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Pharmacology High Yield Concepts > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 pharmacokinetic phases?

A

Absorption: mvmt into the capillaries/blood stream
Distribution: mvmt from blood into tissue and cells
Excretion: mvmt out of the body
Metabolism: change in the drug structure

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2
Q

What happens if you alter any of these 4 phases?

A

Serious consequences (deadly); can make drug not even work

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3
Q

What does enteral mean?

A

via GI tract

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4
Q

What does parenteral mean?

A

via injections

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5
Q

Do RNs get to choose the route of administration?

A

NO.

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6
Q

What could happen if you give a medication via the wrong route?

A

level could become too high

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7
Q

Which medication route has the most rapid (and complete) absorption rate?

A

IV

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8
Q

What is the BBB (blood brain barrier)?

A

helps protect the brain from toxins; It is located between the blood and the brain & it doesn’t have pores.

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9
Q

What organ metabolizes most drugs?

A

Liver

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10
Q

What may happen to a drug level if a client goes into liver failure?

A

Drug won’t be metabolized.

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11
Q

What drugs can cross the BBB?

A

Lipid soluble

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12
Q

What organ excretes most drugs?

A

Kidneys

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13
Q

What might happen to a client’s drug levels if they go into kidney failure?

A

May not excrete; toxicity then becomes an issue.

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14
Q

What two lab tests measure how well a client’s kidneys are functioning?

A

BUN - 0.5-1.5

Creatinine - 10-20

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15
Q

What does agonist mean?

A

Activate receptors

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16
Q

What does antagonist mean?

A

Block receptors

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17
Q

What does partial-agonist mean?

A

Partially activate receptors

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18
Q

Why is it important to learn “how” drugs work?

A

To see how they react in the body; understand why so you can apply knowledge.

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19
Q

What are the 3 types of names for a drug?

A

Trade
Generic
Chemical

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20
Q

Which type of drug name is the most important to learn?

A

Generic

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21
Q

Are generic medications the same as brand name versions?

A

Yes

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22
Q

What is a black box warning?

A

When a drug has severe adverse effects that the FDA wants to bring to prescriber’s attention; hence the heavy black border around these meds.

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23
Q

Should you give a medication if there is a contraindication relevant to your client?

A

NO

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24
Q

What does the term narrow therapeutic index mean?

A

Smaller index window; making does toxicity windows trickier

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25
Q

Why must nurses know the signs of toxicity when they are administering drugs with a narrow therapeutic index?

A

So they can know what to look for when a client may have toxicity issues.

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26
Q

What symptoms do CNS depressants cause?

A

Brake pedal to your brain.
Can cause a person to stop breathing.
Sleepy, draggy.

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27
Q

Is it a good idea to drink alcohol while taking a CNS depressant? Why or why not?

A

NO; it too is a CNS depressant.

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28
Q

What symptoms do CNS stimulants cause?

A

Like pushing the gas pedal.
Anxiety, irritability, insomnia.
May have you extremely talkative.
Strong doses can cause seizures.

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29
Q

What is acute dystonia?

A

Severe, sudden spasms of large muscle groups

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30
Q

What is akathisia?

A

Constant squirming; severe restlessness.

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31
Q

What is Parkinsonism?

A

Identical to Parkinson’s dz, except it is caused by a medication
Slow movements, loss of facial expressions, drooling, rigidity, tremors, stooped posture & shuffling gait

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32
Q

What could happen if EPS go untreated?

A

Could turn into worse conditions & even permanent ones

33
Q

Is tardive dyskinesia permanent?

A

Once it develops, yes!

34
Q

What are some S/S of tarydive dyskinesia?

A

Smacking of lips
Lateral movement of jaw
Facial grimacing
Twisting movements of the extremities

35
Q

What are 4 common anticholinergic side effects?

A

Cant see
Cant spit
Cant pee
Cant defacate (poop)

36
Q

How can you help relieve each of the side effects in the previous question?

A
  • Eye drops & sunglasses can help w/ vision problems.
  • Frequent sips of water & sugarless candy can help with dry mouth.
  • Urine retention can be alleviated by voiding before taking the medication.
  • Water, walking & fiber help w/ constipation.
37
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

When you move from a horizontal position to a vertical position, gravity pulls much of your blood to your lower extremities. Your sympathetic NS has to do a bunch of things to increase the pressure in your legs so that blood will be forced to your brain.

38
Q

Is orthostatic hypotension dangerous?

A

It can be.

39
Q

Why do we worry about prolonged QT intervals?

A

It can lead to abnormal heart rhythms called “torsades de pointes” which means twisting of the points, which can then lead to ventricular fibrillation and then to RIP.

40
Q

Is it OK to take food with a medication?

A

Depends on the medication.

41
Q

If a client is to receive several doses of an opioid medication, what problem are they likely to experience?

A

Constipation

42
Q

What does neutropenia mean?

A

Loss of white blood cells (WBCs)

43
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Loss/destruction of platelets

44
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

A premature loss/destruction of RBCs

45
Q

What are eight S/S of hepatotoxicity?

A 
J aundice
A norexia
U paper ab pain
N nausea /vomiting/ diarrhea 
D ark urine
I increased need for sleep (fatigue)
C lay-colored stool
E ncephalitis (inflammation of the brain) & Ecchymosis
46
Q

What are the 2 lab tests that can tell us if a client’s liver in injured?

A

AST 1-36

ALT 1-36

47
Q

What are the 2 lab tests that can tell us if a client’s kidneys aren’t functioning properly?

A

Creatinine 0.5-1.5

BUN 10-20

48
Q

What should you always check for before giving a medication?

A

Allergies/ allergic reactions

49
Q

What does NKDA stand for?

A

No Known Drug Allergies

50
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

causes a client’s airway to close & sudden drop in BP

51
Q

How do we treat anaphylactic shock?

A 
Give epinephrine (EpiPen)
Maintain airway & monitor client
52
Q

What are the 3 groups most at risk for developing an adverse reaction?

A

Children
Older adults
Pregnant women ( & their babies )

53
Q

How are drugs usually dosed for children?

A

Child’s weight

Sometimes by age.

54
Q

Which group is prone to reduced serum albumin levels?

A

Older Adults

55
Q

What might happen if a client has reduced serum albumin levels and they are taking a protein-bound drug?

A

The drug will get stuck onto one of these molecules & more than likely stay stuck.
Meaning it is not going to do anything & its inactivated.

56
Q

What is teratogen?

A

Meds that are harmful to the fetus.

Monster makers.

57
Q

Which pregnancy risk category is safest for the fetus?

A

A

58
Q

Which pregnancy risk category is most dangerous for the fetus?

A

X

59
Q

What are 3 vaccines pregnant women must avoid?

A

Measles
Mumps
Rubella (MMR)
Varicella Vaccines

60
Q

Which drugs will cross the placenta?

A

Lipid soluble

61
Q

Which drugs will enter the breastmilk?

A

Lipid soluble

62
Q

When is the safest time for a breastfeeding mother to take a medication?

A

After breastfeeding

63
Q

What are the “ten” rights of safe medication administration?

A 
Client
Medication
Dose
Route 
Time
Documentation 
Client education
Right to refuse
Assessment
Evaluation
64
Q

What type of error has caused the most fatalities?

A

Med administration erros

65
Q

What should you do if an order calls for multiple pills or vials for a single dose?

A

Read the med label, use the right containers, check armbands, tell clients what you are giving them.

66
Q

Is it OK to put an oral medication in an IV syringe? Why or why not?

A

NO

67
Q

Is it OK to put insulin in a regular syringe? Why or why not?

A

No; units needed not mL

68
Q

Besides the armband the lists your client’s name, birthdate, etc., whats one other armband you should always look for?

A

Allergy armband

69
Q

What should you do if you don’t see an allergy armband on your client?

A

Ask the client if they have any allergies that could possibly not be noted. NKDA or NKA

70
Q

How can you encourage your client to become part of the safety?

A

Be humble; tell clients what you are giving them.

71
Q

What should you do if you’re certain that a med is correct but your client expresses a doubt or concern?

A

Say “I checked this a little earlier, but let me check again. I want to be 100% sure this is the right medication for you.”

72
Q

Whats the 1st thing a nurse should do if a client receives the wrong med?

A

Assess the client.

73
Q

Which med errors must be reported?

A

ALL.

74
Q

When documenting an error in a client’s chart, what style of writing should you use?

A

Have a very matter of fact style.
Be factual.
Be precise.

75
Q

Whats the purpose of incident reports?

A

So administrators can review safety issues that are occurring in the facility.
Help them recognize and fix errors in the Healthcare delivery system

76
Q

Is it OK to document in the client’s chart that you completed an incident report?

A

NO.

77
Q

What are 3 occasions a med reconciliation should be performed?

A
  • Patient coming into hospital.
  • Patient is transferred to a higher or lower level of care.
  • Patient is discharged.
78
Q

Who completes a med reconciliation?

A

Provider

79
Q

How does a nurse assist in the med reconciliation process?

A

Just make sure the provider remembers to perform a med reconciliation.

Pharmacology High Yield Concepts (1 decks)

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