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exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the branch of medicine, policy, and administration that protects populations of people from diseases

A

public health

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2
Q

intersection of vet medicine and public health

A

vet public health

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3
Q

T/F

there are less than 70 million food borne disease cases a year in the USA

A

FALSE – more and 70 mill

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4
Q

T/F
Most foodborne disease agents originate from
animals

A

TRUE

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5
Q

diseases with animal reservoirs

A

zoonoses

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6
Q

zoonoses account for what percent of emerging diseases

A

75%

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7
Q

what was SARS originally

A

a bat coronavirus

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8
Q

the study of distribution and determinants of disease and other health outcomes in animal populations

A

epizootiology

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9
Q

what are the three “dynamics” of disease transmission

A

host
agent
environment

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10
Q

who discovered cholera was spread fecal-orally in londons water supply

A

john snow - 1849

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11
Q

earliest reports of anthrax

A

1491BC

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12
Q

who first isolated the bacteria that causes anthrax

A

robert koch 1879

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13
Q

who had the anthrax vaccine in 1881

A

pasteur – for sheep goats and cattle

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14
Q

discovered malaria is transmitted by mosquitos

A

Ronald Ross

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15
Q

discovered yellow fever is from mosquitoes

A

Walter Reed

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16
Q

T/F

knowing the specific agent is more important than transmission method in disease prevention

A

FALSE – other way

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17
Q

habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, multiplies

A

reservoir

**maintain pathogens over time year to year, generation to generation

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18
Q

three questions to decide if its a reservoir

A
  1. naturally infected
  2. maintain pathogen over time
  3. can source transmit disease to a new susceptible host
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19
Q

T/F

all sick animals are reservoirs

A

FALSE

infection doesnt equal disease doesnt equal infectivity

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20
Q

transmission from host to offspring

A

vertical

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21
Q

pathogens that can cross the placenta

A

congenital transmission (vertical type)

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22
Q

transmitted during parturition via colostrum

A

perinatal – vertical type

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23
Q

transmission from reservoir to new host

A

horizontal

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24
Q

T/F

airborne is a type of direct transmission

A

TRUE q

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25
Q

any inanimate object that serves to communicate a disease

A

vehicle

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26
Q

a living organism that serves to communicate a disease

A

vector

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27
Q

objects that can be contaminated and transmit disease on a limited scale

A

fomites

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28
Q

microbe is replicating but not enough to be infectious

A

latent

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29
Q

microbe is replicating but not yet symptomatic

A

incubation

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30
Q

invasion, not multiplication of an organism

A

infestation

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31
Q

disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, airborne, or indirect routes from an infected person, animal, plant or a contaminated inanimate reservoir

A

communicable

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32
Q

disease transmissible from one human/animal to another via direct or airborne routes

A

contagious

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33
Q

disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of a living agent in/on a host

A

infectious

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34
Q

what do epidemic curves tell you

A

– Most probable source of the outbreak
– If the pathogen is contagious
– If the outbreak is ending – or will continue
– Incubation period of the pathogen (sometimes)
– About outliers

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35
Q

Represent the number of new cases of

disease, over time

A

epidemic curve

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36
Q

common point single source exposure curves

A 
All animals are exposed at once
• All are exposed to the same source of
infection
• Not contagious
• Can determine the minimum, average, and maximum
incubation time
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37
Q

common source with intermittent exposure curve

A
  • Animals are exposed at different times
  • Exposed to the same source
  • Incubation period is NOT clearly shown
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38
Q

A situation in which all factors influencing
disease are relatively stable, resulting in little
fluctuation in disease incidence over time

A

endemic stability

– New cases occur at a regular, usually low, level
– Young individuals may enter the population
– Old individuals die or are removed

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39
Q

Factors that help DETERMINE the probability, distribution, or severity of a disease in an animal or population of animals

A

determinants

Social
Economic
Physical environment
Person/animal individual characteristics,
behaviors, and genetics
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40
Q

primary determinant

A

a MAJOR contributing factor, usually a

NECESSARY one

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41
Q

secondary determinant

A

factors that make the disease more or less LIKELY; predisposing or enabling factors

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42
Q

intrinsic determinant

A

determinants that are internal to the

animal (age, breed, sex, etc.)

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43
Q

extrinsic determinant

A

determinants that are external to the

animal (housing, medical treatment, etc.)

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44
Q

T/F

primary determinants must always be present for a disease to occur

A

TRUE

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45
Q

extrinsic factors of an infectious agent

A 
Infectivity
• Pathogenicity
• Virulence
• Immunogenicity
• Mutation rate
• Resistance
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46
Q

extrinsic factors of the environment

A
  • Demographics
  • Climate
  • Housing
  • Crowding/density
  • Diet
  • Stress
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47
Q

what can mutations include as far as agent determinants go…

A

– Increased infectivity within typical hosts
– Ability to infect new species / populations of hosts
– Acquisition of new toxins
– Immune system evasion

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48
Q

All of these host factors are intrinsic/extrinsic??

-Age
• Sex & Behavior
• Genotype
• Breed
• Nutrition
• Immunity
A

INTRINSIC

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49
Q

genotype

A

a term describing the DNA

sequence, or “type”, of an individual

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50
Q

T/F

genetic diseases are entirely determined by genotype

A

TRUE

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51
Q

T/F
Nutrition has a strong effect on immune
function

A

TRUE

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52
Q

The idea that infectious diseases can be
contained if the population’s resistance to
infection is high enough

A

herd immunity

53
Q

T/F

herd immunity protects individuals

A

false

54
Q

emerging dz definition

A 
– PREVIOUSLY UNKNOWN disease that
suddenly appears (emerges) in a
population
– KNOWN disease that suddenly appears
(emerges) in a new population
55
Q

KNOWN disease, previously on the
decline, that is becoming more common
and will likely continue to do so

A

re-emerging dz

56
Q

4 drivers to pathogen emergence

A
  1. land use changes
  2. human behaviors
  3. environmental systems
  4. food and ag systems
57
Q

determinants of disease emergence

A

type of pathogen/agent

host susceptibility

phyologenetic distance of reservoirs

transmission – reservoir size, frequency, prevalence

58
Q

percent of zoonotic pathogens

A

61%

59
Q

T/F
Pathogens are more likely to
cross between closely related
species than distant ones

A

TRUE

60
Q

– Diseasesthatpeoplegetfromother people

– Haveahuman reservoir

A

arthroponoses

61
Q

– Infectiousdiseasesthatpeoplegetfromanimals,
eitherdirectlyor indirectly
– Animalsaretheultimatereservoirforthe disease!

A

zoonoses

62
Q

WHAT ARE SOME GLOBALLY IMPORTANT ZOONOTIC DISEASES

A 
– Rabies
– Leishmaniasis
– Cysticercosis
– Brucellosis
– Leptospirosis
– Echinococcosis
63
Q

T/F

more people have pets than kids

A

TRUW

64
Q

hazard

A

a danger or risk of an event occurring

65
Q

the deliberate release of viruses, bacteria,

toxins, or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants

A

bioterrorism

66
Q

the malicious attempt to disrupt or
destroy the agricultural industry and/or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural
sectors

A

agroterrorism

67
Q

what are the 4 phases of disaster mgmt

A
  1. mitigation
  2. preparedness
  3. response
  4. recovery
68
Q

Attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters
altogether
OR… To reduce the effects of disasters when they occur

A

mitigation

69
Q

what does preparedness involve

A

Plans and preparations made to save lives and property, and to facilitate
response operations.
 Provisions to ensure that all the resources/services needed to cope with a disaster can be rapidly mobilized and deployed.

70
Q

Actions taken to provide
emergency assistance, save lives, minimize
property damage, and speed recovery

A

response

71
Q

what is recovery

A

Actions taken to return to a normal or improved
operating condition following a disaster
 Reconstructing physical structures
 Restoring emotional, social, economic, and physical wellbeing
 May include continued veterinary care

72
Q

County Animal Response Team (CART)

A

Intended for use by local government and
agencies to take immediate action in
providing a means of care to minimize animal
suffering in the event of a large scale disaster
 Rapid response – local!
 Utilizes local resources
 Established relationships with local agencies
(EM, sheriff, fire, Animal Control, Ag Ext)
 Familiarity with territory and special
considerations (special populations/features)
* Home court advantage

73
Q

STATE animal response Team (SART)

A 
Interagency organizations dedicated to
preparing, planning, responding, and
recovering during animal emergencies
 Public private partnership, joining
governmental agencies with private goals
 Train to facilitate a safe and efficient
response to disasters on the local, county,
state and federal level
74
Q

Vet medical assistance team

A 
Operate under the American Veterinary
Medical Association (AVMA)
 Provide operational assistance to state animal
health authorities
 Must be requested by a state
 Funded through the American Veterinary
Medical Foundation
75
Q

VMATS 3 primary functions

A

early assessment volunteer teams
basic treatment volunteer teams
training

76
Q

National vet response team

A

 Part of the Dept. of Health & Human Service’s
National Disaster Medical System
 Fully supported Federal program.
 Professional expertise in veterinary medicine,
public health, and research
 Private citizens who have been approved as
intermittent federal employees and activated
in the event of a disaster.
 Assigned to designated regional teams which
train in preparation for what might be
experienced during a response

77
Q

*establishes a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response.

A

NRF - national response framework

78
Q

what is a risk

A

A probability or threat of damage, injury,
liability, loss, or any other negative
occurrence that is caused by external or
internal vulnerabilities, and that may be
avoided through preemptive action

79
Q

T/F

denial is more common than fear

A

false – less common

80
Q

denial is reduced when…

A

we legitimize the fear
·we take actions to address fear
·we make decisions to act from a given
range of options

81
Q

Most often used to describe an
organization facing a crisis and the
need to communicate about that crisis
to stakeholders and the public

A

risk communication

82
Q

When the hazard is high and outrage is low…

A

precaution advocacy
·alerting insufficiently upset people to serious
risk
·“Watch out!”

83
Q

When hazard is low and outrage is high:

A

·task=outrage management
·reassuring excessively upset people about
small risks
·“Calm down!”

84
Q

When the hazard is high and outrage is also high:

A

·task= crisis communication
·helping appropriately upset people cope with
serious risks
·“We’ll get through this together”

85
Q

When hazard and outrage are both intermediate:

A

·sweet spot
·dialoging with interested people about a
significant but not urgent risk
·“And what do you think?”

86
Q

VeterinaryequivalentofWHO

A

OIE – maintains reportable dz lsit

87
Q

DesignatesthelistofOIE‐reportablediseases

thatarenotfoundintheUSAasnotifiable

A

USDA

88
Q

Systematiccontinuousobservationofpopulations,and

collectionandanalysisofdatafrommanyvariedsources

A

surveillance

89
Q

5 purposes of surveillance

A
  1. Rapiddetectionofdiseaseoutbreaks
  2. Supportdiseasecontrol/eradication
  3. Assesspopulationhealthandsafetyoffood
  4. Produceinformationaboutdisease
  5. Evaluatediseasecontrol/biosecurityprograms
90
Q

3 components of surveillance

A
  1. detection
  2. response
  3. communication
91
Q

Observationofapopulationor
collection,analysisandinterpretation
ofdatafrompopulation

A

detection

92
Q

goal of the response step to surveillance

A

Timely,appropriate
responsetodiseaseevents

– Minimizetheimpact(lossof
animals,productivity,markets)
– Minimizethecostoftheresponse

93
Q

goal of surveillance communication

A

Produceandcommunicatetimelyaccurateinfo

94
Q

Surveillanceofanimalsfordiseasesof

importancetoanimalsandpeople

A

animal health surveillance

95
Q

Surveillanceofpeopleforhumandiseases

A

public health surveillance

96
Q

Surveillanceofhumans,animalsandplantsfordiseases

affectinganyorallofthem

A

biosurveillance

97
Q

Surveillanceoffoodproductionchainsand

peopleforfoodsafetyrisksandfoodbornedisease

A

food and safety surveillance

98
Q

types of surveillance

A
  1. Passivesurveillance
  2. Activesurveillance
  3. Sentinelsurveillance
  4. Targetedsurveillance
99
Q

Spontaneousreportofcasesorsuspicionofadisease

A

Passivesurveillance (MOST COMMON)

100
Q

active surveillance ..

A

Committedeffortoftheveterinary/healthauthoritytoobtain
sample/data

101
Q

Atypeofactivesurveillance:
•Asmallgroupismonitoredasanindicatorofthegreater
populationhealthordiseaserisk

A

sentinel surveillance

102
Q

Targetsaspecificsegmentofthepopulationtoenhance

detectionofdisease

A

targeted surveillance

103
Q

goal of medicine …

A
  • Topromotehealth
  • Topreservehealth
  • Torestorehealthwhenitisimpaired
  • Tominimizesufferinganddistress

**prevention

104
Q

Actionsaimedateradicating,eliminatingorminimizingthe
impactofdiseaseanddisability,orifnoneoftheseare
feasible,retardingtheprogressofthediseaseanddisability

A

prevention

105
Q

Aims to inhibittheemergenceofriskfactors(mainlyusedinhuman
medicinesofar)

A

Primordialprevention

106
Q

Aim:maintainahealthypopulationbypreventingtheoccurrence
ofadisease

A

primary prevention – before the disease occurs

107
Q

Aim:Reducetheimpactofadiseaseorinjurythathasalready
occurred

A

secondary prevention – •Detectingandtreatingassoonaspossible

108
Q

Aim:Softentheimpactofanongoingillnessorinjurythathaslasting
effectsbyreducingcomplications,slowingdowntheprogression,and
reducingtheseverityofthesymptoms

A

tertiary prevention

109
Q

Stepstakentoreduceadiseaseproblemtoatolerablelevel
andmaintainitatthatlevel

A

control – like secondary prevention

110
Q

elimination

A

Thefinalstepindiseasecontroleffortsbyeliminatingthe
diseasefromapopulation

111
Q

referstothereductiontozero(oraverylow
definedtargetrate)ofnewcasesinadefinedgeographical
area

A

elimination

112
Q

referstothecompleteandpermanentworldwide

reductiontozeronewcasesofthediseasethroughdeliberate efforts (upto2017:RinderpestandSmallpox)

A

eradication

113
Q

what is Reservoirneutralization

A

Removinginfectedindividuals
– Testandslaughter(e.g.TBandBrucellosis)

• Renderinginfectedindividualsnonshedders
– Somerotavirusvaccines

• Manipulatingenvironment
– Parasitecontrol:Taenia saginata (toiletsfacilities),Fasciola
hepatica (snailcontrol)
– Mosquitocontrol:WestNileVirus

114
Q

‐ Reducingcontactpotential

A

Isolationortreatmentofcases
– Reduceprobabilityofcontact
– Notidealwhennonsymptomaticareshedding
• Quarantineofpossibleinfected
• Populationcontrol
– Leashlawstoreducefecalcontamination
– Rabiescontrol

115
Q

‐IncreasingHostResistance examples

A

-Geneticselection,GoodWelfare(nutritionandshelter)
• Chemoprophylaxis
• Vaccination

116
Q

3 milk borne bacterias that can be controlled by milk pastuerization

A

mycobacterium bovis
brucella
Coxiella burnetii

117
Q

M. bovis cases per year

A

230

118
Q

human signs with TB from M.bovis

A 
Percutaneous: nodules, slow
evolution, ulcers
• Pulmonary: Classical TB
(Ghon complex)
• Ingestion: gingivitis,
mesenteric adenopathy…
119
Q

Brulla common in USA

A

no

120
Q

what does brucella do to animals

A

abortions

121
Q

what does brucella do to people

A 
Septicemic form: fever
(recurrent), headache, back
pain…
• Visceral form:orchiepididymite,
osteo
articulaire
• Chronic form: join pain
122
Q

water borne disease

A 
Leptospirosis 
Cryptosporidium 
Giardia
Schistosoma 
Fasciola
123
Q

protozoan disease causing diarrhea in calves and humans

A

crypto

124
Q

97% of USA surface water has ___

A

giardia

125
Q

T/F

you can easily kill crypto and giardia with chlorine

A

FALSE

126
Q

T/F

humans get fasciola from eating livers

A

FALSE – contaminated veggies

127
Q

– 2nd most important human parasite after Malaria

A

schistosoma

128
Q

what does lepto cause in people and animals

A 
• Renal insufficiency, acute or chronic
• Acute disease
– Fever, depression, lethargy
– Acute renal damage or felure
• Chronic disease
– Abortion, stillbirth
– Chronic renal insufficiency

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