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Private Pilot Written Exam > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which V-Speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A

VFE

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2
Q

The term “Angle of Attack” is defined as…

A

The angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.

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3
Q

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

A

Both wings are stalled

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4
Q

What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

A

Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating

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5
Q

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is…

A

Heavy, clean, and slow

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6
Q

Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s Principle?

A

Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface

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7
Q

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

A

Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed

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8
Q

What is true altitude?

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

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9
Q

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

A

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower

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10
Q

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate…

A

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

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11
Q

(Refer to figure 23, area 3). The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 007° radial is…

A

454 feet MSL (mean sea level)

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12
Q

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only…

A

When the associated control tower is in operation

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13
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is…

A

3 miles

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14
Q

(Refer to figure 20, Area 4). What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

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15
Q

(Refer to figure 26, Area 2). The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are…

A

3 miles, and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

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16
Q

(Refer to figure 26, Area 2). The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown airport at or below 700 feet AGL are…

A

1 mile and clear of clouds

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17
Q

When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

A

7500, 7600, and 7700

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18
Q

(Refer to figure 26, Areas 4 and 2; and figure 28). The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Cooperstown. Which VOR indication is correct?

A

4

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19
Q

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

A

Heat exchange

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20
Q

(Refer to figure 20, Area 3; and figure 28). The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?

A

9

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21
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall…

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

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22
Q

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A

Temperature between 20° and 70° Fahrenheit and high humidity

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23
Q

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM

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24
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to…

A

Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

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25
Q

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

26
Q

Where is the Available Landing Distance (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A

Chart supplement (formerly the Airport/Facility directory)

27
Q

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

A

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

28
Q

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A

Denotes intersecting runways

29
Q

If an emergency situation required a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster…

A

Groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point

30
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there…

A

Is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

31
Q

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

A

Towering cumulus clouds

32
Q

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the…

A

Wind direction

33
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind pared at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A

25 knots

34
Q

(Refer to figure 17). Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet

A

230° true at 21 knots, temperature at -4° Celsius

35
Q

To update a previous weather briefing , a pilot should request…

A

An abbreviated briefing

36
Q

(Refer to figure 15). During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?

A

Greater than 6 statute miles

37
Q

Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) are weather charts best used to…

A

Learn the forecast weather along your proposed route of flight as well as at your destination if it has no terminal forecast

38
Q

You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should…

A

Identify yourself as a pilot

39
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

A

Single-engine land and sea, multi engine land and sea

40
Q

The Pilot in Command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

41
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

42
Q

According to regulation pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may…

A

Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involves only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

43
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

44
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

45
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

A

The seaplane

46
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic

47
Q

An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on July 12th, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than…

A

July 31st, next year

48
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

A

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

49
Q

If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9, the pilot may proceed…

A

To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

50
Q

What is density altitude?

A

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

51
Q

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is…

A

Higher than pressure altitude

52
Q

(Refer to figure 35). Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65% maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard

A

21.0’’ Hg

53
Q

(Refer to figure 36). Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots

A

35 knots

54
Q

(Refer to figures 32 and 33). Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits
……………………………………………………
Front seat occupants….. 340lbs
Rear seat occupants….. 295lbs
Fuel (main wing tanks)….. 44gal
Baggage….. 56lbs

A

20lbs overweight, CG within limits

55
Q

(Refer to figure 00). How should the 500lb weight be shifted to balance the plank of the fulcrum?

A

1 inch to the left

56
Q

(Refer to figure 23). Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (Area 1) to Clapton-Evans County Airport (Area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Use 5° west variation.

A

208°

57
Q

(Refer to figure 23). What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Clayton-Evans County Airport (Area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (Area 1)? The wind is from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out

A

39 minutes

58
Q

(Refer to figure 23). What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Allendale County Airport (Area 1) to Clapton-Evans County Airport (Area 2)? The wind is from 100° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 115 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

A

30 minutes

59
Q

If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from…

A

246° and 13 knots

60
Q

What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

A

Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes

Private Pilot Written Exam (1 decks)

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