Exam#1 Flashcards

1
Q

Flight Information Service includes the provision of information concerning collision
hazards to aircraft in airspace classes C, D E, F and G.

A

True

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2
Q

When aircraft use air traffic advisory service, the unit will deliver :

A

Advisory information

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3
Q

Which unit is responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue
services and for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations?

A

The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)

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4
Q

When you received information indicating that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, what is the state of
emergency?

A

Distress phase

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5
Q

A surveillance radar system which uses reflected radio signal is a

A

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)

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6
Q

What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency

A

A7700

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7
Q

Is 7528 a SSR code (mode A)?

A

false

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8
Q

There are two types of radar used in ATC. What are they?

A

PSR and SSR

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9
Q

What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived Height information within RVSM
airspace

A

+/- 200 f

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10
Q

What is the name of the procedure by which an aircraft is given headings to fly by a
radar controller to achieve positioning of an aircraft to start an instrument approach or
avoid other contacts etc …?

A

Radar vectoring

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11
Q

What is the common radar separation minima used by an area control unit?

A

5 Nm (9.3 Km)

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12
Q

Observation of compliance with an instruction to squawk IDENT is a PSR
identification procedure.

A

False

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13
Q

You are IFR and you are flying in VMC. You suffer a communication failure. What
are you required to do?

A

Continue to fly VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

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14
Q

What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

A

That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions

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15
Q

Without special permission, what is the highest flight level that VFR flight can fly?

A

FL195

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16
Q

In controlled airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) is applied,
what is the highest FL that VFR flight is permitted at?

A

Even with special permission, not above FL290

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17
Q

Except for take off and landing, what is the lowest that an aeroplane flying VFR may
fly over a town or city?

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m radius of the aeroplane

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18
Q
You are flying in class G airspace, what is the lowest you are permitted to fly in VFR
when well away from towns etc…
A

500ft above ground level

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19
Q

What is the VMC criteria in class C airspace above FL100

A

Flight visibility 8Km or more, 1000ft (300m) vertically and 1500m
horizontally clear of the cloud

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20
Q

You are flying IFR outside of controlled airspace. Are you required to maintain a radio
watch?

A

Yes

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21
Q

An IFR flight operating in level cruising flight outside of controlled airspace shall be
flown at:

A

A cruising level appropriate to its track

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22
Q

When separation minima bases on ATS surveillance system are being applied at the
time of transfer of control, the transfer of air-ground communications of an aircraft
from the transferring to the accepting ATC unit shall be made immediately after the
accepting ATC unit has agreed to assume control.

A

True

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23
Q

Is the interception of civilian aircraft permitted?

A

Yes, each state has the sovereign right to intercept and identify aircraft flying
over its territory

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24
Q

When is a controlled flight required to make position reports

A

When not advised by ATC to cease position reports

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25
You are about to take off from an aerodrome within a control zone. What cloud ceiling and flight visibility limitations apply to VFR flights in this situation?
Ceiling at least 1500ft and visibility not less than 5Km
26
What defined a controlled aerodrome
An aerodrome where Air Traffic Control is provided for aerodrome traffic
27
. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress and Calling frequency?
121.500MHz
28
An IFR approach procedure is composed of these segments:
Arrival segment, initial segment, intermediate segment, final segment, missed approach segment
29
Where timing is specified, the outbound leg length for holding procedure below 14000ft is:
1 minute
30
For Category I precision approach, the Decision Height (DH) is:
DH ≥ 200ft
31
How does ATC provide separation between controlled flights under IFR
By issuing clearances
32
Vertical or horizontal separation between 2 IFR flights shall be provided in:
A, B, C, D, and E airspace classes
33
What does the abbreviation ATIS stand for?
Automatic Terminal Information Service
34
What is a “STAR”?
A pre-determined arrival route flown by IFR flights to the point at which an instrument approach can begin
35
. In a flight plan, if the flight rules field is filed with Y, it means:
The flight is IFR first then VFR
36
The submission of a flight plan is compulsory when aircraft cross international borders
True
37
An flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least:
60 minutes before departure
38
The airborne warning system to avoid collision between aircraft is:
TCAS
39
Find the right answer:
ATM = ATS + ATFCM + ASM
40
FUA is linked to:
ASM
41
Which document contains the ICAO Rules of the Air?
ICAO Annex 2
42
To which aircraft do the ICAO rules of the air apply?
Aircraft bearing an ICAO contracting state registration mark
43
When an aircraft is flying, under what flight rules must the flight be conducted?
Either IFR or VFR
44
An area Control Centre ACC provides
Air traffic control service, flight information service and alerting service
45
UTA is a controlled airspace managed by
An area control center
46
In class G airspace, a VFR flight flies heading 060. What could be the flight level?
095
47
Is it possible to have a vertical distance of 500ft between two aircraft?
Yes, if there is no separation to be provided by an air traffic control unit
48
QFE is
The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation
49
. Altimetry: QNH = 1020 hPa, QFE = 1010 hPa, 28ft/hPa. What is the altitude of the aerodrome
280 ft
50
What is a standard
Any specifications, the uniform application of which is recognized as necessary in the interests of safety, regularity or efficiency of international navigation and to which contracting states will conform in accordance with the convention; in the event of impossibility of compliance, notification to the council is compulsory
51
Aerodrome control service prevents collision on the movement area?
False
52
When two aircraft are approaching head on, what are they expected to do?
Each shall alter its heading to the right
53
Which of the following are the three basic Air Traffic Services?
Air Traffic Control, Flight information Service, Alerting Service
54
What is the basic Air traffic service provided in a FIR?
Flight Information Service
55
What does define a controlled aerodrome?
An aerodrome where air traffic control is provided for aerodrome traffic
56
What are Air Traffic Control Units required to provide?
Air traffic services within CTAs, CTRs and at controlled aerodrome
57
By what/whom is area control provided?
An ACC or by Approach control unit
58
How does ATC provide separation between controlled flights under IFR?
By issuing clearances
59
What is the name of the CTA located over FL195
UTA
60
The aerodrome controller is responsible for preventing collision on the apron?
False
61
The vertical separation in a RVSM airspace between two approved RVSM aircraft is
1000 ft
62
What is the vertical distance between these two aircraft if the first flight is at 2280ft/QNH and the second flight at 1000ft / QFE? QFE = 1010 hPa, QNH = 1020 hPa, 28ft/hPa
1000 ft
63
What are the two different kinds of air traffic?
GAT-OAT
64
When the meteorological conditions are VMC:
The pilot can fly in VFR or IFR
65
What SSR squawk should be set in a radio failure?
A7600
66
What is the common radar separation minima used by an area control unit?
5Nm