Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

5 Core competencies identified by Institute of Medicine (IOM) that are essential for all health care professionals to demonstrate in all areas of practice

A

1) Provide patient-centered care
2) Work in interdisciplinary teams
3) Use evidenced-based practice
4) Apply quality improvements
5) Use informatics

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2
Q

Components of a health assessment

A

1) Conducting a health history
2) Performing a physical examination
3) Reviewing other data from the health record (as available)
4) Document findings

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3
Q

A health history consists of

A

subjective data collected during an interview. Includes:

1) Information about the current state of health of patients
2) The medications they take
3) Previous illnesses and surgeries
4) A family history
5) Review of symptoms (ROS)

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4
Q

Patients may report feelings or experiences associated with health problems. These patient reports are called?

A

Symptoms and are subjective

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5
Q

Primary source data

A

Subjective data acquired directly from a patient

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6
Q

Secondary source data

A

Data acquired from another individual (such as family member)

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7
Q

During physical examination what is collected?

A
Objective data is collected using the techniques of:
1) Inspection
2) Palpation
3) Percussion
4) Auscultation 
for each body system.
5) Height
6) Weight
7) Blood pressure
8) Temp.
9) Pulse rate
10) Respiratory rate
all measured
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8
Q

Serves as the baseline for the evaluation of subsequent changes and decisions related to care

A

The patient’s health record

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9
Q

What does the EHR include?

A

1) Data from the history
2) Physical examination
3) Laboratory and diagnostic tests
4) Surgical procedures
5) Progress notes

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10
Q

Circumstances contributing to the context of care include?

A

Setting or environment physical psychological or socioeconomic circumstances involving the patient, and the expertise of the nurse.

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11
Q

Types of data organization

A

1) body system format (e.g. cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, auditory, visual)
2) Conceptual format (e.g oxygenation, perfusion, mobility)

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12
Q

Clinical judgement

A

An interpretation or conclusion about a patient’s needs, concerns, or health problems and/or the decision to take action (or not), use or modify standard approaches, or improvise new ones as deemed appropriate by the patient’s response.

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13
Q

Process of clinical judgement include 4 components

A

1) Noticing
2) Interpreting
3) Responding
4) Reflecting

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14
Q

A process in which the nurse uses patterns of reasoning (involving analysis of intuition) to gain an understanding of the situation

A

Interpreting

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15
Q

Reflection-in-action

A

Reflecting on past experiences while in the midst of another situation

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16
Q

Reflection-on-action

A

Thinking about a situation that has occurred and developing a better understanding of what happened & the appropriateness of the patient outcomes

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17
Q

Primary prevention

A

Prevent a disease from developing through the promotion of healthy lifestyles

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18
Q

Secondary prevention

A

Consists of screening efforts to promote the early detection of disease

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19
Q

Tertiary prevention

A

Directed toward minimizing the disability from acute or chronic disease or injury & helping the patient to maximize his/her health.

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20
Q

4 Overarching goals of Healthy People 2020

A

1) Attain high quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, & premature death
2) Achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, & improve health of all groups
3) Create social & physical environments that promote good health for all
4) Promote quality of life, healthy development, & healthy behaviors across all life stages

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21
Q

What are the 4 foundational health measures that are indicators of progress towards goals for healthy people 2020?

A

1) General health status
2) health related quality of life & well being
3) determinates of health
4) Disparities

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22
Q

A 52-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with a new diagnosis of rectal cancer. The nurse conducts which type of assessment on his admission?

A

Comprehensive assessment. The key words are new admission

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23
Q

After collecting data, the nurse begins data analysis with which activity?

A

Organizing the data collected

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24
Q

Components of health assessment include?

A

1) conducting a health history (the collection of subjective data)
2) performing a physical examination (the collection of objective data)
3) documenting the findings
Collection and analysis of data are components of formulating a nursing diagnosis and care plan.

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25
Q

Information gathered during a health history include

A
  • how patients define health
  • their beliefs about attaining and maintaining health (such as how they view their responsibility for their health, which health behaviors they currently practice, which unhealthy behaviors they are willing to change)
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26
Q

Patients expectations for health are based on?

A

His/her life experiences, experiences of family & friends, the culture in which they live.

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27
Q

Phases of an interview

A

Introduction
Discussion
Summary

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28
Q

How a nurse conducts him/her self in an interview includes

A

What is said to a patient
personal appearance
body language
tone of voice

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29
Q

Discussion phase of interview

A

Nurse collects health history by facilitating a discussion regarding various aspects of patients health. Conversation is patient-centered (patients free to share concerns, beliefs, values in own words).
During this phase, a variety of communication skills & techniques are used to enhance the conversation and data collection

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30
Q

Phases of an interview bullet points

A

Introduction phase
Nurse:
1) Introduces self to patient
2) Describes the purpose of the interview
3) Describes the interview process
Discussion phase
Nurse:
1) Faciliates & maintains a patient-centered discussion
2) Uses various communication techniques to collect data
Summary phase
Nurse:
1) Summarizes data w/patient
2) Allows patient to clarify the data
3) Communicates an understanding of the problems to the patient.

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31
Q

Numerous factors affect the interview

A

1) Physical setting
2) Nurses behavior
3) types of questions asked
4) how questions are asked
5) Personality/behavior of patient
6) how they are feeling during interview
7) nature of information being discussed or the problem confronted may affect the data revealed

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32
Q

Nurses ______ skills are instrumental in a successful interview

A

interpersonal

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33
Q

When conducting an interview consider patient variables such as?

A

Age & physical, mental & emotional status

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34
Q

When a patient is in physical or emotional distress what assessment should you conduct?

A

Focused assessment to limit the number and nature of questions to those which are absolutely necessary for the given situation, and save any additional questions for later.

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35
Q

Permission giving technique

A

The nurse communicates to the patient that it is safe to discuss such topics

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36
Q

Begin an interview with?

A

Open-ended questions

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37
Q

Directive questions lead patients to?

A

Focus on one set of thoughts. This type of question is most often used in reviewing symptoms or evaluating an individual’s functional capabilities

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38
Q

The ____ is an essential tool in obtaining a patients history

A

question-answer format

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39
Q

Data collection can be facilitated by using the following techniques

A

1) Active listening
2) Facilitation
3) Clarification
4) Restatement
5) Reflection
6) Confrontation
7) Interpretation
8) Summary

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40
Q

Active listening involves?

A

Listening with a purpose to the spoken words as well as noticing nonverbal behaviors

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41
Q

Facilitation uses?

A

Phrases to encourage patients to continue talking. These include verbal responses such as “go on”, “uh huh”, “then” & nonverbal responses such as head nodding and shifting forward in your seat with increased attention.

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42
Q

When someone is overly talkative the use of ________ may help to maintain direction and flow of the conversation

A

Closed-ended questions

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43
Q

LEP

A

Limited english proficiency

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44
Q

Who mandates the provision of interpreting services for patients with LEP (Limited english proficiency); this is also an element w/in the accreditation guidelines for health care agencies

A

State and federal laws

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45
Q

Cultural differences: Patient-centered care is provided when nurses develop?

A

Cultural competence to accept and respect differences, & identify cultural factors that may influence patients’ beliefs about health and illness

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46
Q

Who places accountability for cultural competence w/all health care professionals?

A

The health care system

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47
Q

Define cultural competence

A

The ongoing process in which the health care professional continuously strives to achieve the ability & availability to work effectively w/in the cultural context of the patient (individual, family, community)

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48
Q

To deliver culturally competent care, nurses must?

A

Interact w/each individual as a unique person who is a product of past experiences, beliefs, and values that have been learned and passed down from one generation to the next.

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49
Q

A comprehensive health history may be performed during?

A

1) A hospital admission
2) With an initial clinic
3) home visit
4) When the patient’s reason for seeking care is for the relief of generalized symptoms such as weight loss or fatique

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50
Q

The history for a problem based/problem focused health assessment included data that is?

A

Limited in scope to a specific problem. however, it must be detailed enough so the nurse is aware of other health related data that may affect the current problem. A focused interview is also used when a patient seeks help to address an urgent problem such as relief from asthma attacks or chest pain.

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51
Q

The history associated with an episodic or follow up assessment generally focuses on?

A

A specific problem or problems for which a patient has already been receiving treatment. It focuses on the changes that have taken place since the last visit, with an interest in disease management & the early detection of complications or a decline in health. Example is a cancer patient going for episodic visits for treatment.

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52
Q

A comprehensive health history includes the following components:

A

1) Biographic data
2) Reason for seeking care
3) History of present illness
4) Present health status
5) Past health history
6) Family history
7) Personal & psychosocial history
8) Review of symptoms (ROS)

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53
Q

What is biographic data?

A

1) Name
2) Gender
3) Address, telephone number, e-mail
4) Birthdate
5) Birthplace (important when born in foreign country)
6) Race/ethnicity
7) religion
8) marital status
9) occupation
10) contact person
11) source of data

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54
Q

Symptom analysis

A

A systematic method of collecting data about the history & status of symptoms

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55
Q

Symptom analysis: OLD CARTS

A

Onset: When did symptoms begin
Location: where are the symptoms
Duration: how long do symptoms last
Characteristics: Describe the characteristics of the symptoms
Aggravating and alleviating factors: What affects the symptoms
Related symptoms: are other symptoms present
Treatment: describe self Tx before seeking care
Severity: describe severity of the symptoms

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56
Q

The present health status focuses on?

A

The patient’s conditions (acute & chronic), medications the patient is currently taking, and allergies the patient has experienced

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57
Q

What is included in past health history?

A

1) Childhood illnesses
2) Surgeries
3) Hospitalizations
4) Accidents or injuries
5) Immunizations
6) Last examinations
7) Obstetric history

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58
Q

When conducting family history ask about the presence of?

A
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • cancer (all types)
  • diabetes mellitus (type 1 or 2)
  • coronary artery disease (including myocardial infarction)
  • hypertension
  • stroke
  • seizure disorders
  • mental illness (including depression, bipolar, schizophrenia)
  • substance abuse
  • endocrine diseases (specify)
  • kidney disease
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59
Q

Personal & psychosocial history: What is including in the personal history?

A

1) general statement of his/her feelings about self
2) cultural/religious affiliations & practices
3) Education
4) Occupational history
5) Work satisfaction
6) perception of having adequate time for leisure & rest
7) current hobbies/interests

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60
Q

What is included in a personal & psychosocial history?

A

1) Personal status
2) Family & social relationships
3) Diet/nutrition
4) Functional ability
5) Mental health
6) Tobacco, alcohol, illicit drug use
7) health promotion activities
8) environment

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61
Q

AUDIT

A

A screening questionnaire Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test

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62
Q

General symptoms

A

Pain; general fatigue, weakness, fever; problems w/sleep; unexplained changes in weight

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63
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient’s activity level. Which question or comment best facilitates discussion with the patient regarding his or her level of activity?
“Do you exercise during the week?”
“Do you keep in shape?”
“Tell me what form of exercise you do on a daily basis?” Incorrect
“What do you do to get exercise?”

A

“What do you do to get exercise?”

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64
Q
In the introduction phase of the interview, the nurse asks why the patient came into the clinic. This is known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  history of present illness 
  biographic data
  present health status
  review of symptoms
A

history of present illness

It is not present health status because present health status includes the patient’s perception of his or her level of health

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65
Q
The nurse is focusing the interview for a patient who complains of headaches and nausea. Which interview format is based on body function as opposed to body system?
  Review of systems 
  Functional health patterns 
  Health perception database
  Nursing process
A

Functional health patterns

  • Review of systems is very different from the body function format. Functional health patterns are based on body systems (e.g., respiratory and cardiovascular systems). Health perception database is an area of functional health patterns. Nursing process is the method used to identify patient problems and act on them.
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66
Q

Two levels of infection control guidelines

A

Standard precautions & transmission based precautions

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67
Q

Standard precautions are?

A

Measures to reduce risk of transmitting infection from body fluids and non-intact skin
-standard precautions are applied in all aspects of care to all patients in all health care settings

68
Q

Primary elements of standard precautions include?

A

hand hygiene, personal protective equipment (ppe), managing contaminated equipment, environmental control, respiratory hygiene/couch etiquette, & patient placement

69
Q

Transmission based precautions

A

Guidelines designed for control of infections among patients w/known or suspected infections caused by certain pathogens of epidemiologic significance.
Include: contact, droplet, & airborne precautions

70
Q

3 Categories of latex reaction

A

1) Irritant contact dermatitis (contact dermatitis of the skin, not involving the immune system)
2) Type IV dermatitis ( a delayed hypersensitivity involving the immune system in response to the chemicals in latex occurring 24-48 hours after contact
3) Type I system reaction (an immune based systemic reaction caused by an antigen-antibody reaction & resulting in the release of histamine

71
Q

Patients at risk of latex allergy

A

Children with spina bifida and people who have had multiple medical procedures & surgeries, especially genitourinary surgery.

72
Q

Tangential lighting

A

Penlight can be used to increase the light in a specific location or to create shadows by directing light at right angles to the area being inspected

73
Q

what part of the hand is most sensitive to vibration?

A

the ulnar surface of the hand

74
Q

Used to assess skin, pulsations, and tenderness

A

light palpation 1 cm

75
Q

Used to determine size and contour of an organ

A

deep palpation 4cm using one or two hands

76
Q

Bimanual palpation technique

A

Uses both hands, one anterior and one posterior, to entrap a mass or an organ between the fingertips to assess size and shape

77
Q

Percussion is performed to?

A

Evaluate the size, borders, and consistency of internal organs; detect tenderness; determine the extent of fluid in a body cavity

78
Q

two types of percussion

A

Direct & indirect

79
Q

The diaphragm of the stethoscope

A

Used to hear high-pitched sounds such as breath, bowel, & normal heart sounds

80
Q

The bell of the stethoscope

A

Used to hear soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart or vascular sounds (bruit)

81
Q

LED

A

Light emitting diode

82
Q

Used to detect fungal infections of the skin or corneal abrasions of the eye

A

Wood’s lamp

83
Q

Used to differentiate the characteristics of tissue, fluid, and air w/in specific body cavities

A

Transilluminator

84
Q

Used to test for sensation on the lower extremities

A

Monofilament

85
Q

Used to perform basic screening for hearing acuity

A

Audioscope

86
Q

Estimate body fat

A

calipers

87
Q

Used to determine the degree of flexion or extension of a joint

A

Goniometer

88
Q

Auditory screening and assessment of vibratory sensation

A

Tuning fork

89
Q

Inspection of external auditory canal & tympanic membrane

A

Otoscope

90
Q

Inspection of the internal structures of the eye

A

Ophthalmoscope

91
Q

Diversity refers to?

A

Differences in gender, age, culture, race, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, physical or mental disabilities, and social and economic status

92
Q

Culture is defined as?

A

The thoughts, communications, actions, customs, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial, ethnic, religious, or social groups. Includes religious affiliation, language, physical size, gender, sexual orientation, age, disability, political orientation, socioeconomic status, occupational status, & geographic location, all of which influence a person’s perception, behavior, & evaluation of the world

93
Q

Ethnicity refers to?

A

The characteristics that a group may share in some combination such as a common geographic location; race; language and dialect; religious beliefs; a shared tradition and symbols; literature, folklore, & music; food preferences; settlement & employment patterns; & an internal sense of distinctiveness

94
Q

Race is?

A

Genetic in origin & includes physical characteristics such as the skin color, bone structure, eye color, & hair color

95
Q

Spirituality refers to

A

One’s relationship with God, a spiritual being, a higher being, or a reality greater than oneself; an existential, not of the material world meaning & purpose in life; and the life force or integrating aspect of the person. Religion may or may not be apart of spirituality.

96
Q

Religion refers to

A

The organized system of beliefs, rituals, and practices in which an individual participates; whereas spirituality is a broader concept

97
Q

Spirituality practices may include?

A

Prayer, meditation, walking in the woods, listening to music, painting, journaling, intentional appreciation of beauty, or being present in the world w/others

98
Q

______ and ______ _____ may influence interpersonal behaviors and expectations

A

Spiritual and religious beliefs

99
Q

OMH

A

Office of Minority Health; Issue national standards to ensure that all people entering the health care system receive equitable and effective treatment.

100
Q

CLAS

A

Culturally and linguistically appropriate services.

Helps eliminate racial and ethnic health disparities & improve the health of all people living in the US.

101
Q

CLAS (culturally and linguistically appropriate services) are organized around 3 themes

A

1) Culturally competent care
2) Access to language services
3) Organizational support for cultural competence

102
Q

Requires a spiritual history to be documented on every patient admitted to a hospital, nursing home, or home health agency

A

The Joint Commission (TJC)

103
Q

Improving cultural awareness and meeting Standard 1 of CLAS (Culturally and linguistically appropriate services) require nurses to take several steps:

A

1) Develop cultural competence through developing a sensitivity to differences between their own culture & that of the patient
2) Avoid stereotyping and assuming the meaning of the behavior of others
3) Develop a template that can be used for cultural and spiritual assessment of patients and their families

104
Q

Culturally competent involves

A

The mastering of 5 interrelated components: cultural desire, cultural awareness, cultural knowledge, cultural skill, & cultural encounters

105
Q

FICA

A

Faith, Importance, Community, Apply, Address

106
Q

IASP

A

International Association for the Study of Pain, they state that pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated w/actual or potential tissue damage.

107
Q

A decrease in perfussion interrupts oxygen supplied to the tissues and can lead to pain and impaired tissue integrity

A

.

108
Q

A persons’ pain perception and responses are affected by?

A

cognitive factors and cultural influences, including spiritual and ethnic beliefs

109
Q

What are considered cultural factors for pain?

A

The attention people give to their pain, their expectation/anticipation of pain, and their judgement/explanation of it

110
Q

A person’s _____ ______ may lead to different behavioral responses of pain.

A

Cognitive interpretation

111
Q

Cognitive patterns

A

Uniquely defined by one’s cultural and environmental background, are constantly changing as new and repeated perceptions of pain are experienced.

112
Q

To provide culturally acceptable pain management, nurses should?

A

Ask patients about their unique cultural, spiritual, and ethnic beliefs; values; and behaviors about pain and its management

113
Q

Types of pain include

A

Acute, persistent (chronic), nociceptive, and nuropathetic

114
Q

What does acute pain cause?

A

Results from tissue damage, usually self limiting, ends when the tissue heals. It is a stressor initiating a generalized stress response and may cause physiological signs associated w/pain such as an increase in blood pressure (BP), pulse rate, and respiration

115
Q

What does persistent (chronic) pain cause?

A

It does not cause physiological stress because people adapt to it but it can cause, irritability, depression, and insomnia

116
Q

Nociceptive pain

A

Arises from stimulation of somatic structures such as bone, joint, muscle, skin and connective tissue or from stimulation of visceral organs such as the gastrointestinal tract or pancreas

117
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Occurs from an abnormal processing of sensory input by the central or peripheral nervous system

118
Q

Referred pain

A

Pain felt in an area away from the area of tissue injury or disease. Often occurs when visceral pain is experienced because many abdominal organs do not have pain receptors.

119
Q

Phantom pain

A

Pain that a person feels in an amputated extremity after the residual limb has healed. Occurs in a person who experienced pain in that limb before the amputation.

120
Q

Set a standard for patients to have the right to appropriate assessment and management of pain

A

The Joint Commission (TJC)

121
Q

Standards for pain (TJC)

A

1) Initial assessment of pain and regular assessment therafter, taking into account the patients personal, cultural, spiritual, & ethnic beliefs
2) Education of all relevant health care personnel in pain assessment & management
3) Education of patients & families on their roles in managing pain & potential limitations and adverse effects of the Tx of pain.

122
Q

Expectations for nurses implementing pain standard include?

A

1) Assessing intensity of pain
2) location
3) quality
4) duration
5) alleviating and aggravating factors
6) determining effects of pain on patients life (daily functioning)
7) patients goal for pain relief

123
Q

Describe the pain process

A

Begins when nociceptors respond to stimuli causing tissue damage. Nociceptors are primary sensory nerves located in tendons, muscles, subcutaneous tissue, epidermis, dermis and skeletal muscles. Once nociceptors are stimulated they initiate the 2nd phase of the journey, which stimulates sensory peripheral nerves. These sensory nerve fibers carry pain impulses and include the large A-delta and the small C fibers. The A-delta fibers are associated w/sharp, pricking, acute, well localized pain of short duration. The C fibers associated w/dull, aching, throbbing, or burning sensation that is diffuse, has slow onset, relatively long duration.

  • When these fibers are stimulated by nociceptors they initiate an action potential that travels along peripheral nerves to dorsal horn of spinal cord.
  • located in dorsal horn is substantia gelatinosa (gate) which controls the stimulation of sensory tracts w/in spinal cord.
  • gate theory of pain: when gate is open, pain impulses enter spinal cord & ascend in the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus, resulting in perception of pain.
  • Third phase of journey: Thalamus receives impulses from spinothalamic tract & sends them to the parietal lobe in the cerebral cortex and on to the limbic system. When impulses reach the parietal lobe, pain is felt.
124
Q

Stimulation of the limbic system generates what?

A

The emotional response to the pain such as crying or anger

125
Q

The pain journey ends when?

A

The body produces substances to reduce the perception of pain.

126
Q

As sensory nerve fibers travel through the brainstem, they stimulate?

A

Descending nerves that inhibit nociceptor stimuli. These nerves travel down to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where they release substances such as endogenous opioids (endorphins & enkephalins) that inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli and produce analgesia.

127
Q

Pain threshold

A

The point at which a stimulus is perceived as pain

128
Q

Pain tolerance

A

The duration or intensity of pain that a person endures or tolerates before responding outwardly.
- Person’s culture, experience of pain, expectations, role behaviors, & physical & emotional health influence tolerance of pain.

129
Q

Pleuritic chest pain

A

Sharp pain when they take a deep breath

130
Q

During low-to-moderate acute pain intensity the sympathetic nervous system may cause?

A

Palpitations, diaphoresis (profuse sweating), or increasing respiratory rate

131
Q

During severe or deep pain the parasympathetic nervous system may cause?

A

Pallor; rapid, irregular breathing; nausea, vomiting

132
Q

NRS

A

Numeric Rating Scale

133
Q

CPG & AHCPR

A

The Clinical Practice Guidelines
&
The Agency for Health Care Policy and Research
state that pain should be reassessed 30 minutes after administering a parenteral analgesic and w/in 1 hour of oral analgesic drug administration

134
Q

FLACC Pain assessment tool

A
Facial expression
Leg movement
Activity
Cry
Consolability
135
Q

NVPS

A

adult Nonverbal Pain Scale was patterned after FLACC, but modified to reflect assessment of adults

136
Q

A patient complains of chest pain. Which question has the highest priority to obtain additional information?

A

What does the pain feel like?

137
Q

Nutrition has a close relationship with

A
elimination
hormonal regulation
immunity
tissue integrity
sensory perception
138
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is influenced by several factors

A
Activity levels
illness
injury
infection
ingestion of food
starvation
139
Q

Nutrients are classified into one of 3 groups

A

Macronutrients
Micronutrients
water

140
Q

Macronutrients

A

Carbohydrate, proteins, fats.

They are required in large amounts

141
Q

Carbohydrate

A

Main source of energy and fiber in the diet.

  • two main sources of carbs are plant based (fruits, vegies, and grains) and lactose (from milk)
  • small amounts stored in liver & muscle in the form of glycogen (to serve as energy reserves between meals)
  • moderate amounts must be ingested at regular intervals to meet energy demands
  • excess stored as adipose tissue
  • RDA (Recommended daily allowance) 130g/day children/adults, 175g/day pregnancy, 210g/day lactating women
  • should account for 55-60% total calories
  • many carb sources are high energy, nonnutrient dense (desserts, candy, etc.)
142
Q

Protiens

A

Plays an essential role in facilitating growth & repair of body tissues

  • can be source of energy
  • 20 diff. amino acids 10 are essential in diet because our bodies can’t make them they are called complete proteins (high biologic value proteins)
  • foods containing the highest quality proteins (complete proteins) come from animal sources (meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk)
  • foods that contain incomplete proteins come from cereals, legumes, some veggies.
  • extra used to supply energy or stored as fat
  • RDA adult 0.8g/kg body weight, 56g/day adult male, 46g/day adult female, 71g/day pregnant or lactating females
  • should account for 12-20% total kcal
143
Q

Fat

A

Main source of fatty acids, which are essential for normal growth and development.

  • Other functions include; synthesis and regulation of certain hormones, tissue structure, nerve impulse transmission, energy, insulation, protection of vital organs
  • Two essential fatty acids for metabolic processes; linoleic (omega 6) alpha-linolenic (omega 3) acids
  • Major form of stored energy in the body
  • limit saturated fatty acid intake to less than 7% of total calories & dietary cholesterol to less than 300 mg/day
144
Q

Micronutrients

A

Nutrients required in small quantities

  • two groups: vitamins and minerals, they are essential for growth, development, and metabolic processes that occur continuously throughout body
  • vitamins classified as water soluble (cannot be stored in body, ingested daily) and fat soluble (can be stored in body, toxicity can happen)
  • Deficiencies or toxicities result in nutritionally based diseases; usually late sign of depletion
  • Minerals: major minerals, trace minerals
  • major minerals: present in body in large amounts, required intake over 100mg/day
  • trace minerals present in body in smaller amounts; 10 essential and required intake of under 100mg/day
145
Q

Water

A

Comprises 60-70% total body weight

  • body required fluid for metabolic and cellular processes; cells depend on a well hydrated environment for optimal functioning.
  • water intake through ingestion of fluids/food
  • lost from body in various ways: urine, insensible fluid losses (lungs, skin, feces)
  • fluid loss continuously so fluid replacement in ongoing
  • average adult: 2.5-3L/day from foods/fluid
146
Q

Who is at a greater risk for malutrition

A

Those with GI disease

147
Q

Normal BMI range

A

18.5-24.9

148
Q

Serum Albumin

A

Measures circulating protein; levels can be affected by fluid status, blood loss, liver function, trauma, and surgery. Fluctuations in albumin levels occur over a 3-4 week period

149
Q

Hemoglobin (Hgb) and Hematocrit (Hct)

A

Provide info. regarding erythrocytes. Clinically useful to screen for anemia caused by dietary deficiency such as iron, folate, and vitamin B12.
-Hematocrit is also useful in evaluation of hydration

150
Q

Blood glucose

A

Reflects carbohydrate metabolism. A fasting glucose level is used to screen for the presence of diabetes mellitus or glucose intolerance

151
Q

BUN/Creatinine Ratio

A

Blood test is used as an indication of hydration

152
Q

Why does the nurse ask a patient which medications he takes as part of a nutritional assessment?

A

The absorption and bioavailability of some medications are affected by food

153
Q

A patient states that he has experienced “a lot” of unintentional weight loss over the past 4 months. Nurse measures his height/weight & determines his body mass index is 22.7 What is the most appropriate action to better evaluate his recent weight loss?

A

Ask what is your usual body weight

154
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient’s dietary intake to help the patient lose weight. What is the easiest way to assess the patient’s normal dietary intake?

  • Comparing established eating habits with Dietary Reference Intakes
  • Asking the nurse to fill out a food plan
  • Comparing the recommended dietary allowances to the USDA MyPlate
  • Asking the patient to do a 24-hour dietary recall
A

Asking the patient to do a 24-hour dietary recall

155
Q

The nurse is teaching adult male healthy eating guidelines. How many servings of dairy should the nurse recommend for this patient?

A

Between 2 and 3 servings is the recommended daily intake of dairy. 3 to 5 servings would be recommended for children and pregnant and lactating women. 5 to 6 servings of dairy is not a standard recommendation for any age category. 0 to 2 servings is not a standard recommendation for any age category.

156
Q

Motor development

A

Has 2 components: gross and fine

  • Gross motor behavior: refers to postural reactions such as head balance, sitting, creeping, standing, walking.
  • Fine motor behavior: use of hands and fingers in the prehensile approach to grasping and manipulating an object.
157
Q

Social adaptive behavior

A

Interactions of the infant or child w/other people & the ability to organize stimuli, perceive relationships between objects, dissect a whole into its component parts, reintegrate these parts in a meaningful fashion, & solve practical problems. Examples include smiling @ other people and learning to feed self

158
Q

Language behavior

A

Include visible & audible forms of communication, whether facial expression, gesture, postural movements, or vocalizations (words, phrases, sentences). Includes comprehension of communication by others

159
Q

Erik Erikson

A

Believed that the ego was the primary seat of personality functioning. Believed that society and culture influenced behavior. Believed people developed through a predetermined unfolding of their personalities. (rosebud unfolding)

160
Q

Each stage (8) of Erik Erikson involves

A

certain developmental tasks that are psychosocial in nature and described as polar opposites or conflicts.

  • example the first stage, during infancy the conflict is trust vs. mistrust
  • accomplishing each successive task provides foundation for healthy self identity. Each stage builds on previous stages & must be accomplished for person to successfully complete next stage
161
Q

8 stages of development according to erik erikson

A

1) infancy, trust vs mistrust, drive and hope
2) toddlerhood, autonomy vs shame/doubt, self-control & will power
3) preschool, initiative vs. guilt, direction & purpose
4) middle childhood (school age), industry vs, inferiority, method & competence
5) adolescence, identity vs role confusion, devotion & fidelity
6) young adult, intimacy vs isolation, affiliation & love
7) middle adult, generativity vs stagnation, production & care
8) older adult, ego integrity vs despair, renunciation & wisdom

162
Q

Jean Piaget

A

Stages of cognitive development from birth to approximately 15yrs.

  • Believed child’s main goal was to establish equilibrium between self & environment
  • believed that child’s view developed from simple reflex behavior to complex logical & abstract thought.
  • child needs a functioning neurologic system & sufficient environmental stimuli
  • has 4 sequential levels of cognitive development
163
Q

Piaget’s levels of cognitive development

A

1) Sensorimotor, 0-2, thought dominated by physical manipulation of objects/events
2) Preoperational, 2-7, function is symbolical, using language as major tool
3) Concrete operations, 7-11, mental reasoning processes assume logical approaches to solving concrete problems
4) formal operations, 11-15, true logical thought and manipulation of abstract concepts emerge

164
Q

2 types of adult intelligence

A

1) Fluid: ability to perceive complex situations & engage in short term memory, concept formation, reasoning, abstraction. Develops through CNS function & declines w/age & physiological change
2) Crystallized: associated w/skills & knowledge learned as a part of growing up in a given culture such as verbal comprehension, vocab, ability to evaluate life experiences. Develops through life experiences & education & remains stable or increases w/maturity.

165
Q

Which finding is expected when assessing an 11 yr old child?

A

Five-pound 2.3kg weight gain & beginning of growth spurt

166
Q

A nurse is assessing an infant who is able to pull up to a sitting position, turn from prone to side position, laugh & babble, & show interest in surroundings. These behaviors are consistent with?

A

3 month old

167
Q

The nurse is assessing a 5-month-old infant to determine if the infant is meeting typical milestones. Which observation should be considered an expected finding for a 5-month-old infant?
Stands while holding onto furniture
Sits alone
Head lags when pulled to sitting position
Rolls over independently

A

Rolls over independtly
A 5-month-old also can push up from a prone position and maintain weight on his or her forearms. Stands while holding onto furniture usually is not achieved until 10 months of age. Sits alone usually is not achieved until 7 months of age. Head lags when pulled to sitting position is a typical finding for a 1-month-old infant.