against aspiration
131
Q

Two cuff types

A
  • high pressure, low volume

- low pressure, high volume

132
Q

Rule of Thumb: you should always try to place the largest ET tube that comfortably fits in the trachea

A

True

133
Q

Where can a misplaced ET tube go?

A

Esophageal

Pharyngeal

134
Q

Intubation techniques (species differences)

A
  • Blind (horses, rabbits)
  • Manual (cattle)
  • Direct Visualization (most domestic species)
  • using a guide tube (difficult to visualize)
135
Q

Laryngeal Sensitivity Scales

A

cats&raquo_space; dogs > horses

136
Q

What species is particularly sensitive to largyngospasm? How will you treat this?

A

Cats; treat by applying lidocaine to the arytenoids prior to intubating

137
Q

How will you secure the ETT?

A
  • gauze tie, plastic tube

- tie onto tube ( do not constrict the tube and occlude)

138
Q

Intubation complications

A
  • upper airway trauma
  • tracheal trauma (overinflated cuff)
  • tracheal tears
139
Q

Confirming ET tube placement

A
  • visual
  • bag movement
  • fogging of tube
  • gas out of tube
  • palpation
140
Q

What are Halsted’s principles (6 of them)?

A
  • good surgery practices
  • gentle handling of tissues
  • aseptic technique
  • preservation of blood supply + careful hemostasis
  • removal of dead space
  • avoidance of tension
  • accurate tissue apposition
141
Q

What are the two types of suture needles?

A
  1. Taper - sensitive tissues (GI, Bladder, muscle)

2. Cutting - easily cuts through increased collagen tissue

142
Q

Things to consider in suture choice?

A
  • rate of tensile strength loss (PDS - longterm strength)
  • knot security (primary site of failure)
  • handling characteristics
  • tissue reactivity (suture granuloma)
143
Q

Surgical Site Infection (SSI)

A
  • not the same as tissue reactivity
  • inflammation =/= infection
  • amount of suture used is inversely related to number of bacteria needed in SSI
  • use monofilament if possible
144
Q

Suture Tension

A
  • excessively tight suture can reduce blood supply
  • too loose –> incision gap
  • goal: hold tissue in apposition while leaving room for inflammation
145
Q

Suture Handling Characteristics

A
  • material memory
  • tendency to return to original shape after deformation
  • monofilament has more memory than multifilament
146
Q

What color tank is oxygen?

A

green

147
Q

Function of the pin index system (anesth. machine)

A

safety feature to prevent connection of wrong gases

148
Q

O2 flush valve

A
  • deliver 35-70 L/ min at 50-60 psi (very high flow and pressure)
  • used to check or flush circuit when patient is disconnected
  • never use on non-rebreathing circuit –> death
149
Q

function of the control valve

A
  • reduce pressure from 50-60psi –> 15psi

Vet 415 - Clinical Skills (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions