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Exercise Testing and Prescription > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

benefits of good health

A

delay death, avoid disease, enjoy life, withstand challenges, improve Systolic BP and lipid profiles, lose body fat

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2
Q

benefits of fitness

A
  1. continued with healthy benefits
  2. greater reduction of CVD
  3. greater reduction in diastolic blood pressure
  4. enhanced glucose control
  5. greater increase in CRF
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3
Q

rank the 5 leading causes of death in the US

A
  1. Cardiovascular disease (31%
  2. cancer (23.2%)
  3. chronic lower respiratory disease (5.3%
  4. accidents (5.1%)
  5. alzheimer’s disease (3.1%)
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4
Q

what percentage of people die from

  1. smoking
  2. poor diet and physical inactivity
  3. alcohol consumption
A
  1. smoking 18.1%
  2. poor diet and physical inactivity ( 15.2%
  3. alcohol consumption (3.5%
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5
Q

what are 4 subcategories of physical activity

A
  1. self care or daily tasks
  2. occupational or leisure time activities
  3. recreational activity
  4. structured activity or competitive sport
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6
Q

List 6 impacts that physical activity can have on a persons health

A
  1. improved cardio-respiratory health
  2. improved metabolic health
  3. improved musculoskeletal health
  4. reduction in certain types of cancers
  5. improved mental health
  6. improved functional ability and overall reduction in falls
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7
Q

what results did the Harvard Alumni find with regards to leisure time physical activity and risk of heart attack

A

If a person expended greater than 2000 kcals during LTPA it would decrease their risk of having a heart attack by 36%

  • the focus of physical activity shifted from higher intensity fitness to
    1. health outcomes
    2. volume of activity
    3. LTPA
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8
Q

what year was physical activity declared a major risk factor by the AHA

A

1992

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9
Q

what year did ACSM publish public health guidelines and state that people should participate in moderate activity 30 min /day 5 days per week

A

1995

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10
Q

what is the intent of ACSM’s 30 min/day 5 day/week recommendation

A

health benefits

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11
Q

what is the intent of the Institute of Medicine’s 60 min moderate PA per day

A

health benefits and prevention of weight gain

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12
Q

what is the intent of the International Obesity Task Force’s 60-90 min/day moderate PA

A

prevention of weight regain in those who have lost a large amount of weight

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13
Q

what are the ACSM PA guidelines for reducing chronic disease

A
  1. 30 min moderate intensity 5 days per week
  2. 20 minutes vigorous, 3 days per week
  3. or some combo of the 2
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14
Q

what volume of PA results in substantial health benefits

A

500-1000 MET minutes per week

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15
Q

1 minute of vigorous intensity is equal to how many minutes of moderate intensity

A

2 minutes

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16
Q

how many minutes of moderate and vigorous activity are recommended each week

A

150 min moderate
or
75 min vigorous

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17
Q

does vigorous or moderate activity produce greater reductions in the risk of CV disease

A

vigorous

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18
Q

what are the 5 components of health-related fitness

A
  1. relative leanness
  2. cardio respiratory fitness
  3. muscular strength
  4. muscular endurance
  5. flexibility
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19
Q

what are the 6 components of performance related fitness

A
  1. speed
  2. agility
  3. balance
  4. power
  5. coordination
  6. reaction time
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20
Q

how many times per week should an adult perform activities to maintain or increase muscular strength and endurance

A

minimum of 2days/week

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21
Q

what are the 2 important conclusions that influenced the development of the PA recommendations

A
  1. important health benefits can be obtained by performing a moderate amount of PA on most, if not all, days of week
  2. additional health benefits result from greater amounts of regular PA
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22
Q

what percent of adults are physically inactive globally

A

31.1%

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23
Q

what percent of adults meet the aerobic activity guidelines

A

51.6%

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24
Q

what percent of adults meet muscle strengthening guidelines

A

29.3%

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25
Q

what percent of adults meet both the aerobic and muscle strengthening guidelines

A

20.6%

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26
Q

define agility

A

ability to change position of body in space with speed and accuracy

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27
Q

define body composition

A

the relative amounts of muscle, fat, bone, and other vital parts of the body

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28
Q

what is the MET range for very light/light PA

A

<3METs

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29
Q

what is the MET range for moderate activity

A

3-5.9 Mets

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30
Q

what is the MET range for vigorous activity

A

> 6.0 METS

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31
Q

what is the ratio of non fatal and fatal cardiovascular complication during cardiac rehabilitation

A

One nonfatal complication per 34,673 hours

One fatal complication per 116,402 hours

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32
Q

what 3 things is the new preparticipation health screening process based on

A
  1. current level of Pa
  2. presence of major signs or symptoms of CV, metabolic or renal diseases
  3. desired exercise intensity
33
Q

list some major signs and symptoms of cardiovascular, metabolic, and renal disease

A
  1. pain, discomfort in chest, neck, jaw, arms
  2. shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion
  3. dizziness or syncope
  4. orthopnea or parozysmal nocturnal dyspnea
  5. ankle edema
  6. palpitations or tachycardia
  7. intermittent claudication
  8. known heart murmur
  9. unusual fatigue
34
Q

what are the 2 stages of the preparticipation health screening process

A
  1. need for medical clearance before inititating or progressing exercise programming is determined using ACSM screening algorithm
  2. if indicated during screening, medical clearance should be sought from an appropriate health care provider
35
Q

what test is used as the self guided method of preparticipation screening

A

PAR-Q+

36
Q

what are the algorithm components of the ACSM screening

A
  1. classifying individuals who do or do not currently participate in regular exercise
  2. identify individuals with known CV, metabolic, or renal diseases
  3. identifying desired exercise intensity
37
Q

characteristics of lowest risk patients for exercise participation

A
  1. absence of complex ventricular dysrythmias during exercise
  2. absence of angina or other symptoms
  3. presence of normal hemodynamics during exercise
  4. functional capacity >7METS
38
Q

what is the resting ejection fraction of a low risk (healthyish person)

A

> 50%

39
Q

what are the characteristics of moderate risk patients for exercise participation

A
  1. presence of angina or other significant symptoms like shortness of breath or dizziness
  2. mild to moderate level of silent ischemia during exercise testing
  3. functional capacity <5METs

resting ejection fraction 40-49%

40
Q

characteristics of highest risk patients for exercise participation

A
  1. presence of complex ventricular dysrhythmias during exercise testing
  2. presence of angina or other symptoms at low levels of exertion
  3. high level of silent ischemia
  4. presence of abnormal hemodynamics with exercise testing

resting ejection fraction <40%

41
Q

what are the 8 positive risk factors for Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular disease

A
  1. family history
  2. cigarette smoking
  3. physical inactivity
  4. obesity
  5. hypertension
  6. dyslipidemia
  7. diabetes
  8. age
42
Q

what age is considered a positive risk factor for CVD for men and women

A

men >45

women >55

43
Q

what family history would be considered to be positive risk factors for CVD

A
  1. myocardial infarction
  2. coronary revascularization
  3. sudden death before 55 year in farther or before 65 in mother
44
Q

what criteria defines cigarette smoking as a risk factor of CVD

A

current smoker or those who quit within the previous 6 months or exposure to environmental smoke

45
Q

defining criteria for physical inactivity as a CVD risk factor

A

not participating in at least 30 min of moderate intensity physical activity on at least 3day/week for at least 3 months

46
Q

defining criteria for obesity as a positive risk factor for CVD

A

BMI >30
Men: waist >102cm (40in)

women: >88cm (35in)

47
Q

defining criteria for hypertension as a positive risk factor for CVD

A

systolic >140mm Hg or diastolic >90mmHg

on 2 separate occasions

48
Q

defining criteria of dyslipidemia as a positive risk factor for CVD

A

LDL: >130mg/dL
HDL: <40mg/dL
or on lipid lowering meds

total cholesterol: >200mg/dL

49
Q

defining criteria of diabetes as a positive risk factor of CVD

A

fasting plasma glucose >126mg/dL
or
2 hour glucose values in oral glucose tolerance >200mg/dL

50
Q

what is the negative risk factor for CVD and its defining criteria

A

HDL-C

>60mg/dL

51
Q

why is HDL-C not considered to be a risk factor for CVD

A

not contributory to metabolic disease

52
Q

list the 10 components of a pre-participation physical examination

A
  1. body weight (BMI, girth, body fat)
  2. apical pulse rate and rhythm
  3. resting blood pressure in seated, supine, and standing positions
  4. auscultation of the lungs with specific attention to uniformity of breath sounds
  5. palpation of the cardiac apical impulse and point of maximal impulse
  6. auscultation of the heart with specific attention to murmurs, gallops, and clicks
  7. palpation of auscultation of carotid, abdominal and femoral arteries
  8. evaluation of abdomen for bowel sounds, masses, and viseromegaly
  9. palpation and inspection of lower extremities for edema and presence of arterial pulses
  10. absence or presence of tendon xanthoma and skin xanthelasma
53
Q

4 ways to improve hypertension

A
  1. physical activity
  2. weight reduction
  3. DASH eating plan
  4. moderation of alcohol consumption
54
Q

pulmonary function testing with spirometry is recommended for all smokers >45yr and in any individual presenting with what 4 conditions

A
  1. dyspnea
  2. chronic cough
  3. wheezing
  4. excessive mucus production
55
Q

4 commonly used spirometry measurements

A
  1. forced vital capacity (FVC)
  2. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (90% of air out in 1 sec)
  3. FEV1/FVC ratio
  4. peak expiratory flow
56
Q

what obstructive diseases diminish the FEV1/FVC ratio

A
  1. asthma
  2. chronic bronchitis
  3. emphysema
  4. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
57
Q

how many hours before testing should patients refrain from eating, drinking alcohol, caffeine, or using tobacco productions

A

3 hours

58
Q

4 purposes of health related physical fitness testing

A
  1. collecting baseline data to educate people of their current health status
  2. providing data that are helpful in developing exercise prescriptions
  3. collecting follow up data that allow for evaluation of progress
  4. motivating participants by making goals
59
Q

what room temperature is recommended for a test site

A

68-72 degrees F and humidity less than 60%

60
Q

what resting measurements should be obtained first when testing

A
  1. heart rate
  2. bp
  3. height
  4. weight
  5. body comp
61
Q

what 5 things should be included on a comprehensive health fitness evaluation

A
  1. informed consent and exercise preparticipation screening
  2. pre-exercise eval
  3. resting measurements
  4. circumference measurements and body comp
  5. CRF, musuclar fitness, and flexibility measurements
62
Q

what are the 3 anthropometric methods to measure body comp

A
  1. BMI
  2. circumferences
  3. skinfold measurements
63
Q

what are the 2 densitometry methods for body comp

A
  1. hydrodensitometry weighing

2. plethsymography

64
Q

what is the limiting factor in densitometry methods

A

the accuracy of the body volume measurement because body mass is measured simply as body weigt

65
Q

what ranges for body comp have been viewed as satisfactory for health for men and women

A

men: 10-22%
women: 20-32%

66
Q

what measurement is accepted as the criterion of CRF

A

VO2 max

67
Q

what is VO2 max the product of

A

maximal cardiac output and arterial-venous oxygen difference

68
Q

what are 4 commonly used modes for exercise testing

A
  1. field tests
  2. motor-driven treadmills
  3. mechanically braked cycle erogmeters
  4. step testing
69
Q

4 examples of field tests

A
  1. 1.5 mi run/walk test
  2. cooper 12 min test
  3. rockport 1 mile fitness walking test
  4. 6 min walk test
70
Q

what are the 5 assumptions of cycle erogmetry

A
  1. HR and VO2 max linearly related between HR of 110-150 bpm
  2. HRmax can be predicted
  3. SS HR obtained in 3-4 minutes
  4. 50 rpm is comfortable for everyone
  5. sub-maximal VO2 can predict max VO2
71
Q

what are the 5 integral test measurements

A
  1. heart rate
  2. blood pressure
  3. Rate of Perceived exertion
  4. signs and symptoms
  5. VO2 prediction use of metabolic equations
72
Q

how many bpm must a HR be within to be considered to be steady state

A

5 bpm

73
Q

what concept is the mort important for VO2 max prediction

A

steady state concept

O2 consumption= O2 demand

74
Q

list signs of exercise intolerance

A
  1. HR response
  2. SBP response
  3. muscle fatigue
  4. hyperventilation
  5. dyspnea
  6. dizziness
  7. lightheadedness
  8. incoherence
  9. volitional fatigue
  10. cyanosis and pallor
  11. nausea
  12. inability to maintain workload
75
Q

4 submaximal step tests

A
  1. astrand and ryhming
  2. multistage step test
  3. canadian home fitness test
  4. queens college step test
76
Q

muscular strength and endurance are health related fitness components that mar improve what 6 things

A
  1. bone mass, which is related to osteoporosis
  2. muscle mass: which is related to sarcopenia
  3. glucose tolerance: which is pertinent in both the prediabetic and diabetic state
  4. musculotendinous integrity: lower risk of injury
  5. ability to carry out ADLs
  6. FFM and resting metabolic rate: weight management
77
Q

define absolute and relative values with regards to muscular fitness

A

Absolute: how much a person can lift relative to their total body weight

relative: how much they can lift relative to lean body mass

78
Q

what 3 variables does flexibility depend on

A
  1. distensibility of the joint capsule
  2. adequate warm up
  3. muscle viscosity

Exercise Testing and Prescription (1 decks)

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