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KIN 2320 > Exam #1 > Flashcards

Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

skeletal system

A
  • osteology/orthopedics
  • consists of bones and cartilage
  • provides support for the body and protects vital organs
  • muscular system acts on the skeletal system to produce movements
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2
Q

articular system

A
  • arthrology
  • consists of joints and their associated ligaments
  • connects the bony parts of the skeletal system and provides the sites at which movement occurs
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3
Q

muscular system

A
  • myology
  • consists of muscles that act (contract) to move or position parts of the body (ex: the bones that articulate at joints)
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4
Q

nervous system

A
  • neurology
  • consists of the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system (nerves and ganglia), together with their motor and sensory endings
  • controls and coordinates the functions of the organ systems
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5
Q

what is the anatomical position?

A
  • head, eyes (gaze), and toes directed anteriorly (forward)
  • upper limbs by the sides with the palms facing anteriorly
  • lower limbs close together with the feet parallel and the toes directed anteriorly
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6
Q

median (median sagittal) plane

A

-is the vertical plane passing longitudinally through the center of the body, dividing it into right and left halves

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7
Q

vertical plane passing longitudinally through the center of the body, dividing it into right and left halves

A

median plane/median sagittal plane

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8
Q

sagittal plane

A

planes passing through the body parallel to the median plane

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9
Q

plane parallel to and near the median plane may be referred to as _______.

A

paramedian plane

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10
Q

frontal (coronal) plane

A

vertical planes passing through the body at right angles to the median plane, dividing in into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions

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11
Q

planes passing through the body parallel to the median plane

A

sagittal plane

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12
Q

vertical planes passing through the body at right angles to the median plane, dividing in into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions

A

frontal (coronal) plane

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13
Q

transverse plane

A

plane passing through the body at right angles to the median and frontal planes
-divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) parts

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14
Q

bilateral

A

paired structures having right and left members (ex: kidneys)

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15
Q

unilateral

A

structures occurring on one side only (ex: spleen)

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16
Q

ipsilateral

A

structures occurring on the same side of the body (ex: the right thumb and the right great toe are ipsilateral)

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17
Q

contralateral

A

structures occurring on the opposite side of the body (ex: the right hand is contralateral to the left hand

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18
Q

superficial

A
  • nearer to the surface

ex: the muscles of the arm are superficial to its bone (humerous)

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19
Q

intermediate

A
  • between a superficial and a deep structure

ex: the bicep muscle is intermediate between the skin and the humerous

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20
Q

deep

A
  • farther from the surface

ex: the humerous is deep to the arm muscles

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21
Q

medial

A
  • nearer to the median plane

ex: the 5th digit finger is on the medial side of the hand

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22
Q

lateral

A
  • farther from the median plane

ex: the first digit (thumb) is on the lateral side of the hand

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23
Q

posterior

A
  • nearer to back

ex: the heel is posterior to the toes

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24
Q

inferior

A
  • nearer to feet

ex: the stomach is inferior to the heart

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25
Q

anterior

A
  • nearer to front

ex: the toes are anterior to the ankle

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26
Q

distal

A
  • father from trunk or point of origin (ex: of a limb)

ex: the wrist is distal to the elbow, and the distal part of the upper limb is the hand

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27
Q

proximal

A
  • nearer to the trunk or point of origin (ex: of a limb)

ex: the elbow is proximal to the wrist, and the proximal part of an artery is its beginning

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28
Q

inferior foot surface

A

sole (plantar surface)

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29
Q

superior foot surface

A

dorsum (dorsal surface)

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30
Q

anterior hand

A

palm (palmar surface)

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31
Q

posterior hand

A

dorsum (dorsal surface)

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32
Q

superior

A
  • nearer to the head

ex: the head is superior to the stomach

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33
Q

describe the flexion of the upper limb at the shoulder joint and the lower limb at the hip joint

A

pulling the upper/lower limb upwards on the anterior side of the body

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34
Q

describe the extension of the upper limb at the shoulder joint and the lower limb at the hip joint

A

pulling the upper/lower limb backwards towards the posterior side of the body

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35
Q

describe the flexion and extension of the forearm at the elbow joint and the leg at the knee joint

A

flexion: bending your knee and bending your elbow
extension: extending (straightening) your knee/elbow

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36
Q

describe the flexion and the extension of the vertebral column at inter vertebral joints

A

flexion: bending forward
extension: bending backwards

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37
Q

explain pronation and supination of the forearm at radio-ulnar joints

A

pronation: palm facing down
supination: palms facing up

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38
Q

explain flexion and extension of the hand at the wrist joint

A

flexion: bending your wrist towards the anterior part of your forearm
extension: bending your wrist towards the posterior side of your forearm

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39
Q

explain dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

A

dorsiflextion: flexing your toes
plantarflexion: pointing your toes

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40
Q

explain inversion and eversion of the foot at subtalar and transverse tarsal joints

A

inversion: bending your foot inwards
eversion: bending your foot outwards

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41
Q

explain abduction and adduction of the 2nd, 4th, and 5th digits at metacarpophalangeal joints

A

abduction: separating your fingers
adduction: putting your fingers together

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42
Q

what is circumduction? use the lower limb to give an example

A

circular movement of the lower limb at the hip joint

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43
Q

explain what is protrusion and retrusion of the mandible at temporomandibular joints

A

retrusion: over-bite
protrusion: under-bite

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44
Q

explain what is the protraction and retraction of the scapula on the thoracic wall

A

protraction: extending your arms in front of you making your scapula separate from each other
retraction: extending your arms behind you making your scapula closer together

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45
Q

explain what is the opposition and reposition of the thumb and little finger at the carpometacarpal joint

A

opposition: touching your thumb to your pinky
reposition: pulling your thumb away from your pinky

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46
Q

what is the difference between abduction and extension of the thumb? what is the difference between adduction and flexion of the thumb?

A

abduction: lifting your thumb upwards rather than to the side (extension)
flexion: requires that you bend your thumb to reach the inner side of your palm, rather than just placing it to the side of the rest of your fingers (adduction)

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47
Q

axial skeleton

A

-bones of the head (cranium or skull), neck (cervical vertebrae) and trunk (ribs, sternum, vertebrae, and sacrum)

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48
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

-bones of the limbs, pectoral (shoulder), and pelvic girdles

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49
Q

what are the 5 functions of bones?

A

1) protection for vital structures
2) support for the body and its vital cavities
3) the mechanical basis for movement
4) storage for salts (calcium)
5) a continuous supply of new blood cells produced by the marrow in the medullary cavity of many bones

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50
Q

cartilage

A

-a resilient, semi-rigid, avascular type of connective tissue that forms parts of the skeleton where more flexibility is necessary

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51
Q

articular cartilage

A
  • the articulating surfaces of bones participating in synovial joints are capped with articular cartilage
  • provides smooth, low friction gliding surfaces for movement
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52
Q

periosteum

A

the fibrous connective tissue covering that surrounds bones

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53
Q

perichondrium

A

the surrounding cartilage elements, excluding articular cartilage

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54
Q

what are the 2 types of bones?

A

compact (trabecular) and spongy (cancellous)

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55
Q

what is the difference between a compact and a spongy bone?

A

the difference depends on the relative amount of solid matter and the number and size of the spaces they contain

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56
Q

what are the 5 different classifications of bone?

A

1) long bone: tubular structures (ex: humerous, phalanges)
2) short bones: cuboidal and are found only in the ankle (tarsus) and wrist (carpus)
3) flat bones: usually serve protection functions (ex: cranium)
4) irregular bones: such as those in the face, have various shapes other than long, short, and flat
5) sesamoid bones: ex: patella, a bone that develops in certain tendons, these protect the tendons from excessive wear and often change the angle of the tendons as they pass to their attachments

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57
Q

condyle

A

a rounded articular area (ex: condyles of the femur)

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58
Q

crest

A

ridge of bone (ex: iliac crest, pubic crest)

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59
Q

epicondyle

A

eminence superior to a condyle (ex: epicondyle of the humerus)

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60
Q

facet

A

smooth flat area, usually covered with cartilage, where a bone articulates with another bone (ex: articular facet of vertebrae)

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61
Q

foramen

A

passage through a bone (ex: obturator foramen)

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62
Q

fossa

A

hollow or depressed area (ex: infraspinous fossa of the scapula)

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63
Q

line (linea)

A

linear elevation (ex: soleal line of the tibia)

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64
Q

malleolous

A

rounded prominence (ex: lateral malleolous of the fibula)

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65
Q

notch

A

indentation at the edge of a bone (ex: greater sciatic notch in the posterior border of the hip bone)

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66
Q

process

A

projecting spine-like part (ex: spinous process of a vertebrae)

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67
Q

protuberance

A

projection of a bone (ex: external occipital protuberance of the cranium)

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68
Q

spine

A

thorn-like process (ex: spine of the scapula)

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69
Q

trochanter

A

large, blunt eminence (ex: greater trochanter of the femur)

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70
Q

tubercle

A

small, raised eminence (ex: greater tubercle of the humerus)

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71
Q

tuberosity

A

large, rounded elevation (ex: ischial tuberosity of the hip bone)

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72
Q

where does growth in the long bone happen?

A

epiphesial plate

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73
Q

diaphysis

A

middle of bone

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74
Q

metaphysis

A

where the long bone starts to flare out

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75
Q

what are the 3 different types of joints?

A

1) fibrous joints
2) cartilaginous joints
3) synovial joints

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76
Q

fibrous joints

A

articulating bones that are joint my fibrous tissue

  • ex: sutures of the cranium
  • syndesmosis joint: bones are joined by an interosseous ligament or a sheet of fibrous tissue
  • gomphosis joint: a peg-like process fits into a socket, fibrous tissue anchors the tooth
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77
Q

cartilaginous joints

A

articulating bones are united by fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage

  • synchondrosis: joined by an epiphysial plate
  • symphysis: binding tissue is a fibrocartilaginous disc (ex: between 2 vertebrae)
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78
Q

synovial joint

A

2 bones are separated by the characteristic joint cavity (containing synovial fluid)

  • most common and important type of joint
  • provide free movement between the bones they join and are typical of nearly all the joints of the limbs
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79
Q

what are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A

1) pivot joint: (uniaxial) rounded process of bone fits into a bony ligamentous socket, permitting rotation (ex:atlanto-axial joint)
2) ball and socket joint: (multiaxial) rounded head fits into a concavity permitting movement on several axes (ex: hip joint)
3) plane joint: (usually uniaxial) permit gliding or sliding movements (ex: acromioclavicular joint)
4) hinge joint: (uniaxial) permit flexion and extension only (ex: elbow joint)
5) saddle joint: (biaxial) saddle shaped heads permit movement in two different planes (ex: carpometacarpal joint/thumb)
6) condyloid joint: (biaxial) permit flexion and extension, abduction adduction, and circumduction (ex: metacarpophalangeal joint)

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80
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle?

A

1) skeletal
2) cardiac
3) smooth

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81
Q

skeletal muscle

A

moves bones and other structures

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82
Q

cardiac (striated) muscle

A

forms most of the walls of the heart and adjacent parts of the great vessels

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83
Q

smooth muscle

A

forms part of the walls of most vessels and hollow organs, moves substances through viscera such as the intestine, and controls movement through blood vessels

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84
Q

most _____ are attached directly or indirectly through tendons and aponeuroses to bones, cartilages, ligaments, or fascia, however, some are attached to _____ and to _____

A

skeletal, organs, mucous membranes

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85
Q

muscles are named after what? (8 reasons)

A

1) function
2) attachment
3) shape
4) position
5) length
6) size
7) number of attachments
8) architecture

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86
Q

pennate muscle

A

feather-like in the arrangement of their fascicles (uni

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87
Q

fusiform muscles

A

spindle-shaped

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88
Q

parallel muscles

A

the fascicles lie parallel to the long axis of the muscle

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89
Q

convergent muscle

A

have a broad attachment from which fascicle converge to a single tendon

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90
Q

circular muscle

A

surround a body opening or orifice, constricting it when contracted

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91
Q

digastric muscle

A

feature 2 bellies in series sharing common intermediate tendon

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92
Q

what are the 3 types of contraction exhibited by a skeletal muscle?

A

1) reflexive contraction: automatic, ex: respiratory movements, or tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer
2) tonic contraction: slight contraction that does not produce movement or active resistance (muscle tone), maintenance of posture or stability of joints
3) phasic contraction (2 types = isometric and isotonic)
isometric: muscle length remains the same, no movement occurs, but muscle tension is increased
isotonic: the muscle changes length and there is movement

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93
Q

what are the 2 forms of isotonic muscle contraction?

A

1) concentric contraction: movement occurs during muscle shortening
2) eccentric contraction: there is a progressive relaxation of a contracted muscle

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94
Q

what is the structural unit of a muscle

A

muscle fiber

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95
Q

endomysium

A

connective tissue covering individual muscle fibers

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96
Q

a group of fibers is invested by ____

A

perimysium

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97
Q

the entire muscle is surrounded by ___

A

epimysium

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98
Q

the functional unit of a muscle consisting of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it controls is a ______

A

motor unit

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99
Q

what is a prime mover/agonist muscle?

A

the main muscle responsible for producing a specific movement of the body

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100
Q

what are fixator muscles?

A

steady the proximal parts of a limb while movements are occurring in distal parts

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101
Q

what’s a synergist muscle?

A

complements the action of prime movers, ex: by preventing movement of the intervening joint when a prime mover passes over more than one joint

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102
Q

what is an antagonist muscle?

A

a muscle that opposes the actions of a prime mover, as a prime mover contracts, the antagonist progressively relaxes, producing a smooth movement

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103
Q

central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

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104
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

nerve fibers and cell bodies outside the CNS

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105
Q

somatic nervous system

A

voluntary nervous system, carries sensation from the skin and joints, and supplies skeletal muscle

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106
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

involuntary movement, supplies smooth muscle, glands, and viscera (internal organs) in the body cavities

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107
Q

structure and components of a typical spinal nerve:

what is the anterior (ventral) root?

A

consists of motor (efferent) fibers passing from nerve cell bodies in the anterior horn of the spinal cord gray matter to effector organs located peripherally

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108
Q

structure and components of a typical spinal nerve:

what is the posterior (dorsal) root?

A

consists of sensory (afferent) fibers that convey neural impulses to the CNS from sensory receptors in various parts of the body

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109
Q

visceral motor innervations of the autonomic nervous system:

the efferent nerve fibers and ganglia of the ANS are organized into two systems or divisions, what are these divisions?

A

sympathetic (thoracolumbar) division: the effects of sympathetic stimulation is catabolic (“fight or flight”)
parasympathetic (craniosacral) division: the effects of parasympathetic stimulation are anabolic (promoting normal function and conserving energy)

110
Q

visceral motor innervations of the autonomic nervous system:

the efferent nerve fibers and ganglia of the ANS are organized into two systems or divisions, what are these divisions?

A

sympathetic (thoracolumbar) division: the effects of sympathetic stimulation is catabolic (“fight or flight”)
parasympathetic (craniosacral) division: the effects of parasympathetic stimulation are anabolic (promoting normal function and conserving energy)

111
Q

true (vertebral) ribs

A
  • 1st to 7th ribs

- attach directly to the sternum anteriorly through their costal cartilages

112
Q

false (vertebrochondral) ribs

A
  • 8th to 10th ribs
  • have cartilages on their anterior ends that are joined to the cartilage of the rib just superior to them, thus indirectly connected to the sternum
113
Q

floating (free) ribs

A
  • 11th and 12th ribs (sometimes the 10th)

- do not connect, even indirectly, to the sternum, they end in the posterior abdominal musculature

114
Q

what are the components of a ‘typical rib’?

A
  • 3rd to 9th ribs
  • head
  • neck
  • tubercle
  • body
  • angle
  • costal groove
115
Q

how does the 1st rib differ from the others?

A
  • 1st rib is broad
  • shortest and most sharply curved of the 7 true ribs
  • contributes more to the ‘roof’ rather than the wall of the thoracic cavity
  • has 2 shallow horizontal grooves crossing the superior surface for the subclavian (under clavicle) vessels separated by a scalene tubercle
  • articulates with the T1 vertebrae
116
Q

how does the 1st rib differ from the others?

A
  • 1st rib is broad
  • shortest and most sharply curved of the 7 true ribs
  • contributes more to the ‘roof’ rather than the wall of the thoracic cavity
  • has 2 shallow horizontal grooves crossing the superior surface for the subclavian (under clavicle) vessels separated by a scalene tubercle
  • articulates with the T1 vertebrae
117
Q

how does the 2nd rib differ from the others?

A
  • thinner and more typical than the 1st
  • formations for attachments of serratus anterior and posterior scalene muscles
  • almost twice the length of the 1st rib
118
Q

how do the 10th through 12th ribs differ from the others?

A

-like the 1st rib, have only one facet on their heads

119
Q

how do the 11th and 12th ribs differ from the others?

A

-short and have no necks or tubercles

120
Q

what are 3 characteristics of thoracic vertebrae?

A

1) bilateral superior and inferior costal facets (demifacets) for articulation with the heads of ribs
2) costal facets on their transverse processes for articulation with the tubercles of the ribs
3) long inferiorly slanting spinous processes that overlap the IV disc and vertebrae below

121
Q

thoracic vertebrae are typical vertebrae in that they are ______ and have _____, _____, and ___ processes for muscular and articular connection

A

independent, bodies, vertebral arches, 7

122
Q

what are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

manubrium, sternal body, xiphoid process

123
Q

what level of the spine does the manubrium sit at?

A

T3 and T4 vertebrae

124
Q

the manubrium and the sternal body lie in slightly different planes, forming a projecting ______

A

sternal angle

125
Q

what are the superior (origin) and the inferior (insertion) attachments of the external oblique muscles?

A

origin: inferior border of the ribs
insertion: superior border of ribs below

126
Q

what is the innervation and main action of the external oblique muscles?

A

intercostal nerve

-during forced respiration, elevates ribs

127
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the external, internal, and innermost intercostal muscles?

A

origin: inferior border of ribs
insertion: superior border of ribs below

128
Q

what is the innervation of th external, internal, and innermost intercostal muscles?

A

intercostal nerve

129
Q

what is the main action of the internal intercostal muscle and the innermost intercostal muscle?

A

during forced respiration: interosseus part depresses ribs, interchondral part elevates ribs

130
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the subcostal muscles?

A

origin: internal surface of lower ribs near their angles
insertion: superior borders of 2nd or 3rd ribs below

131
Q

what is the innervation of the subcostal muscles?

A

intercostal nerve

132
Q

what is the main action of the subcostal muscle

A

probably act in same manner as internal intercostal muscle: depress and elevate ribs

133
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the levatores costarum muscle?

A

origin: transverse processes of the C7-T11 vertebrae
insertion: subjacent ribs between tubercle and angle

134
Q

what is the innervation of the levatores costarum muscle?

A

posterior rami of C8- T11 nerves

135
Q

what is the main action of the levatores costarum muscles?

A

elevate ribs

136
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the serratus posterior superior

A

origin: nuchal logament, spinous prosess of the C7-T3 vertebrae
insertion: superior borders of the 2nd - 4th ribs

137
Q

what is the innervation of the serratus posterior superior?

A

2nd-5th intercostal nerves

138
Q

what is the main action of the serratus posterior superior?

A

elevate ribs

139
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the serratus posterior inferior

A

origin: inferior borders of the 8th - 12th ribs near their angles
insertion: spinous processes of T11 - L2 vertebrae

140
Q

what is the innervation of the serratus posterior inferior?

A

9th - 11th intercostal nerves, subcostal (T12) nerve

141
Q

what is the main action of the serratus posterior inferior?

A

depress ribs

142
Q

what is the mediastinum

A

the central compartment of the thoracic cavity

  • superior part is from the 1st rib to the T4 vertebrae (or sternal angle)
  • inferior starts at the T4 vertebrae and ends at the T12 vertebrae (inferior border is the sternum)
143
Q

abdominal cavity

A

the space bounded by the abdominal walls, diaphragm, and pelvis

144
Q

the diaphragm makes up the superior border of what?

A

the abdominal cavity

145
Q

what are the 4 quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

A

1) RUQ: right upper quadrant
2) RLQ: right lower quadrant
3) LUQ: left upper quadrant
4) LLQ: left lower quadrant

-these are separated by the transumbilical plane (plane passing through the umbilicus at the L3 and L4 vertebrae) and the median plane

146
Q

name the layers of the skin, going from most superficial, to deepest

A
  • skin
  • superficial fatty layer of subcutaneous tissue (camper fascia)
  • deep membranous layer of subcutaneous tissue (scarpa fascia)
  • external oblique
  • internal oblique
  • transversus abdominis
147
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the external oblique muscle?

A

origin: external surfaces of 5th - 12th ribs
insertion: linea alba, pubic tubercle, and anterior half of iliac crest

148
Q

what is the innervation and the main action of the external oblique muscle?

A

thoraco-abdominal nerves (anterior rami of T7 - T11) and subcostal nerve
-compress and support abdominal viscera; flex and rotate trunk

149
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the internal oblique muscle?

A

origin: thoracolumbar fascia, anterior 2/3 of iliac crest, and connective tissue deep to inguinal ligament
insertion: inferior borders of 10th - 12th ribs, linea alba, and pubis via conjoint tendon

150
Q

what is the innervation and main action of the internal oblique muscle?

A

thoraco-abdominal nerves (anterior rami of T7 - T11 subcostal and first lumbar nerve)
-compress and support abdominal viscera; flex and rotate trunk

151
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the transversus abdominis muscle?

A

origin: internal surfaces of the 7th - 12th costal cartilages, thoraco-lumbar fascia, iliac crest, and connective tissue deep to inguinal ligament
insertion: linea alba with aponeurosis of internal oblique, pubic crest, and pubis via conjoint tendon

152
Q

what is the innervation and action of the transversus abdominis muscle?

A

thoraco-abdominal nerves (anterior rami of T7 - T11), subcostal and first lumbar nerve
-compresses and supports abdominal viscera

153
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle?

A

origin: pubic symphysis and pubic crest
insertion: xiphoid process and 5th - 7th costal cartilages

154
Q

what is the innervation and action of the rectus abdominis muscle?

A

thoraco-abdominis and subcostal nerves (anterior rami of the T7 - T12 spinal nerves)
-flexes trunk (lumbar vertebrae) and compresses abdominal viscera, stabilizes and controls tilt of pelvis (antilordosis)

155
Q

what are the functions and the actions of the anterolateral abdominal muscles?

A
  • form a strong expandable support for this region
  • protect abdominal viscera
  • compress abdominal viscera
  • produce the force required for defecation (pooping), micturition (peeing), vomitting, and parturition (childbirth)
  • produce anterior and lateral flexion and rotation of the trunk and help maintain posture
156
Q

diaphragm

A
  • a dome shaped musculotendinous partition separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities
  • chief muscle of inspiration (descends during inspiration)
157
Q

what is the name of the 2 muscular slips that attach to the posterior aspect of the xiphoid process of the sternum, this part is not always present

A

the sternal part

158
Q

what are the 3 parts of the diaphragm?

A
  • sternal part
  • costal part
  • lumbar part
159
Q

what part of the diaphragm forms the domes?

A

costal part

160
Q

what part of the diaphragm forms the right and the left muscular crura that ascends to the central tendon?

A

lumbar part

161
Q

what is the posterior abdominal wall composed of? (6 things)

A

1) 5 lumbar vertebrae associated with IV discs
2) posterior abdominal wall muscles - psoas, quadratus lumborum, iliacus, transversus abdominis, and internal and external oblique
3) lumbar plexus, composed of the anterior rami of lumbar spinal nerves
4) fascia, including thoracolumbar fascia
5) diaphragm, contributing to the superior part of the posterior wall
6) fat, nerves, vessels, and lymph nodes

162
Q

what are the muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?

A
  • psoas major
  • iliacus
  • quadratus lumborum
163
Q

what are the superior and inferior attachments of the psoas major?

A

superior: transvers processes of lumbar vertebrae, sides of bodies of T12 - S1 vertebrae and intervening IV discs
inferior: by a strong tendon to lesser trochanter of femur

164
Q

what is the innervation and action of the psoas major?

A

lumbar plexus via anterior branches of nerves L2-L4
-acting inferiorly with iliacus, flexes thigh; acting superiorly, flexes vertebral column laterally to balance the trunk; when sitting, acts inferiorly with iliacus to flex trunk

165
Q

what are the posterior and inferior attachments of the iliacus?

A

superior: superior 2/3 of the iliac fossa. ala of sacrum, and anteror sacro-iliac ligaments
inferior: lesser trochanter of femur and shaft inferior to it and to psoas major tendon

166
Q

what is the innervation and action of the iliacus?

A 
femoral nerve (L2-L4)
-flexes thigh and stabilizes hip joint; acts with psoas major
167
Q

what are the posterior and inferior attachments of the quadratus lumborum?

A

posterior: medial half of inferior border of 12th rib and tips of lumbar transverse processes
inferior: iliolumbar ligament and internal lip of iliac crest

168
Q

what is the innervation and the action of the quadratus lumborum?

A

anterior branches of T12 and L1 - L4 nerves

-extends and laterally flexes vertebral column; fixes 12th rib during inspiration

169
Q

obturator nerve

A

-emerges from the medial border of the psoas major and passes through the pelvis to the medial thigh, supplying the adductor muscles

170
Q

femoral nerve

A

-emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major and innervates the iliacus and passes deep to the inguinal ligament to the anterior thigh, supplying the flexors of the hip and extensors of the knee

171
Q

lumbosacral trunk

A

-passes over the ala (wing) of the sacrum and descends into the pelvis to participate in the formation of the sacral plexus along with the anterior rami of the S1-S4 nerves

172
Q

greater pelvis

A

false pelvis

173
Q

lesser pelvis

A

true pelvis

174
Q

the pelvic inlet is bound by the what? (6 things)

A

1) superior margin of the pubic symphysis anteriorly
2) posterior border of the pubic crest
3) pecten pubis, the continuation of the superior ramus of the pubis, which forms a sharp ridge
4) arcuate line of the ilium
5) anterior border of the ala of the sacrum
6) sacral promontory

175
Q

the pelvic outlet in bounded by what? (4 things)

A

1) inferior margin of the pubis symphysis anteriorly
2) inferior rami of the pubis and ischial tuberosities anterolaterally
3) sacrotuberous ligaments posterolaterally
4) tip of the coccyx posteriorly

176
Q

what are the 3 main functions of the pelvic girdle?

A

1) transfer the weight of the upper body from the axial to the lower appendicualr skeleton
2) withstand compression and other forces resulting from its support of body weight
3) house and protect the pelvic viscera

177
Q

what are the 2 parts of the ischium?

A

body: forms the posterior part of the acetabulum
ramus: forms the posterior part of the inferior boundary of the obturator foramen

178
Q

the bony pelvis is separated into greater (false) and lesser (true) pelvis by the oblique plane of the _____

A

pelvic inlet

179
Q

what are the 3 main differences in a male and female pelvis?

A

1) male pelvis has a narrow pubic arch and subpubic angle (70 degrees), female is wide (80 degrees)
2) the obturator foramen of a male pelvis is round, while a females is oval
3) the acetabulum of a male pelvis is large, while a females is small

180
Q

sacro-iliac joints

A

-stron, weight bearing, compound joints consisting of an anterior synovial joint and a posterior syndesmosis

181
Q

how do the sacro-iliac joints differ from most synovial joints?

A

-they have limited mobility because they have to bear the weight of most of the upper body on the hip bones

182
Q

lumbosacral joints

A
  • the L5 and sacrum articulate anteriorly at the anterior intervertebral joint, formed by the L5/S1 intervertebral disc between their bodies posteriorly, and at 2 zygapophysial joints (facet joints) between the articular process of these bones
  • the superior articular facets on the sacrum face posteromedially, interlocking with the anterolaterally facing inferior articular facets of the L5 vertebra, preventing L5 from sliding anteriorly
183
Q

what is the role of the sacrotuberous and the sacrospinous ligaments?

A

prevents the pelvis joint from rotating too far

184
Q

sacrococcygeal joint

A
  • secondary cartilagenous joint with an IV disc

- join the apex of the sacrum to the base of the coccyx

185
Q

what are the proximal and distal attachments of the coccygeus muscle?

A

proximal: ischial spine
distal: inferior end of sacrum and coccyx

186
Q

what is the innervation and action of teh coccygeus muscle?

A

branches of S4 and S5 nerves

-forms small part of pelvic diaphragm that supports pelvic viscera; flexes coccyx

187
Q

what are the proximal and distal attachments of the obturator internus muscle?

A

proximal: pelvic surface of ilium and ischium; obturator membrane
distal: greater trochanter of femur

188
Q

what is the innervation and action of the obturator internus muscle?

A

nerve to obturator internus

-laterally rotates hip joint; assists in holding head of femur in acetabulum

189
Q

what are the proximal and distal attachements of the piriformis muscle?

A

proximal: pelvic surface of 2nd to 4th sacral segments, superior margin of greater sciatic notch and sacrotuberous ligament
distal: greater trochanter of the femur

190
Q

what is the innervation and action of the piriformis muscle?

A

anterior rami of S1 and S2

-laterally rotates hip joint; abducts hip joint; assists in holding head of femur in acetabulum

191
Q

what is innervated by the sciatic nerve?

A

-articular branches to hip joint and muscular branches to flexors of knee (hamstring muscles) and all muscles in leg and foot

192
Q

what is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve?

A

gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles

193
Q

what is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve?

A

gluteus maximus

194
Q

what is innervated by the nerve to piriformis?

A

piriformis

195
Q

what is innervated by the nerve to quadratus femoris and inferior gemelius?

A

quadratus femoris and inferior gemelius muscles

196
Q

what is innervated by the nerve to obturator internus and superior gemelius?

A

obturator internus and superior gemelius muscles

197
Q

what does the back consist of? (9 things)

A

1) skin
2) subcutaneous tissue
3) deep fascia
4) muscles
5) ligaments
6) vertebral column
7) ribs
8) spinal cord and meninges
9) various segmented nerves and vessels

198
Q

the adult vertebral column typically consists of:

A

-33 vertebrae arranged in 5 regions: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal

199
Q

the 25 cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and first sacral vertebrae articulate at what type of joint?

A

synovial zygapophysial joints

200
Q

the sacral (pelvic) curvatures of the back (also known as kyphoses) are concave ______, while the cervical and lumbar curvatures (lordoses) are concave _____

A

anteriorly, posteriorly

201
Q

a typical vertebrae consists of what?

A
  • vertebral body
  • vertebral arch
  • 7 processes
202
Q

what is the role of the vertebral body?

A
  • gives strength to the vertebral column

- support body weight

203
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the body of a cervical vertebrae?

A
  • small and wider
  • superior surface is concave
  • uncinate (hook shaped) processes
204
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the vertebral foramen of a cervical vertebrae?

A

-large and triangular

205
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the transverse processes of a cervical vertebrae?

A
  • foramen transversum small or absent in C7
  • arteries pass through foramina
  • anterior and posterior tubercles
206
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the articular processes of the cervical vertebrae?

A

-superior facets directed posteriorly, inferior facets directed anteriorly

207
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the spinous process of the cervical vertebrae?

A
  • short and bifid (C3-C5)

- C6 is long but C7 is longer

208
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the atlas? (C1)

A
  • ring like, kidney shaped
  • no spinous process or body
  • consists of 2 lateral masses
  • concave superior articular facets form antlo-occipital joints with occipital condyles
209
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the axis? (C2)

A
  • strongest cervical vertebrae
  • dens
  • provides a pivot
210
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the body of a thoracic vertebrae?

A

-heart shaped

211
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the vertebral foramen of a thoracic vertebrae?

A

-circular and smaller than cervical and lumbar regions

212
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the transverse process of a thoracic vertebrae?

A
  • long and strong

- attach to rib via tubercle

213
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the articular processes of a thoracic vertebrae?

A

-superior articular facets directed posteriorly and slightly laterally

214
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of a spinous process of the thoracic vertebrae?

215
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the body of a lumbar vertebrae?

A

-massive, kidney shaped. larger and heavier than other regions

216
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the vertebral foramen of a lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • triangular

- larger than in thoracic, small than cervical

217
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the transverse processes of a lumbar vertebrae?

A

-long and slender

218
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of the articular processes of a lumbar vertebrae?

A

-superior articular facets directed medially

219
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of a spinous process of a lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • short and sturdy

- hatchet shaped

220
Q

the joints of the vertebral column include what kind of joints?

A

1) joints of vertebral bodies
2) joints of vertebral arches
3) craniovertebral joints
4) costovertebral joints
5) sacro-iliac joints

221
Q

the joints of vertebral bodies are designed for what function?

A

weight bearing and strength

222
Q

the ______ is a ring consisting of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage forming the circumference of the IV disc

A

anulus fibrosus

223
Q

the _____ is the central core of the IV disc

A

nucleus pulposus

224
Q

the _______ ligament is a strong, broad, fibrous band that covers and connects the anterolateral aspects of the vertebral bodies and IV discs

A

anterior longitudinal

225
Q

the ______ ligament is a much narrower, somewhat weaker band compared to the anterior longitudinal ligament that runs within the vertebral canal along posterior aspects of the vertebral bodies

A

posterior longitudinal

226
Q

the joints of the vertebral arches are the ______ joints

A

zygapophysial (facet joints)

227
Q

zygapohpysial joint

A
  • synovial joint
  • between vertebrae
  • surrounded by a loose joint (articular) capsule
228
Q

the laminae of adjacent vertebral arches are joined by broad, pale, yellow elastic fibrous tissue called the _____

A

ligamenta flava

229
Q

the supraspinous ligament merges superiorly with the ____ ligament

230
Q

adjacent spinous processes are united by weak, almost membranous _______ ligaments

A

interspinous

231
Q

what is the nuchal ligament

A

the strong ligament of the neck

232
Q

atlanto-occipital joints

A
  • between the lateral masses of C1 (atlas) and the occipital condyles
  • permit nodding of the head (flexion and extension of the neck)
  • synovial condyloid joint
233
Q

atlanto-axial joints

A
  • 3 atlanto-axial articulations
  • 2 between the lateral masses of C1 and the superior facets of C2
  • 1 median atlanto-axial joint between the dens of C2 and the anterior arch and the transverse ligament of the atlas
  • makes it possible to shake your head
234
Q

name the vertebrae that have the least range of motion to the most range of motion

A
  • thoracic spine (limited by the rib cage)
  • lumbar spine
  • cervical spine (most range of motion)
235
Q

the range of movement of the vertebral column is limited by what 6 things?

A

1) thickness, elasticity and compressibility of the IV discs
2) shape and orientation of the articular facets
3) tension of the joint capsules of the above joints
4) resistance of the back muscles and ligaments
5) attachment to the thoracic cage
6) bulk of the surrounding tissues

236
Q

the flexion, extension, lateral flexion, and rotation of the neck are especially free because of what?

A
  • IV discs, although thin relative to most other discs, are thick relative to the small size of the vertebral bodies
  • articular surfaces of the zygapophysial joints are relatively large and the joint planes are almost horizontal
  • joint capsules of the zygapophysial joints are loose
  • neck is relatively slender (with less surrounding tissue/bulk)
237
Q

the spinal cord begins as a continuation of the _____ and ends at the _______

A

medulla oblongata, conus medullaris (high as T12 or low as L3)

238
Q

the cervical enlargement

A
  • extends from the C4 through the T1

- brachial plexus of nerves, which innervates teh upper limbs

239
Q

the lumbosacral (lumbar) enlargement

A
  • extends from the L1 through S3

- contribute to the lumbar and sacral plexus of nerves (innervate the lower limbs)

240
Q

___ pairs of spinal nerves are attached to the spinal cord; ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, ___ lumbar, ___ sacral, and ___ coccygeal

A

31, 8, 12, 5, 5, 1

241
Q

spinal meninges

A
  • dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
  • these membranes and CSF surround, support, and protect the spinal cord and the spinal nerve roots, including those in the cauda equina
242
Q

spinal dura mater

A
  • tough, fibrous, and some elastic tissue
  • outermost covering of the meninges
  • separated from the vertebrae by the extradural (epidural) space
243
Q

spinal arachnoid mater

A
  • delicate, avascular membrane composed of fibrous and elastic tissue
  • lines the dural sac and the dural root sheaths
244
Q

spinal pia mater

A
  • innermost membrane of the spinal cord
  • directly covers the roots of the spinal nerve
  • inferior to the cornus medullaris
  • continues as the filum terminale
245
Q

subarachnoid space

A
  • lies between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater and is filled with CSF
  • the enlargement of the subarachnoid space containing CSF in the cauda equina is the lumbar cistern
246
Q

extrinsic back muslces

A
  • superficial extrinsic back muscles: contribute to upper limb movements
  • connect the upper limbs to the trunk
  • although these are in the back, they receive their nerve supply from the anterior rami of the cervical nerves

-intermediate extrinsic back muscles: serratus posterior superior and inferior

247
Q

intrinsic back muscles

A
  • innervated by the posterior rami of spinal nerves
  • act to maintain posture and control movements of the vertebral column
  • extend from pelvis to cranium
  • enclosed by deep fascia
  • deep back muscles
248
Q

superficial layers of intrinsic back muscles

A
  • splenius muscles: thick and flat, lie on the lateral and posterior aspects of the neck
  • splenius cervicis and splenius capitits: cover the deep neck muscles
249
Q

intermediate layer of intrinsic back muscles

A
  • errector spinae mucles (sacrospinalis)
    - iliocostalis
    - longissimus
    - spinalis
250
Q

what is the origin of the splenius muscles? (splenius capitits and splenius cervicis)

A

arise form the nuchal ligament and spinous processes of C7-T6 vertebrae

251
Q

what is the insertion of the splenius capitis muscle?

what is the insertion of the splenius cervicis muscle?

A

splenius capitis: superolaterally to mastoid process of temporal bone and lateral third of superior nuchal line of occipital bone
splenius cervicis: tubercles of transverse processes of C1-C3 or C4 vertebrae

252
Q

what is the nerve supply of the splenius muscles?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

253
Q

what are the main actions of the splenius muscles?

A

acting alone: laterally flex the neck and rotate head to side of active muscles
acting together: extend head and neck

254
Q

what is the origin of the iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis muscles?

A

arises by broad tendon from posterior part of iliac crest, posterior surface of sacrum, sacro-iliac ligaments, sacral and inferior lumbar spinous processes, and supraspinous ligament

255
Q

what is the insertion od the iliocostalis muscle?

A

-fibers run superiorly to angles of lower ribs and cervical transverse processes

256
Q

what is the insertion of the longissimus muslce?

A

-fibers run superiorly to ribs between tubercles and angles to transverse processes in thoracic and cervical regions and to mastoid process of temporal bone

257
Q

what is the insertion of the spinalis muscle?

A

-fibers run superiorly to spinous processes in upper thoracic region and to cranium

258
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis muscles?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

259
Q

what are the actions of the iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis muscles?

A
  • acting bilaterally: extend vertebral column and head: as back is flexed, control movement by gradually lengthening their fibers
  • acting unilaterally: laterally flex vertebral column
260
Q

deep to the erector spinae muscles is an obliquely disposed group of muscles called the ______

A

transversospinales muscle group

261
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the semispinalis muslce?

A

origin: arises from transverse processes of C4-T10 vertebrae
insertion: superiorly to occipital bone and spinous processes in upper thoracic and cervical regions

262
Q

what is the innervation and the action of the semispinalis muscle?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

-extends head and thoracic and cervical regions of vertebral column and rotates them contralaterally

263
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the multifidus muscle?

A

origin: posterior sacrum, posterior iliac spine, sacro-iliac ligaments, mammilary process of lumbar vertebrae
insertion: thickest in lumbar region, attach superiorly/ medially to entire length of spinous processes of vertebrae located 2-4 segments superior to origin

264
Q

what is the innervation and action of the multifidus muscle?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerve

-unilateral contraction rotates to contralateral side; stabilizes vertebrae during bilateral contraction

265
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the rotatores muscle?

A

origin: arises from transverse processes of vertebrae, are best developed in thoracic region
insertion: pass superomedially to attach to junction of lamina and transverse processes or spinous processes of vertebrae immediately (brevis) or two segments (longus) superior to vertebrae of origin

266
Q

what is the innervation and the action of the rotatores muscle?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

-possibly stabilize vertebrae and assist with local extension and rotary movements of vertebral column

267
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the interspinales muscles?

A

origin: superior surfaces of spinous processes of cervical and lumbar vertebrae
insertion: inferior surfaces of spinous processes of vertebrae superior to vertebrae of origin

268
Q

what is the innervation and action of the interspinales muscles?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

-aid in extension and rotation of vertebral column

269
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the intertransversarii muscles?

A

origin: transverse process of cervical and lumbar vertebrae
insertion: transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae

270
Q

what is the innervation and action of the intertransversarii muscles?

A

posterior and anterior rami of spinal nerves

-aid in lateral flexion of vertebral column; acting bilaterally, stabilize vertebral column

271
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the levatores costarum muscles?

A

origin: tips of transverse processes of C7 and T1-T11 vertebrae
insertion: pass inferolaterally and insert on rib between its tubercle and angle

272
Q

what is the innervation and the action of the levatores costarum muscles?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

-elevate ribs, assisting respiration; assist with lateral flexion of vertebral column

KIN 2320 (3 decks)

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