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Pathophys > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cellulitis

A

Bacteria (Streptococcus and staphylococcus most common)
Contact/Vector
Breaks in skin, eczema, Athlete’s foot, shingles, burns, insect bites, IV catheters
No vaccine; antibiotics to treat

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2
Q

Chickenpox (Varicella)

A

Herpes Virus Type 3; Varicella-Zoster Virus
Direct contact, Droplets in Air
Respiratory tract or eyes
Vaccine available

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3
Q

Clostridium Difficile

A

Bacteria
Contact or Vehicle (Fecal-Oral)
Oral
No vaccine; stop antibiotics and take oral flagyl

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4
Q

Chlamydia

A

Bacteria: Chlamydia trachomatis
Contact (sexual; mother-child), body fluids
Mucous membrane (vagina, anus) or oral
No vaccine

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5
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Virus (herpes virus Type 5)
Contact (blood/body fluids); transplanted organs
Oral and Genital cavity, eyes, organs transplant
No vaccine (in development)

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6
Q

Gas Gangrene

A

Anaerobic Bacteria (Clostridium perfringens)
Contact
Lesions/Open Wounds
No vaccine

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7
Q

Gonorrhea

A

Bacteria
Contact (Unprotected sex/mother-baby)
Mucous membrane
No vaccine, antibiotics cure

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8
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Virus
Food/Water
Ingestion, Inhalation
Vaccine available (children starting at age 1, travelers to certain countries)

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9
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Virus
Contact with body fluids
Sex, needles, mother-child, percutaneous injuries
Vaccine available

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10
Q

Hepatitis C

A

Virus
Contact (body fluids, injection, needle, mother-child)
Needle, open wounds, sexual contact
No Vaccine, treated with meds

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11
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus

A

Virus
Sexual contact, mother-child, hand contact
Broken/open mucous membranes (oral cavity, eyes, genitals), minor skin abrasions
No vaccine, can be treated with anti-viral drugs

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12
Q

HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Contact/Droplet
Percutaneously (needles), sex, child birth, blood transfusion, body fluids
No vaccine, antivirals used for treatment

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13
Q

Human Papillomavirus

A

Virus
Contact (sexually transmitted)
Cuts/Abrasions/Small tears in skin, mucous membranes (genitals and eyes)
Vaccine, recommended ages 11-12

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14
Q

Impetigo

A

Bacteria (90% Staph; also Strep)
Skin-to-skin/Droplet
Wound, surgical site, mucous entry point, impacts healthy skin
No vaccine, treated with oral antibiotics

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15
Q

Epstein Barr Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Herpes Virus 4
Direct contact with saliva or genital secretions, organ transplants
Oral, blood transfusion (possible), transplants, genital contact
No vaccine

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16
Q

Influenza

A

Virus
Droplet, contact
Mucosal tissues of respiratory tract, direct contact, inhalation
Vaccine, recommended annually (injection or nasal)

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17
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Bacteria; tick-borne
Vector (deer ticks)
Skin puncture into bloodstream
No vaccine, manufacturer discontinued in 2002 ( lack of demand), treated with antibiotics

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18
Q

Malaria

A

Micro-organisms from plasmodium; parasite
Vector, water, congenital, blood transfusion
Vector bite, transfusion, mother-child
No vaccines (clinical trials); protective measures

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19
Q

Meningitis

A

Viral, bacteria (also fungal or protozoa)
Airborne, droplet, contact (depends on organism)
Mucous membranes of upper respiratory tract
Vaccine, antibiotics for treatment

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20
Q

Otitis Media

A

Secondary to another bacterial/viral disease
Occasionally droplets and fomites
Oral, mucous membrane
Vaccine

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21
Q

Pneumonia

A

Bacteria, virus, or fungus
Direct contact, inhalation
Mucous membranes, respiratory tract (oral/nasal cavity)
Vaccine (adults 65+, immunocompromised children)

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22
Q

Pseudomonas

A

Bacteria (Pseudomonas aeruginosa)
Contact
Wounds, Urinary Tract, Blood
No Vaccine; antibiotic resistant for treatment

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23
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

A

Virus
Droplet/Direct Contact
Nose, mouth, eyes
No vaccine, in development; meds available for high-risk children

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24
Q

Rheumatic Fever

A

Inflammatory disease (inadequately treated bacterial infection [strep/scarlet fever])
Direct contact (mucous, skin lesions); occasionally droplets/fomites
Contact with mucous membrane
No vaccine; treated with antibiotics

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25
Q

Roseola

A

Herpes Virus Type 6 and 7
Droplet (respiratory secretions) or contact (saliva)
Respiratory tract
No vaccine

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26
Q

Shingles

A

Varicella Zoster Virus Type 3
Contact (fluid from blisters/rash)
Chapped lips, dry skin, open wounds, respiratory tract/eye
Vaccine; recommended adults over 60

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27
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus

A

Bacteria
Direct Contact (nose, skin, axilla, perineum); possibly airborne
Broken skin/mucous membranes, recent surgical sites, burns needles, catheters, prosthetics
No vaccine, antibiotics used depending on strain’s resistance
Abscess, osteomyelitis, wound infection, endocarditis, toxic shock, MRSA

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28
Q

Strep Throat

A

Bacteria (Group A Streptococcal infections)
Droplets or food
Travels from one respiratory system to another (mouth, nose)
No vaccine, treated with antibiotics

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29
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Bacteria
Airborne
Droplet (Respiratory tract)
Vaccine, BCG (rarely used in US)

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30
Q

Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci (VRE)

A

Bacteria (Enterococci)
Fomite
Broken skin or mucous membranes
No vaccine; antibiotics other than Vancomycin may be effective

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31
Q

This test provides a prognosis for critically ill patients

A

APACHE

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32
Q

What does a Basic Metabolic Panel measure?

A

Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Calcium, BUN, Creatinine, Glucose, Carbon Dioxide

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33
Q

____ levels reflect _______ status

A

Bicarbonate; Acid-Base

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34
Q

What 2 tests test Renal Function?

A

Creatinine

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

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35
Q

What aspects are tested with electrolytes?

A

Sodium, Calcium, Potassium, Chloride, and Bicarbonate

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36
Q

What is a Comprehensive Metabolic Panel composed of?

A 
Basic Metabolic Panel
Bilirubin
Total Protein
Albumin
Serum Enzymes
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37
Q

What are the Liver Enzymes?

A

Transaminases
Bilirubin
Ammonia

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38
Q

What are the Hematological Tests?

A 
Complete Blood Count
RBC Function
WBC Function
WBC Differential
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
Coagulation Studies
Bone Marrow Aspiration
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39
Q

What does a CBC test?

A

Infection
Anemia
Arthritides
Cancer

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40
Q

What does an RBC Production and Function?

A

Hematocrit (percentage of whole blood occupied by RBCs)
Hemoglobin (oxygen-carrying capacity)
Reticulocyte (bone marrow production)

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41
Q

What do the Serum Chemistries test?

A

Iron and Iron Binding
Ferritin
Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid

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42
Q

What does a Bone Marrow Aspiration test?

A

Infectious Diseases
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Multiple Myeloma

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43
Q

What does an ERS test?

A

Rate RBCs settle out of unclotted blood in 1 hour

Polymyalgia rheumatica, Giant cell arteriris, RA, SLE, Hodgkin’s disease, TB

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44
Q

What are the 5 types of Leukocytes?

A 
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
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45
Q

What are the 3 types of Lymphocytes?

A

Helper T Cells (middle man)
Suppressor T Cells
B-Lymphocytes

46
Q

What does a WBC Function test indicate?

A

Susceptible to infection

47
Q

What does a WBC Differential test indicate?

A

Maturity (left shift of neutrophils during infection/necrosis)
Morphology
Qualitative abnormalities

48
Q

What tests are used to evaluate hemostasis?

A

Bleeding Time
Prothrombin Time
International Normalized Ratio
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

49
Q

What are the 2 Regulation of Coagulation tests?

A

D-Dimer: Neg (low chance of thrombus) Elevated (unfavorable coagulation)
Warfarin Sensitivity: Genotypes associated with abnormal sensitivity to warfarin (coumadin)

50
Q

What are the Immunologic Tests?

A

Tumor-Associated Antigens
Rheumatoid Factor
Human Leukocyte Antigen
Antinuclear Antibodies

51
Q

What all is analyzed in a Urinalysis test?

A

Color and Appearance (Pale yellow to amber; turbidity: clear to slightly hazy)
Specific Gravity (high if concentrated urine) and Occult Blood (no RBCs seen)
Glucose (spills into urine when renal tubule reabsorption capacity is exceeded)
Ketones (excess when carb metabolism is altered in Type 1 diabetes, fat used as energy)
Electrolytes (sodium, chloride, potassium)
Drug Screening

52
Q

What are the Microbiologic Study Tests?

A 
Gram Stain (gram-positive [blue] vs gram-negative [pink])
Cultures: detect bacteria in blood, sputum, pleural fluid, throat, urine
53
Q

What is a Peritoneal Fluid Analysis?

A

Paracentesis: insertion of a trocar through small surgical incision into abdominal cavity to remove fluid
Diagnoses peritoneal effusion

54
Q

What happens to your immune system as you age?

A

Decreased Cell Immunity
Chronic Disease
Increased Likelihood of Exposure to Nosocomial Infections
Subtle Response to Infection

55
Q

What are the 3 lines of defense?

A

1st: Normal Flora
2nd: Inflammatory Process
3rd: Immune Response

56
Q

What are the characteristics of Group B Streptococcal Infections?

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Leading cause: Neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis
Direct Contact or Inhalation
Vaccine for children and older adults

57
Q

What are the blood-borne Viral Diseases?

A

Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HIV

58
Q

What are the Herpesviruses?

A 
Herpes Simplex (Type 1 and 2)
Varicella/Herpes Zoster (Type 3)
EBV (Type 4)
CMV (Type 5)
Roseola (Type 6 and 7)
Kaposi's Sarcoma (Type 8)
59
Q

What are the Viral Respiratory Infections?

A

Influenza

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

60
Q

What are the Epithelial Neoplasms?

A

Benign: Papilloma and Adenoma

Malignant: Carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma

61
Q

What are the CT/Muscle Neoplasms?

A

Benign: Fibroma and Osteoma

Malignant: Fibrosarcoma and Osteosarcoma

62
Q

What are the Nerve Neoplasms?

A

Benign: Neuroma

Malignant: Glioma and Retinoblastoma

63
Q

What are the Lymphoid Neoplasms?

A

Lymphoma

64
Q

What are the Hematopoietic Neoplasms?

A

Leukemia and Multiple Myeloma

65
Q

What are the characteristics of Actinic Keratosis?

A

Precancerous (10% advance to carcinoma)
Small, dry, crusty
Face, lips, back of hands, arms, shoulders

66
Q

What is the TNM Staging System?

A

T: Primary Tumor (Tx, T0, TIS, T1-4
N: Regional Lymph Nodes (Nx, N0, N1-3
M: Distant Metastasis (Mx, M0, M1

67
Q

What is the tumor angiogenesis?

A

How cancerous cells invade the body

Cells break away, travel through blood/lymphatic system, trapped in capillaries

68
Q

What tumors are most likely to metastasize to the brain?

A

Lungs

69
Q

Clinical manifestations of Liver metastasis?

A

Abdominal pain, general malaise, fatigue, anorexia, early satiety, weight loss

70
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of bone metastasis?

A

Metastasize to the lung
Osteolytic: lung, kidney, thyroid, breast
Osteoblastic: breast and prostate

71
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of CNS metastasis?

A

Brain: life-threatening and debilitating; rarely metastasize

Spinal Cord: compression with osteolytic changes; loss of neuro function

72
Q

What are the systemic clinical manifestations of tumors?

A

Nausea, vomiting, retching, cancer-related anorexia/cachexia, pain, fever

73
Q

What are the different types of childhood cancer?

A 
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
Lymphomas
Primary CNS Tumors
Neuroblastoma
Wilm's (Kidney) Tumor
Rhabdomyosarcoma
74
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

General disorganization of cells

75
Q

What is Metaplasia?

A

Reversible and benign change from one cell type to another

76
Q

What is Hyperplasia?

A

Increase in the number of cells in the tissue; benign or malignant

77
Q

What is Anaplasia?

A

Loss of cellular differentiation; malignant only

Most advanced form of Metaplasia

78
Q

Innate vs. Acquired Immunity

A

Innate: natural or native (skin and mucosal barriers; nonspecific inflammatory response)
Acquired: adaptive: either active (body does something) or passive (body doesn’t do anything)

79
Q

Humoral vs Cell-Mediated Adaptive Immunity

A

Humoral: relies on antibodies

Cell-Mediated: relies on phagocytes and T lymphocytes

80
Q

What are the phases of immune response?

A 
Recognition
Amplification
Effector
Termination
Memory
81
Q

What happens to immunity as you age?

A

Decreased resistance to pathogens
Increased tumor incidence
Increased autoimmune diseases

82
Q

What are the Diseases of Secondary Immunodeficiency?

A 
Leukemia
Hodgkin's
Malnutrition
Alcoholism
Autoimmune Diseases
Diabetes Mellitus
Cancer
Iatrogenic (Immunosuppressive Drugs, Radiation, Splenectomy)
83
Q

What are the common immunodeficiency disorders you will run into?

A

HIV/AIDS
CFS and IDS
Hypersensitivity Disorders

84
Q

What are some of the clinical manifestations of CFS?

A

Sore throat, fever, muscle pain/weakness

85
Q

What are the stages of Hypersensitivity Disorders?

A

Type I: Immediate, allergic, anaphylaxis
Type II: Cytotoxic reactions to self-antigens
Type III: Immune Complex Disease
Type IV: Cell-Mediated Immunity

86
Q

What is SLE?

A

Lupus
4 of 11 ARA must be present (butterfly rash, photosensitivity))
Genetics, stress, strep/viral infection, UV light, EBV, drugs

87
Q

What are the disorders of the Pituitary Gland?

A

Anterior Lobe:
Hyperpituitarism: Gigantism and Acromegaly (GH)
Hypopituitarism: Panhypopituitarism and Dwarfism

Posterior Lobe:
Diabetes Insipidus and SIADH

88
Q

What are the results of Hypopituitarism of GH?

A

Short stature, delayed growth, delayed puberty

89
Q

What are the results of Hypopituitarism of ACTH?

A

Hypoglycemia, anorexia, nausea, orthostatic HTN

90
Q

What are the results of Hypopituitarism of TSH?

A

Tiredness, lethargy, sensitivity to cold

91
Q

What are the results of Hypopituitarism of LH and FSH?

A

Secondary amenorrhea, impotence, infertility, decreased libido, absent secondary sex characterstics

92
Q

What are the neuro signs of secondary tumor?

A

Headache, bilateral temporal hemianopsia, loss of visual acuity, blindness

93
Q

What are the results of Hypopituitarism of ADH?

A 
Diabetes Insipidus (Posterior lobe)
Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, nocturia, fatigue
94
Q

What are the results of Hyperpituitarism of ADH?

A

SIADH

Headache, confusion, lethargy, decreased urine, weight gain, seizures, muscle cramps

95
Q

What are the functional and anatomic abnormalities of the Thyroid Gland?

A

Functional:
Hyperthyroidism (Grave’s Disease)
Hypothyroidism (most common)

Anatomic:
Thyroiditis
Goiter
Tumor

96
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Grave’s Disease?

A

Goiter, nervousness, heat intolerance, weight loss, sweating, diarrhea, tremor, palpitations, exophthalmos
Reduced capacity

97
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Hypothyroidism?

A

Bradycardia, Decreased GI motility, slowed neuro function, decreased body heat production, altered lipid metabolism, myxedema, exercise intolerance, edematous skin, chest pain, HTN, CHF

98
Q

What is Goiter?

A

Enlargement of thyroid, lack of iodine, inflammation or tumors

99
Q

What is Thyroiditis?

A

Inflammation of thyroid, bacterial/viral, autoimmune (Hashimoto’s)

100
Q

What is Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Release of bone calcium into blood
Hypercalcemia -> hypergastrinemia -> abdominal pain, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis
Kidney damage

101
Q

What is Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decreased bone resorption
Iatrogenic and idiopathic
Acute tetany (tingling, spasms, trousseau’s sign, chvostek’s sign, laryngospasm)

102
Q

What are the hormones of the Adrenal Glands?

A

Outer Cortex: Mineralocorticoids (fluid balance), Glucocorticoids (metabolism), and Sex hormones
Inner Medulla: Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

103
Q

What are the Adrenal Conditions?

A

Insufficiency: Addison’s (Primary) and Secondary
Hyperfunction: Cushing’s Syndrome, Conn’s Syndrome, and Adrenal Hyperplasia

104
Q

What is Addison’s Disease?

A

Decreased cortisol and aldosterone
Dark pigmentation, hypotension, progressive fatigue
hyperkalemia, GI disturbances, Hypoglycemia

105
Q

What is Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Hypothalamic/pituitary tumors, rapid withdrawal of corticosteroid drugs
ACTH and MSH levels too low

106
Q

What is Acute Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Life-Threatening, abrupt withdrawal

Watch medication adherence

107
Q

What is Cushing’s Syndrome?

A 
Excess glucocorticoid
Moon face, buffalo hump, protruding abdomen, weakness/atrophy, decreased density, DM
Other form (oversecretion of ACTH by pituitary tumor, results from oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones)
108
Q

What is Conn’s Syndrome?

A

Hyperaldosteronism
Hypervolemia: HTN results in cerebral infarcts/renal damage
Hypokalemia: polyuria, polydipsia, DM
Metabolic alkalosis
Primary: adrenal lesion (benign)
Secondary: renal artery stenosis, renal HTN, cirrhosis with ascites

109
Q

What is Adipose Tissue Disorder?

A

Neurotransmitters + glucose -> adipocytes -> adipokines

Systemic low-grade inflammation

110
Q

What is Phenylketonuria?

A

Genetic defect in metabolism of phenylalanine
Mental retardation, tremors, poor coordination, perspiration, seizures (untreated)
Screened in newborns, dietary restrictions

111
Q

What is Wilson’s Disease?

A

Hepatolenticular Degeneration
Copper metabolism defecit
Kayser-Fleischer rings around iris, cirrhosis of liver, degenerative brain changes

112
Q

What is Porphyrias?

A

Hereditary, but sometimes acquired

Enzymatic abnormalities in biosynthesis of heme molecules

Pathophys (3 decks)

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