Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Active cancer (treatment ongoing, treatment
within last 6 months or receiving palliative
care) Well’s score? Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Calf swelling ≥ 3 mm compared to
asymptomatic calf (measured 10 cm below
tibial tuberosity) Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Swollen unilateral superficial veins (nonvaricose,

in symptomatic leg) Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Unilateral pitting edema (in symptomatic leg) Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Swelling of entire leg Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Localized tenderness in center of posterior
calf, popliteal space, or femoral vein in
anterior thigh/groin, or along distribution of
Deep Venous System Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Paralysis, paresis, or recent immobilization of

lower extremities Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recently bedridden ≥ 3 days, or major
surgery in last 12 weeks requiring general or
regional anesthesia Well’s score?

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alternative diagnosis at least as likely (i.e.

cellulitis, postoperative swelling, calf strain) Well’s score?

A

-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

-2 to 0 Well’s score?

A

Low probability of DVT (3%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1 to 2 Well’s score?

A

Moderate probability of DVT (17%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

≥ 3 Well’s score?

A

≥ 3 High probability of DVT (75%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FLACC stands for?

A
Face
Legs
Activity
Cry
Consolability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For FLACC Each category is scored on the 0–2 scale, which results in a total score of ?

A

0–10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FLACC score of 0 means?

A

Relaxed and comfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FLACC score of 1-3 means?

A

Mild discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FLACC score of 4-6 means?

A

Moderate pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FLACC score of 7-10 means?

A

Severe discomfort or pain or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Using the FLACC in patients who are awake?

A

Observe for 1 to 5 minutes or longer. Observe legs and body uncovered. Reposition patient or observe activity. Assess body for tenseness and tone. Initiate consoling interventions if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Using the FLACC in patients who are asleep?

A

Observe for 5 minutes or longer. Observe body and legs uncovered. If possible, reposition the patient. Touch the body and assess for tenseness and tone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The McGill Pain Questionnaire can be used to?

A

Evaluate a person experiencing significant pain. It can be used to monitor the pain over time and to determine the effectiveness of any intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The McGill Pain Questionnaire minimum pain score?

A

0 (would not be seen in a person with true pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The McGill Pain Questionnaire maximum pain score?

A

78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The McGill Pain Questionnaire, the higher the pain score?

A

The greater the pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An embolus (a mass of undissolved matter present in a blood or lymphatic vessel) in a pulmonary artery or one its branches?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PE Well’s score for Clinical signs of DVT?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PE Well’s score for HR >100 bpm?

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PE Well’s score for immobilization for 3 days or longer, or surgery in previous 4 weeks?

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PE Well’s score for previous dx of PE or DVT?

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PE Well’s score for hemoptysis?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PE Well’s score for patients receiving cancer tx, stopped in past 6 months, or receiving palliative care?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PE Well’s score for alternative dx less likely than PE?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PE Well’s score of <2 pts?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PE Well’s score of 2-6 pts?

A

Moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PE Well’s score of >6 pts?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This scale quantifies muscle spasticity by assessing the response of the muscle to stretch applied at
specified velocities?

A

TARDIEU scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For Tardieu grading is always performed at?

A

The same time of day, in a constant position of the body for a given limb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For Tardieu each muscle group, reaction to stretch is rated at?

A

A specified stretch velocity with 2 parameters x and y.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

For Tardieu V1 is used to measure?

A

PROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

For Tardieu V2 & V3 are used to rate?

A

Spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

For Tardieu V means?

A

Velocity to stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For Tardieu X means?

A

Quality of muscle reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

For Tardieu Y means?

A

Angle of muscle reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

No resistance throughout passive movement = Tardieu?

A

Tardieu score 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Slight resistance throughout, with no clear catch at a precise angle= Tardieu?

A

Tardieu score 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clear catch at a precise angle, followed by release = Tardieu?

A

Tardieu score 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fatigable clonus (<10 secs) occurring at a precise angle = Tardieu?

A

Tardieu score 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Unfatigable clonus (>10 secs) occurring at a precise angle

A

Tardieu score 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Joint immobile= Tardieu?

A

Tardieu score 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Angle of catch seen at Velocity V2 or V3 ?

A

R1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Full range of motion achieved when muscle is at rest and

tested at V1 velocity?

A

R2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A large difference between R1 & R2 values in the outer to middle range of normal m. length indicates?

A

A large dynamic component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A small difference in the R1 & R2 measurement in the middle to inner range indicates?

A

Predominantly fixed contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

No increase in muscle tone

Modified Ashworth score of?

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension
Modified Ashworth score of?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM
Modified Ashworth score of?

A

1+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

More marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moved
Modified Ashworth score of?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult
Modified Ashworth score of?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Affected part(s) rigid in flexion or extension
Modified Ashworth score of?
A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which is the newest special interest group?

A

Assistive Technology/Seating & Wheeled Mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PD, MS, ALS, HD & others fall under which special interest group?

A

Degenerative Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Payment for each patient is based on information in the?

A

Patient Assessment Instrument (PAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

IRF PPS stands for?

A

Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Prospective Payment System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Section GG?

A

Functional Abilities and Goals**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Section GG: Prior Function: Scores range from?

A

Dependent (1) - Independent (3)
Unknown (8)
N/A (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Section GG: Mobility: Scores range from?

A

Dependent (1) - Independent (6)
Patient refused (7)
N/A (9) for both self care and mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Interdisciplinary Team Model 3 key elements?

A

Activities
Problem solving
Collaboration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Scheduling: for easier patients?

A

Early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Scheduling: more debilitated patients?

A

Later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Scheduling: morning?

A

ADL’s

Transfers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

(HOAC II) stands for?

A

The Hypothesis-Oriented Algorithm for Clinicians II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

APTA Client Management Model order?

A
Examination
Evaluation
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Intervention
Outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is Phase 1?

A

Medical screening (systems review) for disease and pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is Phase 2?

A

Examination and Evaluation

Categorizing examination findings into specific categories through evaluation that will generate diagnosis of movement dysfunction, prognosis and guide choice of interventions.

Client remains within the scope of physical/occupational therapy practice and proceeds with the diagnostic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The Guide to PT Practice describes the systems review: brief or
limited examination of the anatomical and physiological status of?

A
    1. cardiovascular/pulmonary system
    1. integumentary system
    1. musculoskeletal system
    1. neuromuscular system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

RLQ pain?

A

McBurney’s Appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Examination consists of?

A

History
System Screening
Tests and Measures**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

(ICF) stands for?

A

International Classification of Functioning

Disability and Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Domestic, community, social, civic life situations,
education life, work life. (e.g questionnaires)
What part of ICF?

A

Participation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Self care, domestic care (i.e. ADL, IADL respectively)

what part of ICF?

A

Functional activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Systems and subsystems, identification of strengths and impairments
what part of ICF?

A

Body functions and structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

First: Choose Appropriate Test and Measures

Start with tests that fall under?

A
  1. Participation

2. Activity/Functional Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Second: Analyze?

A

Posture and Strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Divide Functional Activity Observed into 3 phases?

A

Initiation
Transition
Completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Ability to carry out purposeful movement?

A

Apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CNS integration – it weighs: what 3 things?

A
  • 1) somatosensory input first
  • 2) vision input second
  • 3) vestibular input third
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What test looks at the 3 CNS integrations?

A

CTSIB test looks at these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Location in space?

A

Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Perception of the movement?

A

Kinesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Purpose of Evaluation? order?

A

Diagnosis
Prognosis
Goals
Interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

DON’T use impairment goals*** (not ideal), instead use?

A

Activity goals

Participation goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

“The ? is the determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function and the amount of time needed to reach that level and also may include a prediction of levels of improvement that may be reached at various intervals during the course of therapy”

A

Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Standardized tests that have predictive validity?

A

Motricity index
NIHSS (National Institute of Health Stroke Scale)
Fugl-Meyer Assessment Scale
***Orpington Prognostic Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

5 Essential Components of Plan of Care?

A
  • 1) goals and outcomes
  • 2) rehabilitation potential
  • 3) specific interventions to be used
  • 4) duration and frequency of interventions
  • 5) criteria for discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Goal Writing must be what 3 things?

A
    1. Objective
    1. Measurable
    1. Time limited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

List of Interventions Should Include?

A

1) Coordination, communication, documentation
2) Patient/client-related instruction
3) Procedural intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

An upward and equal force which is equal to the fluid

which the body has displaced?

A

Buoyancy

Archimedes prinicple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

If in water up to ASIS?

A

50% weight bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

If in water up to Xiphoid Process?

A

30% WB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

If in water up to C7?

A

10% WB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The pressure exerted by a fluid on any body at

rest?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Hydrostatic pressure at the surface?

A

14.7 lbs/in²

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A person of average height at neck level will

experience how much hydrostatic pressure?

A

16.43 lbs/in²

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

at the calf: for reference – an ace bandage can produce

pressure from ? around the calf

A

1-7 lbs/in²

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

? ml vital capacity contraindicated to

be in chest-deep

A

<1400 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The resistance occurring between molecules of a

liquid, affecting flow?

A

Viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Water becomes ? viscous as temperature rises

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The tendency of masses to resist changes in motion?

Which Newton law?

A

Law of inertia ***

(e.g) having pt. quickly switch from 1 direction to another direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to a force acting upon that object, inversely proportional to the mass, and has the same direction as the resultant force?
Which Newton law?

A

Law of Acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Which Newton law?

A

Law of Action/Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The product of the force times the length of the force arm is equal to the product of the resistance times the length
of the resistance arm
Which Newton law?

A

Law of leverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

HOW LONG CAN A THERAPIST BE IN THE WATER?

A

No more than 4 continuous hours per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE WATER SUPPOSED TO BE? for more active patients or patients with MS

A

82-88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE WATER SUPPOSED TO BE?

for less active patients such as those with arthritis or women

A

88-92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE WATER SUPPOSED TO BE? for less active patients with hypertonicity/spasticity issues

A

92-96

116
Q

Psychosocial adaptation phases?

A
Shock
Anxiety
Denial
Depression
Internalized Anger
Externalized Hostility
Acknowledgement
Adjustment
117
Q

Refusing to participate in therapy because the nurse got them up too early

A

Acting out

118
Q

Patient will stop therapy to go open the door for each patient entering the gym.

A

Altruism

119
Q

A patient fantasizes about winning the lottery and what they would do with all of their money

A

Autistic fantasy

120
Q

A patient with a C6 level injury requests to leave the hospital AMA to go home and take care of her toddler

A

Denial

121
Q

The patient has 10 nicely (or not so nicely) placed criticisms for the therapist before they even leave the hospital room for therapy.

A

Devaluation

122
Q

Patient reflects her anger on her PT when she is really mad that her husband is responsible for the accident that caused her SCI

A

Displacement

123
Q

Patient stares off in the middle of the therapy session and stops participating

A

Dissociation

124
Q

Patient constantly asking for help but nothing is good enough when they get it.

A

Help-rejecting

125
Q

Patient jokes about his tendency to set off the alarm at the airport.

A

Humor

126
Q

A patient will tell you she has the best husband in the world, when clearly she does NOT

A

Idealization

127
Q

Patient will talk about the mechanics of his new knee joint and
external fixator rather than discuss his feelings.

A

Intellectualization

128
Q

The patient talks “matter of fact” about a devastating car accident that left them paralyzed at T9, 2 weeks ago

A

Isolation of affect

129
Q

A patient brags about how much better he is doing than his roommate in the hospital and makes up his own way to
do exercises that is better than the PT’s way

A

Omnipotence

130
Q

A patient tells you that her nurse doesn’t like her and is jealous of her pretty hair and clothes

A

Projection

131
Q

A patient tells you that she needs reliable transportation, that is safe for her and her family to justify purchasing a new car
that is way over her budget.

A

Rationalization

132
Q

A patient overhears his spouse telling someone that she loves them on the phone, and rather than ask about it, purposefully forgets it, out of fear. This is dangerous!

A

Repression

133
Q

Patient tells the therapist “you are the only therapist that understands me” but when it comes time for this therapist to discharge her from therapy, she is vilified as being uncaring
and thoughtless.

A

Splitting

134
Q

A patient who has suffered a divorce may work hard to lose weight and update appearance

A

Sublimation

135
Q

The patient refuses to talk about the incident that brought him to
therapy

A

Suppression

136
Q

A patient who feels antagonistic towards his therapist, will bring him his favorite dessert on the next visit

A

Undoing

137
Q

A patient who feels antagonistic towards his therapist, will bring him his favorite dessert on the next visit

A

Undoing

138
Q

Basic (Self-Care) aka

A

ADL

139
Q

Instrumental (domestic life)

A

IADL

140
Q
•Personal hygiene and grooming
•Dressing and Undressing
•Self-feeding
•Functional Transfers (on/off bed, on/off
toilet, in/out of w/c)
•Bowel and bladder management
•Ambulation (with or without AD)
A

Specific Examples of BADLs (Self-Care)

141
Q
  • Housework
  • Taking medications as prescribed
  • Money management
  • Shopping for groceries/clothing
  • Use of telephone
  • Meal preparation and management
  • Transportation within community
  • Care of pets
  • Child rearing
A

Specific Examples of IADLs (Domestic Life)

142
Q

Goal of BADL and IADL Training?

A

Ultimate goal: Maximal level of independence possible

143
Q

Dressing evaluation should be arranged at what time?

A

Early in the morning

144
Q

Self-feeding evaluation should occur at what time?

A

Meal times

145
Q

Assessment Tools – BADLs (Self-Care)?

A
  • The Barthel Index *** (gold standard)
  • KATZ Basic Activities of Daily Living (ADL) Scale
  • FIM
  • OASIS
  • SF-36 *** (gold standard)
146
Q

Assessment Tools: IADLS (Domestic Care)?

A
  • Lawton-Brody Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale
  • OASIS
  • SF-36
  • Community Integration Questionnaire II
147
Q

Assessment Tools: IADLS (Domestic Care) For Stroke Survivors?:

A
  • Nottingham Extended ADL (a self-report scale)
  • Hamrin Activity Index (pt interview)
  • Frenchay Activities Index (pt interview)
  • Household section of the Rivermead ADL Assessment (a performance index).

first 3 are participation level

148
Q

• Anything that assists with activities of daily living is not covered
under most insurances or Medicare = ?

A

Considered luxury items

  • Bathing devices
  • Dressing devices
  • Eating devices etc.
149
Q

Hospital Beds covered?

A

Covered by Medicare/Medicaid

as a rental item

150
Q

Trapeze bar covered?

A

Can be covered if needed.

151
Q

Transfer Boards covered?

A

May be considered medically necessary and covered under Medicare/Medicaid

152
Q

Bathtub Access covered?

A

Most insurance companies including Medicare/Medicaid will not cover

153
Q

Bedside Commode?

A

• If it is for use in the bathroom (i.e. to make seat higher, a.k.a. elevated toilet seat), then NOT
covered
• If it is documented that it is for use outside of the bathroom, in the bedroom, then IS covered

154
Q

Elevated Toilet Seats?

A

Not covered under insurance but generally inexpensive.

155
Q

Grab Bars?

A

Not covered under Medicaid/Medicare

156
Q

Assistive Devices?

A

Medicare and insurance will cover these every 5 years

• However: if a patient ALSO needs a wheelchair, it will not cover both

157
Q

Wheelchairs?

A

Cushions and back of chair are purchased items
• Covered if medically necessary i.e. for pressure relief or posturing
• NOT covered if for comfort

158
Q

Chair is rental up to ? months, then becomes the patient’s

A

10

159
Q

Wheelchairs Can get a new one every?

A
5 years (adults) 
2 years (children <21 y/o)
160
Q

Ramps?

A

These are currently not covered under Medicare/Medicaid

161
Q

Standing Frames?

A

These will often be covered under Medicaid/Medicare

162
Q

Hoyer Lifts?

A

These are covered as rental items (up to 15 months) by Medicare

163
Q

Healthcare that “customizes treatment
recommendations and decision making in response to patients’
preferences and beliefs…This partnership also is
characterized by informed, shared decision making,
development of patient knowledge, skills needed for self management of illness, and preventative behaviors. “

A

Patient- Centered Care

164
Q

People in a crisis: ?

A

“hear poorly, process little, remember even less….”

165
Q

Provide some opportunities for give and take aka?

A

(patient-centered care)

166
Q

How is the scapula stabilized?

A

• Clavicle

  • Muscles:
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Pectoralis major
  • Serratus anterior
  • Trapezius
  • Levator scapulae
  • Rhomboids
  • Pectoralis minor
167
Q

Scapula Neutral Position and Alignment

A

Scapula down, adducted, glenoid fossa slightly up (slight upward rotation)

168
Q

Mulligan’s mobilization

A

Mob with movement

169
Q

Scapulohumeral movement: First 30°?

A

Glenohumeral motion

170
Q

Scapulohumeral movement: Remaining roughly?

A

2:1 glenohumeral/scapular motion

171
Q
  • Ideas for how to challenge trunk control:

* Level I: Basic movement components?

A
  • Upper body initiated movement
  • Lower body initiated movement
  • Anterior/Posterior/Lateral direction
172
Q

• Ideas for how to challenge trunk control: • Level II: Coordinated trunk and extremity patterns?

A

• Anticipatory postural control needed here as well

173
Q

Ideas for how to challenge trunk control: Level III:?

A

Power production

174
Q

Movement Analysis: Look first at?

A

Trunk and ribcage

175
Q

Movement Analysis: Look 2nd at?

A

Does the scapula move?

176
Q

Movement Analysis: Look 3rd at?

A

Are the forearm, wrist and hand alignment appropriate for support?

177
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:

Flaccidity?

A

1

178
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:
Basic limb synergies or portion of them
Minimal voluntary movement
Spasticity begins

A

2

179
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:
Voluntary control of portion of limb synergy
Spasticity increases

A

3

180
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:
Some movement patterns outside of synergy are mastered
Spasticity declines some

A

4

181
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:
If cont. progress more difficult movement combos are learned
Basic synergy lose dominance

A

5

182
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:

With no spasticity, the person joint move and coordination is becoming normal

A

6

183
Q

Brunnstrom Levels Motor Recovery after a Stroke:

Normal

A

7

184
Q

Order of Challenges?

A
    1. Isometric (hold that position)
    1. Eccentric (slowly lower from that position)
    1. Concentric (go to that position)
185
Q

Weight bearing with control before non-weight bearing with

control

A

*

186
Q

Postural control in a position before postural control with

movement

A

*

187
Q

Control of an open hand before grasping activities

A

*

188
Q

Grasping stable objects before unstable ones

A

*

189
Q

These patients will benefit from early mobilization, ROM, positioning strategies, weight bearing

A

At or below brunnstrom stage 3

190
Q

*reminder, brunnstrom stage ? = Voluntary control of portions of limb synergies, Spasticity increases

A

3

191
Q

Sitting&raquo_space; modified plantigrade&raquo_space; standing

A

*

192
Q

Quadruped only for very advanced patients

A

*

193
Q
  • Repetitive, intense task-oriented therapy
  • Aimed at posture, reaching, manipulation
  • Best outcomes when patient has some active movement
A

At or above stage 4

194
Q

Reminder, stage ? = Some movement patterns outside of synergy are mastered, Spasticity begins to decline some

A

4

195
Q

Power grip is usually first step

A

*

196
Q
  • Release externally stabilized object
  • Practice release with wrist in neutral
  • Progress to release of objects into container
  • Progress to stacking objects
A

• Erhardt’s suggested progression:

197
Q

Repetition is KEY
• Animal studies done: 400 – 600 reps per day of a challenging
functional task can lead to structural neurological changes
following an induced stroke to the hand area in nonhuman
primates*

A

*

198
Q
  • Arm supported at all times
  • In standing, it needs to be in weight bearing as much as possible
  • Supine and sitting:
  • Slight abduction and slight external rotation*
A

Managing the Flaccid Shoulder

199
Q
  • NMES
  • Supportive devices as indicated
  • Facilitation of AAROM of UE and trunk
  • Biofeedback
  • Education of all who transfer and position patient
A

Managing the Flaccid Shoulder Treatment

200
Q
  • Appropriate mobilization techniques (grade 1 and 2)
  • Gentle stretching
  • Cryotherapy
  • EMG biofeedback
  • Relaxation therapy
  • Adhesive capsulitis
  • Mobilization
  • PROM techniques
  • Ultrasound
  • Education of all who transfer and position patient
A

Managing the Spastic Shoulder

201
Q

**Managing the spastic upper extremity is a key for improving body alignment.

A

*

202
Q
4. Effective results so far found in
research for:
• Wrist extensors
• Deltoid
• Supraspinatous
• Glenohumeral alignment with reduced
subluxation
5. Optimal with task-oriented
training
A

Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation

203
Q

• With training of the dominant arm, the non-dominant arm performance
improved substantially in terms of linearity and initial direction control.
• However, if the initial training was on the non-dominant arm, there was no
effect on subsequent performance with the dominant arm.*

A

Interlimb Transfer

204
Q

Spastic presentation:

• Muscle tone contributes to poor scapular position (depression, retraction, downward rotation)

A

*

205
Q

• Wrist assumes flexed posture (intense pain with wrist extension)

A

• Chronic Regional Pain Syndrome (also known as RSD)

206
Q

Follows mild trauma without nerve injury

Chronic Regional Pain Syndrome (also known as RSD)?

A

Type 1:

207
Q

• Follows trauma with nerve injury

Chronic Regional Pain Syndrome (also known as RSD)?

A

Type 2

208
Q
  • Vasomotor changes (pale pink, cool) with alteration in temperature
  • Guarded against movement (pain with wrist extension)
  • Chance of reversal: high
A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

• Stage I (1-3 months)

209
Q
  • Subsiding pain
  • Muscle and skin atrophy
  • Vasospasm
  • Hyperhidrosis (sweating)
  • Course hair and nails
  • Radiographic evidence of early osteoporosis
  • Chance of reversal: variable
A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

• Stage II (3-6 months)

210
Q
  • Atrophic phase
  • Pain and vasomotor changes are rare
  • Progressive atrophy of skin, muscles, bone
  • Severe osteoporosis
  • Pericapsular fibrosis and articular changes notable
  • Hand contracted in a clawed position
  • MP extended, IP flexion (like intrinsic minus)
  • Atrophy of thenar and hypothenar muscles
  • Flattening of hand
  • Chance of reversal: poor
A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

• Stage III

211
Q

provides humeral support with slight external rotation
• Allows elbow extension
• May provide some reduction of shoulder subluxation
• Can be worn longer: does not restrict elbow/hand or lend to contractures
or increased tone

A

Humeral Cuff Sling

212
Q

• 1. Slings appropriate for initial transfer and gait training
• 2. Overall should be minimized during rehabilitation
• 3. Slings which position in UE flexion used only for select upright
activities for short periods
• 4. Selection should be carefully done and closely monitored

A

Gillen’s Guidelines

213
Q

Neural re-organization that occurs as a result of increased use of
involved body segments in behaviorally relevant tasks

A

function-induced

214
Q

Different and under-utilized areas of the brain (i.e. cortical
supplementary and association areas) can take over
functions of the damaged tissue

A

cortical remapping

215
Q

CNS has back-up parallel cortical maps that may become

operational when the primary system breaks down

A

parallel cortical maps)

216
Q

Whole areas of the brain are capable of reprogramming

A

(substitution)

217
Q

Stages of Motor Learning

A

Stage 1: Cognitive Stage
Stage 2: Associative Stage
Stage 3: Autonomous Stage

218
Q

 Person experiments with strategies, keeping ones that work
 Performance is variable
 Improvements in performance are quite large

A

Stage 1: Cognitive Stage

219
Q

 Demonstrate ideal performance of the task to establish a
reference for correctness
 Direct attention to critical task elements
 Select appropriate feedback
o High dependence on vision
o Pair intrinsic with extrinsic feedback
o Only focus on errors that become consistent (KP)
o Focus on success of movement outcome (KR)
 Ask patient to evaluate own performance and discuss
solutions, also praise and provide motivation

A

Treatment for Stage 1: Cognitive Stage

220
Q

“the ability of the brain to change and

repair itself”

A

Neuroplasticity

221
Q

 Restorative Interventions therapeutic outcome

A

Improved motor function and functional independence

222
Q

Task-Oriented Training: Who is this approach NOT meant for?**

A
  • Recent injury/lesions
  • Those with a lack of voluntary control
  • Those with a lack of cognition
223
Q

A learned skill is one that can be done:

A
  1. efficiently
  2. consistently
  3. and is transferable
224
Q

what % of 1 RM for Neuro pts?

A

40-70%

225
Q

What % of 1 RM for severe weakness?

A

50%

226
Q

What % for aerobic training?

A

40-70%

227
Q

Passive Stretching, Static for how long?

A

20-30 seconds at end-range x 4-5 reps

228
Q

Learning to relax specific muscle groups while paying attention to the feelings associated both with the tensed and relaxed states.

A

Progressive Relaxation Training

229
Q

Systematic review of the skeletal muscle groups in the body
o Patients identify any tension in muscle group addressed and release it.
o These techniques can be taken to the workplace
o Take less time
o More easily used by those with disabilities (tone!)

A

Passive Muscular Relaxation:

230
Q
o Jacobson (1938) developed this technique
o Muscles engaged in activities need to engage the least amount of tension necessary to produce the task.
o (i.e. Squinting while writing)
A

Differential Relaxation:

231
Q

Normal movement patterns stressed and compensations avoided

A

NDT

232
Q

Postural control is viewed as the foundation for all skill learning

A

NDT

233
Q

KEY POINTS OF CONTROL for NDT handling:
o Key parts of the body therapists use to control movement and
postures
• Proximal:?

A

pelvis, shoulder

234
Q

KEY POINTS OF CONTROL for NDT handling:
o Key parts of the body therapists use to control movement and
postures
• Distal?

A

extremities; usually hands and feet

235
Q

Most beneficial to patients with weak muscles (MMT 1-3)

A

Biofeedback:

236
Q

Most beneficial to patients with weak muscles (MMT 1-3)

A

Biofeedback

237
Q

reduce tone, re-educate muscle, improve ROM,

decrease edema, treat disuse atrophy

A

Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation:

238
Q

Loss of strength =?

A

immediate effect on balance

239
Q

First 30 to 45°of hip flexion, ?

A

femur moves without pelvis

240
Q

From 45 to 90°the pelvis ?

A

flexes with the femur (posterior

pelvic tilt)

241
Q

After 90°of movement?

A

the upper trunk flexes

242
Q

normal Gait Speed Test:

A

1.0 – 1.2 m/sec

243
Q

gait speed difficulty in real world environment

A

0.8 m/sec

244
Q

gait speed difficulty even in home

A

0.6 m/sec

245
Q

information about spatial, temporal parameters and motion

patterns

A

Kinematics:

246
Q

information about forces (ground reaction, joint torques, CoM, CoP, moments, force, power, joint reaction forces, intrinsic foot pressure)

A

Kinetics:

247
Q

the net vertical and shear or horizontal

forces acting between the foot and the supporting surface

A

Ground reaction force:

248
Q

Force Platforms Measure?

A

kinetics

249
Q

Predicting discharge walking ability from admission to an
inpatient rehabilitation facility: Berg Balance Scale and FIM item scores explained most of the variance in discharge walk speed.
o Berg score of ≤ 20 and a FIM of 1 or 2 =?

A

highly likely to achieve only

household ambulation speeds

250
Q

Pre-Gait Training

Developmental approach to address this progression:

A

o A. Mobility
o B. Stability
o C. Dynamic stability
o D. Skill

251
Q

ability to move from one posture to another

A

Mobility:

252
Q

maintain posture against gravity

A

Stability:

253
Q

ability to maintain postural control

during weight shifting and movement

A

Dynamic stability:

254
Q

discrete motor control with proximal stability

A

Skill:

255
Q

General Progression of decreasing stability:
 Parallel bars&raquo_space; walker&raquo_space; quad cane or hemi-walker&raquo_space;
single point cane&raquo_space; no assistive device

A
Parallel bars >> 
walker >> 
quad cane or hemi-walker >>
single point cane >> 
no assistive device
256
Q

General Progression of decreasing stability:
 Parallel bars&raquo_space; walker&raquo_space; quad cane or hemi-walker&raquo_space;
single point cane&raquo_space; no assistive device

A
Parallel bars >> 
walker >> 
quad cane or hemi-walker >>
single point cane >> 
no assistive device
257
Q

BERG SCORE OF 0–20

A

high fall risk, wheelchair bound

258
Q

BERG SCORE OF

21–40

A

medium fall risk , walking with assistance

259
Q

BERG SCORE OF

41–56

A

independent

260
Q

Q: When during an examination, is the best time to evaluate “participation”?

A

This is often self-reported information and when this is the case, it is very useful to give ahead of the
therapy session. In these cases, this information will provide a lot of insight into the patient, the
patient’s family, struggles, function, perceived abilities and disabilities and frustration levels prior to
even the subjective examination, and may guide the entire exam in some cases.

261
Q

Q: When during the examination, is the best time to evaluate “functional activities” and administer a
functional (activities) outcome measure?

A

A: This is ideally done after the history has been taken and the medical screening has been completed
(review of systems). WHY? it is efficient use of time. If the therapist identifies the activities the patient
is not able to do and has them demonstrate their attempts at these skills, a hypothesis can be generated
for “why” the patient cannot complete these tasks. This is where the ability to analyze movement
comes in. From here these hypotheses can be followed up with testing for impairments to validate of
refute suspicions. If further information necessary in order for you to choose wisely, then put it later in
the examination.

262
Q

Set up: 30 m with cones at each end. Patient
cannot sit down but can lean against wall for rest.
Ok to use usual walking aid. Use only
encouragement as dictated in protocol. Course is
marked off every 3 meters. For the purpose of
test/re-test to measure improvement or decline.

A

6 Minute Walk Test

263
Q

6 Minute Walk Test Minimal detectable change:

A

29 meters

264
Q

6 Minute Walk Test Minimal detectable change: *O’Sullivan: older adults:

A

~50 m

265
Q

6 Minute Walk Test Minimal detectable change: patients with stroke

A

54 m

266
Q

6 Minute Walk Test Minimal detectable change: patients with SCI

A

46 m

267
Q

10 Meter Walk Test,
Test/re-test, Minimal Clinically Important
Difference (MCID) =

A

0.16 m/s

268
Q

5 Times Sit to Stand Cutoff score ? s was predictive of fallers in
elderly

A

15 s

269
Q

Test/re-test findings to chart changes in UE

function

A

Action Research Arm Test

270
Q

BERG score of less than ? high fall risk per strokeedge?

A

less than 45

271
Q

Dynamic Gait Index ≤19/24 =

A

predictive of falls

272
Q

Dynamic Gait Index >22/24 =

A

safe ambulators

273
Q

Functional Reach Test ≤ 6 inches =

A

significant increased risk for falls

274
Q

Functional Reach Test 6 – 10 inches=

A

moderate risk for falls

275
Q

Orpington Prognostic Scale Predictive: <3.2

A

were d/c home within 3 wks of

stroke

276
Q

Orpington Prognostic Scale Predictive: 3.2-5.2

A

benefit from intensive rehabilitation

277
Q

Orpington Prognostic Scale Predictive: > 5.2

A

required long term care

278
Q

Good predictor of patient’s own assessment of
recovery (9 items with rating, 5 meaning not
affected at all by stroke and 1 being cannot do
because of stroke) – higher number is better.

A

Stroke Impact Scale

279
Q

*In any rehabilitation setting, efficiency must be met:
Much can be obtained at a screening level about a person’s sensation, awareness, cognition,
perception, communication in the first few minutes of interaction. Try walking up to the patient and
putting hand on involved shoulder for instance, is there a reaction? How do they follow commands?
Interact?
The screening then rolls seamlessly into the examination – if the patient is appropriate for
physical therapy services, once you’ve screened their systems, look further where deficits were found
that need to be addressed (in order to meet patient goals).

A

***Once Systems Screen is complete, the next step is to decide if you will:
 not treat
 not treat and need to refer or consult another professional
 treat and refer/consult
 treat

280
Q

denial and lack of awareness of one’s paralysis

A

Anosognosia:

281
Q

unaware of one’s body part

A

Asomatognosia:

282
Q

Tone: 0 =

A

Flaccid

283
Q

Tone 1+=

A

hypotonia

284
Q

Tone 2+=

A

normal

285
Q

Tone 3+=

A

exaggerated

286
Q

Tone 4+=

A

sustained