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PMG > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In prokaryotes the DNA forms a tangle known as a nucleoid

a) True
b) False

A

a)True

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2
Q

All bacteria have cell wall

a) True
b) False

A

a)True

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3
Q

In the DNA chain phosphodiester bonds join each deoxynycleotide

a) True
b) False

A

a)True

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4
Q

In the double helix of DNA the DNA chains are join by

a) phosphodiester bonds
b) hydrogen bonds
c) covalent bonds

A

b)hydrogen bonds

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5
Q

Meselson and Stahl’s experiment proved replication of DNA to be

a) Semiconservative replication
b) Conservative replication
c) Dispersive replication

A

a) Semiconservative replication

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6
Q

The DNA polymerase I makes the Okazaki fragments

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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7
Q

The replication in the leading strand is

a) Continuous
b) Discontinuous
c) 3’—5’

A

a) Continuous

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8
Q

In bacteria the replication is unidirectional

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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9
Q

In bacteria there are several origins of replication

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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10
Q

Replication continues until the replication fork enters a region of the chromosome called Ter

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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11
Q

The RNA polymerase makes a complementary copy of the DNA using the strand 5’—3’

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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12
Q

The tertiary structure of RNA is called a

a) hairpin
b) tRNA
c) Pseudonot

A

c) Pseudonot

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13
Q

The promoter is recognized by the sub-unit alpha of the RNA polymerase

a) True
b) False

A

b)False

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14
Q

In prokaryotes different types of RNA Polymerase synthesizes mRNA, tRNA and rRNA

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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15
Q

In the transcription the process in which the RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to a promoter sequence on DNA is called

a) Initiation
b) Elongation
c) Termination
d) None of these

A

a) Initiation

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16
Q

. Which of the following is more likely to be a factor independent transcription termination site

a) 3’ ACTAGCCTAAGCATCTTGAGGCACAGAAAAAAAAATGC 5’
b) 3’ ACGTAAGGGTTTAAACGTACCCAAAAAAAAAAATCG 5’
c) 3’ AACGACTAGTACGACATACTAGTCGTTGGCAAAAAAAAAAAAAATG

A

c) 3’ AACGACTAGTACGACATACTAGTCGTTGGCAAAAAAAAAAAAAATG

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17
Q

What is the longest ORF in the mRNA?

a) 5’ C AUG GAC UAA UCC UAG AUG UCG CGG GUU GAC AAU UUA ACU GUC GCG CCG GGU UCU GA 3’
b) 5’ CCCATGGACTAATAGATGTCGCGGGTTGACAATTTAACTGTCGCGCCGGGTTCTGA 3’
c) 5’ C AUG GAC UAA UCC UAG ACG UCG CGG GUU GAC AAU UUA ACU GUU GAC CCA CGU UU 3’

A

a) 5’ C AUG GAC UAA UCC UAG AUG UCG CGG GUU GAC AAU UUA ACU GUC GCG CCG GGU UCU GA 3’

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18
Q

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that specifies the first amino acid in the synthesis of a polypeptide chain

a) Codon
b) Anticodon
c) Start codon
d) Nonsense codon

A

c) Start codon

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19
Q

What amino acid sequence would the DNA base sequence 5’ CGCATGAAAGAGCCT 3’ code for?

A

Arg-Met-Lys-Glu-Pro

20
Q

A complex consisting of a 30S ribosomal subunit, a tRNA having the anticodon UAC and carrying an altered form of the amino acid methionine (N-formylmethionine or f-Met), and proteins called initiation factors.

a) 50S or 60S ribosomal subunit
b) initiation complex
c) aminoacyl-tRNA

A

b) initiation complex

21
Q

The ribosomal subunit that binds to mRNA to form the initiation complex.

a) 30S ribosomal subunit
b) P-site of ribosome
c) A-site of ribosome
d) E-site of ribosome
e) 50S ribosomal subunit

A

a) 30S ribosomal subunit

22
Q

The ribosomal site where an aminoacyl-tRNA first attaches during translation.

a) 30S ribosomal subunit
b) P-site of ribosome
c) A-site of ribosome
d) E-site of ribosome
e) 50S ribosomal subunit

A

c) A-site of ribosome

23
Q

The ribosomal site where the growing amino acid chain is temporarily being held by a tRNA as the next codon in the mRNA is being read.

a) 30S ribosomal subunit
b) P-site of ribosome
c) A-site of ribosome
d) E-site of ribosome
e) 50S ribosomal subunit

A

b) P-site of ribosome

24
Q

Bacteria that cannot make or lacks the ability to grow on a particular nutrient.

a) Auxotroph
b) Prototroph
c) Mutant

A

a) Auxotroph

25
Q

Newcomb experiment proof the direct mutation hypothesis

a) True
b) False

26
Q

Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence that are not inherited

a) True
b) False

27
Q

Transitions, transversions, missense mutations and Nonsense mutations are included in the

a) Deletion mutations
b) Inversion mutations
c) Tandem duplications
d) Frameshift mutations
e) Base Pair Changes

A

e) Base Pair Changes

28
Q

Inversion is a mutation cause by cause by recombination between repeats and it can revert

a) True
b) False

29
Q

Suppression: alleviation of the effects of a mutation by second mutation elsewhere in the DNA

a) True
b) False

30
Q

Selection is a procedure in which bacteria are grown under conditions in which only the wild type or the desired mutant (or recombinant) can multiply, allowing the isolation of even very rare mutants (and recombinant)

a) True
b) False

31
Q

Cis acting mutation affect a functional region on the DNA molecule that does encode a gene product

a) True
b) False

32
Q

Procedure where using molecular genetic techniques in which a cloned gene is altered in the test tube and then reintroduced into the organism, then the altered gene replace the corresponding normal gene

a) Transgenic
b) Gene replacement
c) Recombination

A

b) Gene replacement

33
Q

If a DNA strand reads 3’-TACGGCATG (where the names of the bases are abbreviated), then the RNA molecule created by transcription would read

a) ATGCCGTAC
b) AUGCCGUAC
c) CGTAATGCA
d) CGUAAUGCA

A

b) AUGCCGUAC

34
Q

In the bacterial chromosome replication the DnaA multimer complexes with ATP causes melting of an AT rich region to which another protein, DnaB/DnaC/ATP complex can then bind.

a) True
b) False

35
Q

Gene A contains a frameshift mutation. To revert that mutation (change it back to normal or wild type) you would use a

a. mutagen causing transitions
b. mutagen causing transversions
c. mutagen causing frameshifts

A

c. mutagen causing frameshifts

36
Q

To revert a transition mutation you would use a

a. mutagen causing transitions
b. mutagen causing transversions
c. mutagen causing frameshifts

A

a. mutagen causing transitions

37
Q

To revert a transversion mutation you would use a

a. mutagen causing transitions
b. mutagen causing transversions
c. mutagen causing frameshifts

A

b. mutagen causing transversions

38
Q

Sec YEG : proteins that assist the non-covalent folding/unfolding

a) True
b) False

39
Q

A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32 percent A, 18 percent G, 17 percent C, and 33 percent T. The nucleic acid must be:

a) single-stranded RNA
b) single-stranded DNA
c) double-stranded RNA
d) double-stranded DNA

A

b)single-stranded DNA

40
Q
  1. The Ter region is the area that contains multiple symmetrically arranged sites for trapping the replication fork.
    a) True
    b) False
41
Q

Resolution of Dimerized chromosomes__

a) Condensins
b) Xer site-specific recombination system
c) Formation of supercoil DNA occupy a smaller space
d) Type II topoisomerase (Topo IV) removes the interlinks between the daughter DNAs

A

b) Xer site-specific recombination system

42
Q

Decatenation____

a) Condensins
b) Xer site-specific recombination system
c) Formation of supercoil DNA occupy a smaller space
d) Type II topoisomerase (Topo IV) removes the interlinks between the daughter DNAs

A

d)Type II topoisomerase (Topo IV) removes the interlinks between the daughter DNAs

43
Q

Condensation___

a) Condensins
b) Xer site-specific recombination system
c) Formation of supercoil DNA occupy a smaller space
d) Type II topoisomerase (Topo IV) removes the interlinks between the daughter DNAs

A

c)Formation of supercoil DNA occupy a smaller space

44
Q

Condensins_____

a) Condensins
b) Xer site-specific recombination system
c) Formation of supercoil DNA occupy a smaller space
d) Type II topoisomerase (Topo IV) removes the interlinks between the daughter DNAs

A

a)Condensins

45
Q
  1. Which mRNA codes for the following polypeptide: met arg ser leu glu
     a) 3'-AUGCGUAGCUUGGAGUGA-5'
 b) 3'-AGU GAG GUU CGA UGC GUA-5'
 c) 5'-AUG CGU AGC UUG GAG UGG-3'
 d) 1'-AUGCGUAGCUUGGAGUGA-3'
A

b) 3’-AGU GAG GUU CGA UGC GUA-5’

PMG (3 decks)

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