Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Inotropic

A

altering the force of contraction (usually referring to cardiac muscle contraction)

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2
Q

Ionotropic

A

a receptor protein that forms part of a ligand gated ion channel. Receptors attached to an ion channel.

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3
Q

What’s the difference between side effects and adverse effects?

A

Side effects are secondary to the effect intended, while adverse effects are unintended and uninvited (like idiosyncratic reactions).

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4
Q

What is the point of a loading dose?

A

gets plasma to theraputic levels faster

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5
Q

T/F: time to achieve steady state is dependent on the dose.

A

False. It is independent of the dose. Reached after 5 half lives.

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6
Q

What is considered a small volume of distribution?

A

Vd < 1L

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7
Q

What does a large Vd (volume of distribution) imply?

A

drug is preferentially distributed outside of the bloodstream. If it is small, the drug isn’t going to all the tissues of the body.

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8
Q

What is the most common type of receptor we are going to see?

A

Kinase-linked receptors

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9
Q

Which receptors are the slowest to produce clinical effects?

A

Nuclear receptors (intracellular). Found in the cytoplasm.

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10
Q

What is receptor down-regulation and what can cause it?

A

decrease in the # of receptors/effect. Can be caused by chronic exposure to a drug that stimulates the receptor.

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11
Q

Which is more common: competitive or non-competitive antagonism? Which is reversible?

A

Competitive antagonism is both more common and reversible.

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12
Q

What is the ceiling effect?

A

point at which increases in concentration of the drug don’t result in further increase in efficacy.

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13
Q

What does a narrow therapeutic index mean?

A

the dose required to cause death is close to the dose required to have therapeutic effect. This is dangerous.

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14
Q

what is mydriasis?

A

dilation of the pupil

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15
Q

What is miosis?

A

constriction of the pupil.

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16
Q

How many drops can the dog/cat eye hold?

A

one drop.

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17
Q

How long should you wait between eye drops?

A

5 minutes

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18
Q

What do we mean when we say a drug is indirect acting?

A

doesn’t directly interact with the receptor, though it may ultimately result in receptor stimulation.

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19
Q

What drugs are miotics and are used for diagnosing parasympathetic lesions?

A

Pilocarpine

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20
Q

Which drug causes cyclopegia?

A

Atropine. It is an eye analgesic.

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21
Q

Which drug is ideal for ophthalmic exams?

A

Tropicamide.

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22
Q

Which drug is most often used to help in diagnosis and localization of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Phenylephrine

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23
Q

What drugs reduce aqueous humor formation/improve aqueous outflow?

A

Timolol, dorzolamide, latanoprost

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24
Q

Dorzolamide is what type of inhibitor?

A

topical carbonic anhydrase. It reduces aqueous humor production.

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25
Q

What does a lacrimogenic do and what is an example of one?

A

makes eyes produce its own tears again. ex. cyclosporine.

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26
Q

What is the main parasympathetic nerve and its main neurotransmitter?

A

vagus nerve, acetylcholine.

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27
Q

What breaks down acetylcholine?

A

acetylcholinesterases in synapse, pseudocholinesterases in plasma/other tissues.

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28
Q

Where is norepi released from?

A

synaptic nerve endings

29
Q

Where is epi released from?

A

adrenal glands

30
Q

What receptors does acetylcholine act on?

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic.

31
Q

Which muscarinic receptors are stimulatory?

A

M1, M3, and M5

32
Q

What is the most common muscarinic receptor?

A

M1

33
Q

What are the SEs for agonists of Ach?

A

SLUDD (salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation).

34
Q

T/F: During sympathetic innervation, the iris radial muscle is relaxed.

A

False. It is contracted.

35
Q

What is the only clinically useful direct acting parasympathomimetic drug? What receptor does it act on?

A

Bethanechol. Muscarinic receptor agonist.

36
Q

What medication is the reversal agent of choice for reversal of competitive neuromuscular blockers (NMB)? What’s its mode of action?

A

Neostigmine, indirect acting parasympathomimetic.

37
Q

Which drug is the drug of choice for maintenance therapy of myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine.

38
Q
Parasympatholytics are generally: 
A. Muscarinic agonists
B. Adrenergic agonists
C. Muscarinic antagonists
D. Adrenergic antagonists.
A

C. Muscarinic antagonists.

39
Q

What is the most common form of atropine and what is it generally used for?

A

injectable solution, treatment of bradyarrhythmias/bradycardia.

40
Q

What is commonly seen after IV injection of atropine?

A

drop in HR, then an increase.

41
Q

Why would you not use atropine in rabbits? What would you use instead?

A

they have endogenous atropinases which breakdown atropine rapidly. Use glycopyrrolate instead.

42
Q

This direct acting parasympatholytic does not cross the BBB and has a longer duration of action compared to atropine.

A

Glycopyrrolate

43
Q

These drugs, when used together relax the detrusor muscle, allowing the bladder to fill better. What is their mode of action and which of the 2 can cross the BBB?

A

oxybutynin and propantheline. Direct acting parasympatholytics. Oxybutin can cross the BBB.

44
Q

T/F: dopamine receptors are adrenergic receptors.

A

True.

45
Q

What is the rate limiting step/limiting factor when using catecholamines?

A

tachycardia and tachyarrhythmias.

46
Q

Which drug causes the most renal vasoconstriction?

A

norepinephrine

47
Q

When is the use of epi indicated? What receptor does it have the most affinity for?

A

cardiopulmonary arrest/anaphylaxis. Mainly on alpha 1 for vasoconstriction.

48
Q

What are the main clinical effects of norepi?

A

vasoconstriction (via alpha 1 agonism). One of the most important catecholamine vasopressors. Less of an increase in MvO2 than with epi.

49
Q

What drug causes the strongest vasoconstriction?

A

Norepinephrine. Stronger vasoconstriction than with similar doses of epi.

50
Q

When norepi is being used, what must always be done?

A

continuous ECG monitoring.

51
Q

What is the least common catecholamine? Wha receptor does it not act on?

A

Isoproterenol. No alpha effects.

52
Q

Which drug is the post arrest vasopressor of choice?

A

Dopamine.

53
Q

When would you use dobutamine?

A

tx of anesthesia associated hypotension. To maintain cardiac output and tissue/organ perfusion.

54
Q

This drug is a direct-acting alpha 1 selective agonist, non-catecholamine that can be used to stop a nose bleed.

A

Phenylephrine.

55
Q

These two drugs are non-selective Beta agonists that are used for feed efficiency, weight gain, and carcass leanness.

A

Ractopamine and zilpaterol.

56
Q

This drug is most commonly used for bronchial asthma. What drug and what is the MOA?

A

Albuterol, selective beta 2 agonist.

57
Q

What selective beta-2 agonist is contraindicated in food animals? What animal is it used in?

A

Clenbuterol. Horses as an oral syrup.

58
Q

Terbutaline is available in what forms in animals? What is its MOA?

A

tablet or injectable. Selective B2 agonist.

59
Q

What mixed sympathomimetic is used to treat urinary incontinence due to urethral sphincter hypotonus/incompetence? It is often used with?

A

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA, Proin). Estrogens.

60
Q

What is ephedrine used for? How is it administered? What is its MOA?

A

as a CRI to maintain BP under anesthesia. IV only. Mixed sympathomimetic.

61
Q

What non-specific alpha antagonist is used to treat urinary retention and pheochromocytomas?

A

Phenoxybenzamine.

62
Q

Is prazosin more or less specific than phenoxybenzamine? When is this drug typically used?

A

more specific. Used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease and can be adjunctive treatment of CHF, systemic or pulmonary hypertension.

63
Q

This non-specific beta-antagonist readily crosses the BBB and is generally used to treat tachyarrhythmias. It is also used in chocolate toxicity.

A

Propanolol.

64
Q

What are 2 beta 1 selective antagonists and which lasts the least amount of time?

A

Atenolol and esmolol. Esmolol is the shortest acting used for supra-ventricular arrhythmias.

65
Q

What drug blocks DOPA decarboxylase in the norepi production pathway?

A

alpha-methyl dopa.

66
Q

This drug is used to calm equines and blocks NE uptake into the vesicles.

A

Reserpine

67
Q

How does guanethidine work?

A

Blocks NE release

68
Q

Which drug is used for the Tensilon test?

A

Edrophonium