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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

Blood & Heart

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of the blood?

A
  1. Transportation of nutrients and waste
  2. Regulation of pH & body temperature
  3. Protection from blood loss & foreign body invasion
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2
Q

What type of tissue is blood?

A

liquid connective tissue

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3
Q

Blood is what percent of body weight?

A

8%

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4
Q

What are the average pH ranges for blood?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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5
Q

What are the 2 components of blood?

A
  1. Plasma (55%)

2. Formed elements (45%)

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6
Q

Blood is ____ times more viscous than water.

A

4-5

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7
Q

What is blood - formed elements?

A

Plasma

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8
Q

What is plasma - plasma proteins?

A

Serum

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9
Q

What is plasma composed of?

A

90-92% water, nutrients & waste, plasma proteins, serum

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10
Q

What are formed elements?

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs, leukocytes (WBCs), & platelets (thrombocytes).

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11
Q

Biconcave, Anucleate, & contains hemoglobin.

A

Erythrocytes (RBC)

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12
Q

Anucleate

A

no nucleus

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13
Q

Biconcave shape of RBC provide:

A
  1. greater surface area (carry more oxygen)

2. Flexibility

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14
Q

structural protein composed of 4 polypeptide chains each containing a heme group

A

Globin

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15
Q

iron-containing fuctional portion of the hemoglobin

A

Heme group

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16
Q

forms a reversible bond with oxygen

A

FE++

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17
Q

controls the production rate of new RBCs

A

Erythropoietin

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18
Q

produced at a rate of ~ 2mil/sec, lives for ~ 120 days

A

Erythrocytes

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19
Q

reduced oxygen carrying capacity

A

Anemia

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20
Q

faulty bone marrow

A

Aplastic anemia

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21
Q

decreased B12 (necessary for RBC production)

A

Pernicious anemia

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22
Q

destruction of blood cells

A

Hemolytic anemia

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23
Q

blood loss

A

Hemorrhagic anemia

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24
Q

results in microcytes

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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25
Q

genetic defect causes one globin chain to become rigid

A

Sickle-cell anemia

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26
Q

genetic defect resulting in absent or faulty globin chain (Mediterranean Sickle-Cell)

A

Thalassemia

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27
Q

excess of RBCs

A

Polycythemia

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28
Q

Primary polycythemia (Polycythemia vera)

A

blood too thick

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29
Q

Secondary polycythemia

A

elevated RBC count

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30
Q

What are the 6 steps of Erythropoiesis?

A
  1. Hemocytoblast
  2. Proerythroblast
  3. Erythroblast
  4. Normoblast
  5. Reticulocyte
  6. Erythrocyte
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31
Q

Numerous fine granules which stain pale lilac w/ a darker multi-lobed nucleus. Phagocyte.

A

Neutrophil

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32
Q

Purplish black granules that often obscure a bi-lobed nucleus, intensify inflammation & allergic reactions

A

Basophils

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33
Q

Distinct red granules; bilobed nucleus, phagocytes, combat parasitic worms & release anti-inflammatory chemicals

A

Eosinophils

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34
Q

Pale blue cytoplasm w/ U or Kidney shaped nucleus, develop into macrophages once in tissue, phagocytes

A

Monocytes

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35
Q

Large, dark purple nucleus occupies most of the cell, produce antibodies and provide immunity

A

Lymphocytes

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36
Q

Granulocytes

A

WBC “philled” with granules

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37
Q

What are the 3 granulocytes?

A

Neutrophil, Basophil, Eosinophil

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38
Q

attack bacteria & their toxins, develop into plasma cells which release antibodies

A

B lymphocytes (B Cells)

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39
Q

attack viruses, fungi, cancer cells, transplanted cells & some bacteria, work w/ B cells to provide immunity

A

T Lymphocyte ( T Cells)

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40
Q

Kill cells that have been bound by antibodies or cells that exhibit abnormal traits, use perforins & granzymes to destroy the cells

A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

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41
Q

decreased WBC count (bone marrow issue)

A

Leukopenia

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42
Q

increased WBC count

A

Leukocytosis

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43
Q

infection of B cells caused by Epstein-Barr virus

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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44
Q

group of cancerous conditions involving WBC

A

Leukemia

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45
Q

stimulated by interlurkins (IL) & colony-stimulating factors (CSF)

A

Leukopoiesis

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46
Q

What are the multiple pathways of Leukopoiesis?

A
  1. Monoblast> Promonocyte> Monocyte
  2. Lymphoblast> Prolymphocyte> Lymphocyte
  3. Myeloblast> Promyelocyte> Myelocyte (eosinophilic, basophilic, or neutrophilic)> Band Cell (eosinophilic, basophilic, or neutrophilic)> Eosinophil, Basophil, or Neutrophil
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47
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms that stop blood loss?

A
  1. Vascular spasm
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Coagulation
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48
Q

Vasoconstriction of the damaged vessel, can last minutes - hours

A

Vascular spasm

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49
Q

Triggered by Von Willebrand factor (VWF), platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, platelet plug

A

Platelet Plug formation

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50
Q

initial sticking of platelets to the wound site, activates more platelets

A

Platelet adhesion

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51
Q

the sticking of platelets to already present platelets

A

Platelets aggregation

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52
Q

A cluster of platelets that temporarily seals the break in a vessel wall

A

Platelet plug

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53
Q

Coagulation involves over 30 different chemicals including:

A

13 different clotting factors, vitamin K, and Ca++

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54
Q

formed following the coming together of various clotting factors

A

Prothombin activator (enzyme)

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55
Q

what does prothrombin activator do?

A

converts prothrombin (plasma protein) to thrombin (enzyme)

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56
Q

what does thrombin do?

A

converts fibrinogen (plasma protein) to fibrin (fibers of the clot) that trap formed elements

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57
Q

clot shrinks to promote healing

A

clot retraction

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58
Q

clot is broken down

A

fibrinolysis

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59
Q

a clot in a healthy vessel

A

thrombus

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60
Q

a thrombus that has broken free and entered circulation

A

embolus

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61
Q

when an embolus becomes trapped in another vessel

A

embolism

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62
Q

an inability of the blood to clot properly, sex-linked disorder

A

hemophilia

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63
Q

decreased platelet count, caused by any condition that suppresses or destroys bone marrow

A

thrombocytopenia

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64
Q

what stimulates thrombopoiesis?

A

thrombopoietin

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65
Q

what are the steps of thrombopoiesis?

A

Hemocytoblast> Megakaryoblast> Promegakaryocyte> Megakaryocyte (ruptures as it enters circulation)> Platelet

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66
Q

has A antigen, B antibodies

A

Type A blood

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67
Q

has B antigen, A antibodies

A

Type B blood

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68
Q

has A & B antigens, no antibodies

A

Type AB blood

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69
Q

has no antigens, A & B antibodies

A

Type O blood

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70
Q

has at least 1 Rh antigen

A

Rh+

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71
Q

has no Rh antigens

A

Rh-

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72
Q

the universal donor (no antigens)

A

Type O blood

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73
Q

the universal recipient (no antibodies)

A

Type AB blood

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74
Q

hemolytic disease of a newborn

A

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

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75
Q

where is the heart located?

A

within the mediastinum, within the pericardial cavity

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76
Q

The cone shaped hearts apex faces what?

A

the left hip

77
Q

the dual walled structure surrounding the heart

A

pericardium

78
Q

thicker, outermost layer, protects heart, anchors to surrounding structures, prevents overfilling.

A

Fibrous Pericardium

79
Q

what are the 2 layers of the pericardium?

A

Fibrous pericardium and Serous pericardium

80
Q

What are the 2 layer of the serous pericardium?

A

Parietal layer and Visceral layer

81
Q

outer layer of the serous pericardium, attached to fibrous pericardium

A

Parietal layer

82
Q

epicardium, integral part of the heart wall.

A

Visceral layer

83
Q

separates the parietal and visceral layers, filled with pericardial fluid creating friction free work area.

A

Pericardial cavity

84
Q

visceral layer of the serous pericardium, composed of a thin layer of connective tissue

A

Epicardium

85
Q

what are the 3 layers of the heart wall?

A

Epicardium, Myocardium, Endocardium

86
Q

layer of heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue

A

Myocardium

87
Q

layer of heart wall composed of simple squamous epithelium, is continuous with blood vessels entering and leaving heart.

A

Endocardium

88
Q

What are the 4 chamber of the heart?

A

L and R Atria, L and R Ventricles

89
Q

upper, thin walled, smaller chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins

A

Atria (plural)/ Atrium

90
Q

exterior extruding surface of the atrium

A

Auricle

91
Q

separates the R and L atria

A

Interatrial septum

92
Q

shallow depression found in right atrium, remnant of foramen ovale.

A

Fossa Ovalis

93
Q

receive blood from superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus

A

Right Atria

94
Q

receive blood from 4 pulmonary veins of the lungs

A

Left Atria

95
Q

vein carrying blood from structures above the diaphragm to heart

A

Superior vena cava

96
Q

vein carrying blood from structures below the diaphragm to the heart

A

Inferior vena cava

97
Q

veins carrying blood from heart to heart

A

Coronary sinus

98
Q

lower, bigger chambers of the heart

A

Ventricles

99
Q

separates the ventricles from the atria

A

atrioventricular septum

100
Q

separates L and R ventricles

A

interventricular septum

101
Q

What are the 2 muscle formations of the ventricles?

A

Trabeculae carnae, and Papillary mucles

102
Q

muscle formation with internal ridges

A

Trabeculae carnae

103
Q

muscle formation with finger-like projections attached to small tendons

A

Papillary muscles

104
Q

What are the 2 types of heart valves?

A

Atrioventricular (AV) valves and Semilunar valves

105
Q

What are the 4 heart valves?

A

Tricuspid valve, Bicuspid/ Mitral valve, Pulmonary valve, Aortic valve

106
Q

valves found between the atria and ventricles, attached to papillary muscles

A

Atrioventricular (AV) valves

107
Q

What are the 2 AV valves?

A

Tricuspid valve and Bicuspid valve

108
Q

valve between R atrium and ventricle

A

Tricuspid valve

109
Q

valve between L atrium and ventricle

A

Bicuspid/ Mitral valve

110
Q

attaches AV valves to papillary muscles

A

Chordae tendinae

111
Q

valves that remain open when ventricles are relaxed

A

AV valves

112
Q

the papillary muscles contract and pull on the chordae tendinae to ___?___ during ventricular contraction, therefore __?___.

A

keep the AV valve closed; preventing the backflow of blood into the atria.

113
Q

valves found between ventricle and its corresponding artery,

A

Semilunar valves

114
Q

what are the 2 semilunar valves?

A

Pulmonary valve and Aortic valve

115
Q

valve between the R ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

A

Pulmonary valve

116
Q

valve between the L ventricle and the aorta

A

Aortic valve

117
Q

valves that remain closed when ventricles are relaxed

A

Semilunar valves

118
Q

circulation that occurs on the right side of the heart

A

Pulmonary circulation

119
Q

What is the process of pulmonary circulation?

A

De-oxygenated blood from R atrium> tricuspid valve> R ventricle> pulmonary valve> Pulmonary trunk> lungs for gas exchange (alveoli)> Oxygenated blood> pulmonary veins> back to L atrium

120
Q

circulation that occurs on the left side of the heart

A

Systemic circulation

121
Q

which side of the heart is bigger?

A

Left

122
Q

what is the process of systemic circulation?

A

Oxygenated blood from L atrium> bicuspid/mitral valve> L ventricle> aortic valve> aorta> to body for gas exchange> Capillaries (w/in tissues)> De-oxygenated blood> superior/inferior vena cava> back to R atrium

123
Q

circulation branch of systemic loop

A

Coronary circulation

124
Q

what is the process of coronary circulation?

A

Blood from L ventricle> Aorta> R and L coronary arteries> Myocardial capillaries for gas exchange> cardiac veins> coronary sinus> R atrium

125
Q

artery that supplies the right atrium, has 2 main branches

A

Right coronary artery

126
Q

supplies anterior and lateral portions of the right ventricle

A

Marginal artery

127
Q

supplies posterior side of both ventricles

A

Posterior interventricular artery

128
Q

what are the 2 main branches of the right coronary artery?

A

Marginal artery and Posterior interventricular artery

129
Q

what are the 2 main branches of the left coronary artery?

A

Anterior interventricular artery and Circumflex artery

130
Q

supplies anterior side of both ventricles

A

anterior interventricular artery

131
Q

supplies left atrium and all portions of the left ventricle

A

Circumflex artery

132
Q

What are the 4 cardiac veins?

A

Great cardiac vein, Posterior cardiac vein, Middle cardiac vein, Small cardiac vein

133
Q

the largest cardiac vein, drains the anterior aspect of the heart.

A

Great cardiac vein

134
Q

drain the posterior and lateral aspects of the heart

A

Posterior, Middle, and Small cardiac veins

135
Q

involves autorhythmic cells and cardiac muscle cells

A

cardiac muscle contraction

136
Q

make up the conduction system, responsible for action potential (AP) generation and conduction (pacemaker)

A

Autoryhthmic Cells

137
Q

considered the hearts natural normal pacemaker, under control of nervous and endocrine systems

A

SA (sinoatrial) node

138
Q

start near the apex and moves up thru ventricles, site of synapse between conduction system and ventricular myocardium

A

Purkinje Fibers

139
Q

striated, braching and mononucleated, intercalated disc, AP generation

A

Cardiac muscle cells

140
Q

cellular junctions that allow ion movement between cells

A

Intercalated Disc

141
Q

longer refractory period than skeletal muscle tissue, cannot undergo tetanus

A

Cardiac muscle cells

142
Q

Depolarization is caused by an opening of ?.

A

voltage gated Na+ channels

143
Q

Repolarization is caused by an opening of ?.

A

voltage gated K+ channels

144
Q

Plateau caused by an opening of ?.

A

voltage gated Ca++ channels, leakage of K+

145
Q

What makes the SA node fire?

A

Ca++ moving in

146
Q

what is the process of contraction?

A

AP generated in SA node travels to atrial myocardium and AV node (causes atrial contraction)> AP travels from AV node to bundle of His then along bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers> AP travels down the sarcolemma and causes voltage gated Ca++ channels in sarcolemma to open> Ca++ moves into the cell from the ECF and binds to receptor on the SR> Ca++ release channels open in the SR causing larger amounts of Ca++ to be released from the SR (calcium-induced calcium release)> Ca++ binds to troponin initiating contraction (sliding filament mechanism)

147
Q

What are the 4 events that happen during 1 heartbeat?

A

Atrial and Ventricular Systole (contraction), Atrial and Ventricular Diastole (relaxation)

148
Q

What are the 3 phases of the cardiac cycle?

A
  1. Ventricular relaxation 2. Ventricular filling 3. Ventricular ejection
149
Q

occurs just after blood is ejected from the ventricles, semilunar valves are open and AV valves are closed

A

Ventricular relaxation

150
Q

causes decreased ventricular P

A

Ventricular diastole

151
Q

begins when AV valves open, rapid ventricular filling, Atrial systole, End Diastolic Volume EDV

A

Ventricular filling

152
Q

volume of blood in the ventricle just prior to contraction

A

End Diastolic Volume EDV

153
Q

ventricular systole, closing of AV valves, opening of semilunar valves, ventricular ejection, atrial filling

A

Ventricular ejection

154
Q

causes increased ventricular P

A

Ventricular systole

155
Q

causes first heart sound

A

Closing of AV valves

156
Q

causes second heart sound

A

Closing of semilunar valves

157
Q

Ventricular diastole, closing of semilunar valves, opening of AV valves

A

Ventricular relaxation

158
Q

the amount of blood in one heartbeat

A

Stroke volume

159
Q

total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute

A

cardiac output

160
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms for the regulation of Cardiac Output?

A

regulation of stroke volume and regulation of HR

161
Q

What are the 3 factors of Stroke Volume regulation?

A
  1. Preload 2. Contractibility 3. Afterload
162
Q

stretch on the cardiac muscle just before contraction

A

Preload

163
Q

strength of contraction

A

Contractibility

164
Q

pressure the ventricles must overcome to eject blood

A

Afterload

165
Q

Increased EDV = ?

A

Increased Preload, SV, CO; Decreased Afterload

166
Q

Decreased EDV = ?

A

Decreased Preload, SV, CO; Increased Afterload

167
Q

promote Ca++ movement into the cells

A

Positive inotropic agents

168
Q

inhibit Ca++ movement into cells

A

Negative inotropic agents

169
Q

pressure the ventricles must overcome to eject blood (blood pressure)

A

afterload

170
Q

where is the cardiovascular center located?

A

medulla oblongata

171
Q

fight or flight

A

sympathetic

172
Q

rest and digest

A

parasympathetic

173
Q

the cardiovascular center is composed of 3 centers:

A

cardioacceleratory center
cardioinhibitory center
vasomotor center

174
Q

sympathetic; heart beats faster

A

cardioacceleratory center

175
Q

parasympathetic; heart beats slower

A

cardioinhibitory center

176
Q

sympathetic only; blood vessel diameter

A

vasomotor center

177
Q

in aortic arch and bifurcation of common carotid artery; monitors O2 and CO2 levels

A

chemoreceptors

178
Q

in aortic arch and carotid sinus; monitors blood pressure

A

baroreceptors

179
Q

in skeletal muscles and joints; movement and body position

A

proprioceptors

180
Q

responds to hypoxia, hypercapnia, acidosis, or low BP; stimulates cardiac accelerator nerves

A

sympathetic NS

181
Q

responds to alkalosis or high BP, stimulates vagus nerve;

A

parasympathetic NS

182
Q

mimic the sympathetic nervous system

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

183
Q

blocks Ca++ movement into SA node, HR decreases

A

hypernatremia

184
Q

inhibits AP generation, HR decreases

A

hyperkalemia

185
Q

increases conc. gradient, HR increases

A

hypercalcemia

186
Q

decreases conc. gradient, HR decreases

A

hypocalcemia

187
Q

atrial depolarization on EKG

A

P-Wave

188
Q

Ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization is occurring but is masked on EKG

A

QRS-Complex

189
Q

Ventricular repolarization on EKG

A

T-Wave

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (3 decks)

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