Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What does the immune system do?
A
Protects the body against disease
2
Q
What is immunology?
A
The study of all aspects of the immune system that protect the body from invading organisms
3
Q
What are commensal organisms?
A
Resident microorganisms that normally colonize healthy humans
Do not normally cause disease
4
Q
What is microbiota/microflora?
A
The microbial community that inhabits a particular site
5
Q
How are some commensal organisms beneficial to humans?
A
Metabolic functions
Protective functions
Immune system development
6
Q
What are 4 specific functions of commensal microorganisms?
A
Synthesize essential metabolites
Break down plant fibers in food
Prevent pathogens from benefiting from the resources of the human gut
Interact with epithelium to trigger development of secondary lymphoid tissue
7
Q
What can some commensals be labeled as?
A
Opportunistic pathogens
8
Q
What is a pathogen?
A
Any organism with the potential to cause disease
9
Q
When can opportunistic pathogens cause disease?
A
When an individual is immunocompromised or the body’s defenses are compromised or the microbe grows beyond its typical load or gains access to a site that it doesn’t normally colonize
10
Q
What happens when antibiotic treatments disrupt the natural ecology of the colon? (4)
A
The colon is colonized by large numbers of commensal bacteria
Antibiotics kill many of these commensal bacteria
Pathogenic bacteria produce toxins that cause mucosal injury
Red and white blood cells leak into gut between injured epithelial cells
11
Q
What are the 4 groups of pathogens?
A
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites
12
Q
What is gram positive bacteria?
A
Cell wall contains lipoteichoic acid, teichoic acid, and peptidoglycan
13
Q
What is gram negative bacteria?
A
Outer membrane contains lipopolysaccharide
14
Q
What can some bacteria have?
A
Capsule
15
Q
Is bacteria intracellular or extracellular?
A
Can be both
16
Q
What is the genetic material in viruses surrounded by?
A
Outer capsid proteins with or without a lipoprotein bilayer envelope
17
Q
How do viruses replicate?
A
Intracellularly, but they have an extracellular phase
18
Q
Where can fungi be found?
A
Ubiquitous in the environment
19
Q
How many fungi can cause severe infection? In whom?
A
A limited number
In the immunocompromised
20
Q
What type of organisms are fungi?
A
Eukaryotic
21
Q
What does the cell wall of fungi contain?
A
β-glucans, chitin, and mannan’s added to fungal proteins
22
Q
What kind of infections does fungi cause?
A
Extracellular and intracellular
23
Q
What type of organisms are protozoan parasites?
A
Single-celled eukaryotes
24
Q
What is an example of protozoan parasites?
A
Plasmodium, which causes malaria
25
What stage(s) do protozoan parasites have?
Intracellular and extracellular
26
What kind of organisms are helminths (worms)?
Large, multicellular eukaryotes
27
What stage(s) do helminths have?
Extracellular
28
Where can the site of infection be for extracellular pathogens? (4)
Interstitial spaces, blood, lymph, and epithelial surfaces
29
What organisms have a site of infection that is interstitial spaces, blood, or lymph? (5)
```
Viruses
Bacteria
Protozoa
Fungi
Worms
```
30
What kind of protective immunity is there in the interstitial spaces, blood, or lymph?
Complement
Phagocytosis
Antibodies
31
What kind of protective immunity is there in the epithelial surfaces?
Antimicrobial peptides
| Antibodies, especially IgA
32
Where can the site of infection be for intracellular pathogens?
Cytoplasmic
| Veisular
33
What organism has a site of infection that is cytoplasmic?
Viruses
34
What kind of protective immunity is there in the cytoplasm?
NK cells
| Cytotoxic T cells
35
What kind of protective immunity is there in the vesicles?
T-celland NK-cell dependent macrophage activation
36
What is an antigen?
A structure recognized by the immune system
37
What makes up RNA viruses?
RNA
38
What makes up DNA viruses?
DNA
39
What makes up gram positive bacteria?
Lipoproteins
Lipoteichoic acid
DNA
40
What makes up gram negative bacteria?
Lipopolysaccharide
DNA
Flagellin
41
What makes up fungi?
Zymosan β-Glycan
| DNA
42
What makes up protists?
DNA
| GPI anchors
43
What are examples of conserved, non-specific antigens recognized by the innate immune system?
```
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
RNA viruses
DNA viruses
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Fungi
Protists
```
44
What are 4 differences between the innate and adaptive immune responses?
Speed
Specificity
Strength of response
Memory response
45
What is the speed of an innate response like?
Fast acting, immediate, within hours
46
What is the speed of an adaptive response like?
Takes time to develop, at least 5 days for an initial response
47
What is the specificity of an innate response like?
Non-specific
Detects evolutionary conserved structures (PAMPs)
Fixed number of receptor specificities
48
What is the specificity of an adaptive response like?
Highly specific for a particular microbe
| Infinite number receptor specificities
49
What is the strength of an innate response like?
Constant
50
What is the strength of an adaptive response like?
Gets stronger during the course of infection
51
What is the memory of an innate response like?
No memory response
52
What is the memory of an adaptive response like?
Memory response are faster, stronger, and more effective than primary responses
53
What does the innate immune system response do?
Effectively clears the majority of early infections before symptoms develop
54
What happens if innate immunity is lacking?
Uncontrolled infection occurs because the adaptive immune response cannot be deployed without the preceding innate response
55
What happens if the innate response cannot clear the infection?
It holds it i check until the stronger adaptive immune response develops
56
What is the innate response also necessary for?
Activation of the adaptive response
57
What happens if the adaptive immune response is lacking?
The infection is initially contained by the innate system but cannot be cleared from the body
58
What is hematopoiesis?
Development of blood cells
59
What do all blood cells arise from?
The hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) in the bone marrow
60
What do HSCs differentiate to?
Myeloid and lymphoid precursors
61
What blood cells are of lymphoid lineage? (3)
T cells --- effector T cell
B cells --- plasma cell
Natural killer cells
62
What blood cells are of myeloid precursors? (10)
```
Monocyte
Macrophage
Dendritic cell
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Mast cell
Megakaryocyte
Platelets
Erythrocyte
```
63
What do RBCs (erythrocytes) do?
Carry oxygen around the body
64
What do platelets do?
Clot blood after damage to blood vessels
65
What is another type of blood cell? What are the also called?
White blood cells (cells of the immune system)
| Leukocytes
66
When does the bone marrow start being the location of hematopoiesis?
Birth
67
What are the locations of hematopoiesis before birth?
Yolk sac
| Fetal liver and spleen
68
What does a megakaryocyte do?
Platelet formation and wound repair
69
What is the mast cell important in?
Defense against parasites
70
What is the mast cell responsible for?
Type I allergic reactions
71
Where does the mast cell reside?
Tissues
72
What is the eosinophil involved in?
Defense against parasites
73
What do eosinophils contribute to?
Type I allergic reactions
74
What are basophils?
Rare immune cells
75
What is the basophil involved in?
Defense against parasites
76
What do basophils contribute to?
Type I allergic reactions
77
What are neutrophils specialized for?
The phagocytosis and killing of microbes
78
What is the most abundant leukocyte in the blood?
Neutrophils
79
What are monocytes?
Blood precursors
80
What do monocytes differentiate to?
Macrophages upon leaving blood and entering tissues
81
What do macrophages circulate in?
Tissues and detect invading microbes
82
What do macrophages do?
Phagocytosis of microbes and general debris
83
What do macrophages orchestrate?
An inflammatory immune response
84
What is a conventional dendritic cell?
A professional antigen presenting cell
85
What do conventional dendritic cells do?
Picks up antigens in tissues and moves to secondary lymphoid tissues to activate T cells and initiate adaptive immune responses
86
What do plasmacytoid dendritic cells do?
Secrete large amounts of type I interferons
87
What do type I interferons do?
Activate antiviral responses
88
What do natural killer cells do?
Kill host cells infected with intracellular pathogen as well as some tumor cells
89
What are small lymphocytes?
Cells of the adaptive immune response
90
What do B cells differentiate to?
Plasma cells that secrete antibodies
91
What are T cells involved in?
Almost all aspects of adaptive immunity
92
What are plasma cells?
Terminally differentiated B cells that secrete antibody
93
What is found in the highest numbers in tissue rather than blood? (3)
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Mast cells
94
What is lymph?
Blood plasma that forms the extracellular fluid
95
What are lymphatics?
Vessels that drain lymph and return it to circulation
96
What are the primary/central lymphoid tissues?
Bone marrow and thymus
97
What are primary/central lymphoid tissues the site of?
B cell and T cell development
98
What are the secondary/peripheral lymphoid tissues? (6)
```
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Peyer's patches
Tonsils
Adenoids
Appendix
```
99
What is special about the spleen?
It has no direct connections with the lymphatics
100
What are the secondary/peripheral lymphoid tissues the site of?
B cell and T cell activation
101
If B cells and T cells are not activated, what happens?
They return to the blood via the efferent lymphatics and continue to recirculate
102
What are 2 broad categories of innate defenses?
Surface barriers
| Internal defences
103
What are examples of surface barriers?
Skin
| Mucous membranes
104
What are examples of internal defenses? (5)
```
Phagocytes
Fever
NK cells
Antimicrobial proteins
Inflammation
```
105
What are 2 broad categories of adaptive defenses?
Humoral immunity
| Cellular immunity
106
What is an example of humoral immunity?
B cells
107
What is an example of cellular immunity?
T cells
108
What are the 4 stages of an immune response?
Adherence to epithelium
Local infection penetration of epithelium
Local infection of tissues
Adaptive immunity
109
During adherence to epithelium, what protection is used against infection? (3)
Epithelial surfaces
Antimicrobial molecules
Commensal microbes
110
During local infection penetration of epithelium, what protection is used against defense? (2)
Macrophages detect pathogen and initiate an immune response
| Activation of complement
111
During local infection of tissues, what protection is used against defense? (3)
Innate immune response:
Inflammation
Recruitment of neutrophils, NK cells
Fever
112
During adaptive immunity, what protection is used against defense? (1)
Adaptive immune response:
| Activation of B and T cells
113
What are microbes detected by?
Macrophages
| Dendritic cells
114
What do dendritic cells do?
Traffic to secondary lymphoid tissues
115
What is the first line of defense?
Skin and mucosal barriers
116
What does the skin cover?
The outside of the body
117
What do mucosal surfaces line?
The bodies internal tubes
118
What is special about the mucosal surfaces?
More delicate than skin and must be permeable due to their function
119
Where do most pathogens enter the body?
Through mucosal surfaces
120
What are the 4 mechanisms of defense at epithelial surfaces?
Physical
Mechanical
Chemical
Microbiological
121
What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the skin, gut, lungs, and eyes/nose/oral cavity?
Epithelial cells joined by tight junctions
122
What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the skin and gut?
Longitudinal flow of air or fluid
123
What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the lungs?
Movement of mucus by cilia
124
What are mechanical mechanisms of defense for the eyes/nose/oral cavity?
Tears
| Nasal cilia
125
What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the skin?
Fatty acids
| Antimicrobial peptides
126
What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the gut?
Low pH
Antimicrobial enzymes
Antimicrobial peptides
127
What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the lungs?
Movement of mucus by cilia
Pulmonary surfactant
Antimicrobial peptides
128
What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the eyes/nose/oral cavity?
Antimicrobial enzymes in tears and saliva
| Antimicrobial peptides
129
What is a microbiological mechanism of defense for the skin, gut, lungs, and eyes/nose/oral cavity?
Normal microbiota
130
What do all epithelial surfaces produce?
Chemical antimicrobial molecules
131
What do commensal microbiota do?
Inhibit colonization by pathogens because pathogens have to compete for nutrients and attachment sites
132
What are 2 examples of antimicrobial proteins?
Defensins
| Lysozyme
133
What are defensins?
Amphipathic antimicrobial peptides
134
What are defensins secreted by?
Epithelial calls and phagocytic cells
135
Are defensins cationic or anionic?
Cationic
136
What do defensins do?
Disrupt pathogen membranes by forming a pore
137
What are lysozymes secreted in?
Tears and saliva
138
What are lysozymes secreted by?
Phagocytes
139
What do lysozyme do?
Breaks down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
140
What have commensal microbes developed?
Mechanisms of resistance to host antimicrobial peptides
141
What do pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs) do?
Recognize PAMPs
142
What are PAMPs?
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
| Antigens that are highly conserved in groups of pathogens
143
What are examples of highly conserved molecules recognized by PRRs?
Bacterial LPS and LTA
Fungal β-glucans
Bacterial and viral DNA
144
What are DAMPs?
Danger associated molecular patterns
| Antigens produced by damaged cells that signal stress
145
What do PRRs promote?
Phagocytosis
| Signaling
146
What are tissue macrophages?
The first leukocyte to detect pathogens in the tissues
147
What does the binding of PAMPs to PRRs do?
Promote phagocytosis
| Induce production of inflammation cytokines to initiate an immune response against bacterial and fungal pathogens
148
What is phagocytosis?
Endocytosis of pathogen into phagosome/endosome vesicle
149
When the phagosome fuses with a lysosome, what forms?
Phagolysosome
150
What happens to the pathogen in phagocytosis?
Pathogen is destroyed by degradative enzymes and antimicrobial substances
151
What are the 4 steps to phagocytosis?
1. Macrophage receptors recognize components of microbial surfaces
2. Microorganisms are bound by phagocytic receptors on the macrophage surface
3. Microorganisms are internalized by receptor-mediated endocytosis
4. Fusion of endosome with a lysosome forms
152
What is opsonization?
The coating a particle by any molecule that promotes phagocytosis of the coated particle
153
What do phagocytic cells have for the molecule that coats the particle in opsonization?
Phagocytic receptors
154
What do some antibodies and complement act as?
Opsonins
155
What are cytokines?
Proteins released by cells that affect the behavior of other cells
156
What is a group of cytokines?
Interleukins
157
What are interferons?
Generally antiviral cytokines
158
What are chemokines?
Cytokines that induce chemotaxis
159
What do pro-inflammatory cytokines do? What are some examples? (5)
Stimulate the immune system/inflammation
| INF-γ, TNF-α, IL-2, IL-6, IL-12
160
What do anti-inflammatory cytokines do? What are some examples? (4)
Suppress the immune system/inflammation
| IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, TGF-β
161
What are examples of signaling receptors? (4)
Toll-like receptors
NOD-like receptors
RIG-I-like receptors
DNA sensors
162
Where are toll-like receptors located?
On the cell surface and in endosomes
163
Where are NOD-like receptors located?
Cytoplasm
164
Where are RID-I-like receptors located?
Cytoplasm
165
Where are DNA sensors located?
Cytoplasm
166
What does the activation of toll-like receptors result in?
Results in the production of cytokines
167
What are TLRs present on?
Various different leukocytes and epithelial cells
168
What are NOD-like receptors?
Sensors of intracellular bacteria and viruses
169
What do RIG-I-like receptors do?
Detect viral DNA
170
What do DNA sensors do?
Detect bacterial and viral DNA
171
What does the binding of PAMPs to signaling receptors result in?
Expression of inflammatory cytokines
172
What does the combination of cytokines produced depend on?
The PRRs that were activated
173
What are 2 things that cytokines do?
Activate other mechanisms of innate immunity
| Shape the nature of the adaptive immune response
174
When there is an infection, how are neutrophils released?
From the bone marrow in greater numbers
175
Are neutrophils normally in tissues? When are they there?
No
| During infection
176
What do neutrophils function as?
Phagocytes
177
What do neutrophils contain?
Performed granules with various antimicrobial substances
178
What does the phagosome fuse with prior to the lysosome?
Granules
179
What do neutrophils form upon death?
Pus
180
What kind of bacteria can neutrophils bind with?
Pyogenic bacteria
181
What is pyogenic bacteria?
Pus forming bacteria
182
What do neutrophils do upon death? (2)
Undergo apoptosis, then removed by macrophages
| Die by netosis
183
What does netosis produce?
Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)
184
What are NETs composed of?
A network of chromatin, bacterial peptides, and proteases
185
What do NETs do?
Trap and kill microbes
186
What do inflammatory cytokines act on?
The hypothalamus
187
What do inflammatory cytokines?
Increase metabolism of fat and muscle to allow increased body temperature
188
What do inflammatory cytokines promote?
Decreased pathogen replication
189
What class of proteins does serum amyloid protein belong to?
Pentraxins
190
What do serum amyloid proteins do?
Enhance opsonization
191
What do acute phase proteins do?
Change concentration by more than 25% during infection
192
What does the detection of viral PAMPs result in?
Activation of type I interferons
193
What can type I interferons be produced by?
Almost all virally infected cells
194
What do antiviral innate immune responses generated by interferons activate?
Expression of genes that inhibit viral replication in infected cells
Upregulate certain cell surface molecules to indicate infection
Activate natural killer cells
195
What are natural killer cells activated by?
Type I interferons and macrophage cytokines
196
What do NK cells recognize?
Changes in the expression of cell surface molecules in cells that are infected with a virus
197
What is the killing function of NK cells regulated by?
A balance of signals from inhibitory and activating receptors
198
Why do inhibitory signals dominate no lysis cells?
So the cell is not destroyed
199
Why do activating signals dominate lysis cells?
So the cell is destroyed
200
What do NK cells form a synapse with?
Infected cells
201
What do NK cells release through the direct synapse? What does it do?
Contents of granules
| Kills one cell at a time
202
How many people does inherited neutropenia (phagocyte defect) affect?
About 1 in 200,000
203
What does inherited neutropenia lead to?
Neutrophil deficiency
204
What does inherited neutropenia result in?
Susceptibility to infections with extracellular bacteria
205
What are treatments for inherited neutropenia? (2)
Regular infusions of antibody and a cytokine that stimulates neutrophil production
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
206
How many people does leukocyte adhesion deficiency (phagocyte defect) affect?
About 1 in 1,000,000
207
What is leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
Deficiency in adhesion molecules necessary for phagocytes to leave the blood and enter tissues
208
What does leukocyte adhesion deficiency result in?
Widespread infection with extracellular bacteria
209
What is a treatment for leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
210
How many people does chronic granulomatous disease (phagocyte defect) affect?
About 1 in 250,000
211
What does chronic granulomatous disease result in?
Bacterial and fungal infections
| Early death due to chronic lung infections
212
What is a treatment for chronic granulomatous disease?
Antibiotics to prevent and treat infections
213
Do NK cell defects occur?
They are very rare
214
What do NK cell defects increase the susceptibility to? (2)
Herpesvirus
| Human papillomaviruses
215
What are complement proteins made by?
Liver
216
Where do complement proteins circulate?
Plasma
Lymph
Extracellular fluid
217
What kind of enzyme are complement proteins?
Proteases
218
What are complement proteins made as?
Zymogens
219
What are zymogens?
An inactive form of the protease
220
How are complement proteins named?
C1, C2, C3, etc.
221
What are 3 functions of the complement system?
C3b fixations tags a pathogen for opsonization
Membrane attack complex forms a pore in the pathogen membrane
Production of the pro-inflammatory cytokines C3a and C5a
222
What are the 3 pathways of the complement system?
Alternative pathway
Lectin pathway
Classical pathway
223
What happens in the alternative pathway?
Pathogen surface creates local environment conducive to complement activation
224
What happens in the lectin pathway?
Mannose-binding lectin binds to pathogen surface
225
What happens in the classical pathway?
C-reactive protein or antibody binds to specific antigen on pathogen surface
226
What is the next step in the complement system after one of the 3 complement pathways?
Cleavage of C3 to C3a and C3b
227
After the cleavage of C3, what happens in the complement system? (3)
Recruitment of inflammatory cells
Opsonization of pathogens, facilitating uptake and killing by phagocytes
Perforation of pathogen cell membranes
228
What happens at the end of the complement system?
Death of pathogen
229
How is C3 produced?
Constitutively
230
What do cytokines do to C3?
Upregulate it
231
After C3 is cleaved, what happens to C3b?
Becomes attached to the pathogen surface
232
What does C3b function as?
Opsonin
233
What does the cleavage of C3 of?
Exposes a thioester bond
234
What is the thioester bond susceptible to?
Nucleophilic attack
235
What is the thioester bond attacked by?
H2O
| Pathogen surface
236
What does H2O result in during C3b fixation?
Results in inactive C3b (iC3b)
237
What does the pathogen surface result in during C3b fixation?
Complement fixation
238
What is the first pathway activated?
Alterative pathway
239
What is iC3b?
Soluble convertase
240
What is C3a?
Inflammatory cytokine
241
What does factor B also bind?
Fixed C3b
242
After factor B binds fixed C3b, what does factor D do?
Celaves factor B to form Ba and C3bBb
243
What is C3bBb? What does it do?
Alternative C3 convertase
| Amplifies complement fixation
244
What is the lectin pathway initiated by?
Mannose binding lectin
245
What are lectins?
Carbohydrate binding proteins
246
What does mannose binding lectin function as?
An opsonin
247
What does mannose binding lectin activate?
The complement system
248
What is the classical pathway initiated by?
C-reactive protein
249
What does C-reactive protein bind to?
Phosphocholine
250
What does C-reactive protein function as?
An opsonin
251
What does C-reactive protein activate?
The complement system via C1
252
What do activated MASP-2 or C1s do?
Cleave C4 to C4a and C4b
| Cleave C2 to C2a and C2b
253
What is C4a?
A weak inflammatory mediator
254
What is the order of inflammatory mediators from strongest to weakest?
C5a, C3a, C4a
255
What does C4b do?
Binds to C2a to form the classical C3 convertase to cleave C3 to C3a and C3b
256
What do phagocytes have?
Complement receptor 1
257
What do phagocytes do on the pathogen surface?
Bind to C3b, which facilitates phagocytosis
258
What do complement control proteins do?
Control the site and amount of complement deposition
259
What disrupts the alternative C3 convertase on human cell surfaces? What does that do?
DAF, MCP, factor H, and CR1
| Inhibit complement fixation
260
What happens in the membrane attack complex?
C3b binds to the alternative C3 convertase to form C5 convertase which cleave C5 into C5a and C5b
261
What does C5b initiate?
Formation of the membrane attack complex, which forms a pore in microbial cell membranes
262
What does the membrane attack complex do?
Disrupts microbial cell membranes
263
What do C3a and C5a induce?
An inflammatory response
264
What is the most common symptom for defective complement proteins?
Increased susceptibility to Neisseria meningitidis
265
What is a less common symptom for defective complement proteins?
Susceptibility to Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilius influenzae
266
What are defective complement proteins strongly associated with?
Increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus
267
Where is adaptive immunity initiated?
Secondary lymphoid tissues
268
How are antigens transported in adaptive immunity?
From the site of infection to secondary lymph tissues
269
What is activated in secondary lymphoid tissues?
B cells and T cells
270
What do lymphoid follicles contain?
B cells
271
What do primary lymphoid follicles contain?
Naive (unactivated) B cells
272
What do secondary lymphoid follicles contain?
A germinal center
273
What does the germinal center contain?
Activated B cells undergoing proliferation
274
What do T cell areas contain?
T cells
275
What do sinuses contain?
Lymph and macrophages that filter lymph
276
What is the spleen composed of?
Red pulp
| White pulp
277
What does red pulp do?
Removes finished red blood cells
278
What is white pulp?
Secondary lymphoid tissue
279
What is the structure of white pulp similar to?
Lymph nodes with B cell and T cell areas
280
What does the marginal zone of white pulp do?
Screen the blood for antigens
281
What does the spleen receive?
Bloodborne pathogens
282
What do antibodies bind to?
Foreign antigens
283
What are antibodies?
Secreted form of the B cell receptor
284
What are 4 functions of antibodies?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Activation of the classical complement pathway
Antibody dependent cell mediated toxicity
285
What does neutralization do?
Prevents pathogen attachment to host cell surfaces
286
What do opsonization do?
Enhances phagocytosis
287
What does antibody dependent cell mediated toxicity do?
Tags infected cells for destruction by NK cells
288
What does immunoglobulin refer to?
B cell receptor and secreted antibody
289
What is the structure of immunoglobulins?
2 light chains, 2 heavy chains, variable region, and constant region
290
What do the variable regions of immunoglobulins contain?
The antigen binding site
291
What do the constant regions of immunoglobulins determine?
Antibody function
292
What are the functional classes of constant regions called? How many?
Antibody isotypes
| 5
293
What is the antibody stem?
Heavy chain constant region
294
What is the antibody stem often referred to as?
The Fc region
295
What does the antibody stem bind to?
Fc receptors on immune cells
296
Describe the chain composition of immunoglobulin domains. (3)
All change have 1 variable domain
Light chains have 1 constant domain
Heavy chains have 3-4 constant domains
297
What are the 5 antibody isotypes?
```
γ (G)
μ (M)
δ (D)
α (A)
ε (E)
```
298
How many different light chains are there? What are they called?
2
| Kappa and lambda
299
In humans, how many antibodies have a kappa light chain?
About 2/3
300
Do the different antibody isotypes have the same or different functions?
Different
301
What are the different functions of immunoglobulins? (6)
```
Neutralization
Opsonization
Sensitization for killing by NK cells
Sensitization of mast cells
Sensitization of basophils
Activation of complement system
```
302
What is each antigen binding site formed from?
6 hypervariable regions
303
Where are the 6 hyper variable regions?
3 each on light and heavy chains
304
What are antigen binding sites surrounded by?
Less variable framework designs
305
What is an antigen?
A molecule recognized by the immune system
306
What does the molecule (antigen) contain?
A structure recognized by a receptor
307
What is an epitope?
Specific part of an antigen to which an antibody binds
308
What do immunoglobulins bind to?
Surface epitopes
309
What can epitopes of protein antigens can be divided into? (2)
Linear epitope
| Discontinuous epitope
310
What is a linear epitope?
Continuous segment of a polypeptide chain
311
What is a discontinuous epitope?
Amino acids brought together in a folded structure
312
What are polyclonal antibodies?
Collection of different antibodies that recognize the same structure but different epitopes
313
What are polyclonal antibodies produced from?
Different B cell lineages
314
When are polyclonal antibodies produced?
During an immune response
315
How many epitopes do monoclonal antibodies recognize?
1
316
What are monoclonal antibodies produced from?
One B-cell lineage
317
How is antivenom for humans developed? (4)
1. Venom extracted
2. Animal injected
3. Animal produces polyclonal antibodies against venom
4. Antivenom give to humans
318
Why does the hybridoma cell provide an infinite supply of the antibody?
It is immortal
319
What are the 4 types of therapeutic monoclonal antibody?
Mouse
Chimeric
Humanized
Human
320
What do chimeric antibodies contain?
Mouse V regions and human C regions
321
What are humanized antibodies?
When mouse HVR sequences replace human HVR sequences
322
What are human antibodies?
When mouse immunoglobulin genes are replaced with human immunoglobulin genes
323
How are human antibodies produced from mice?
Genes encoding human B-cell receptor/antibody genes replace the corresponding mouse genes and human antibodies will be produced by the genetically modified mice
324
What is the treatment of chimeric monoclonal antibody against B cells, Rituximab, used to treat?
Lymphomas
| Leukemia
325
What is the treatment of humanized monoclonal antibody against IgE, Omalizumab, used to treat?
Allergies unresponsive to corticosteroids
326
What is the treatment of monoclonal antibody against TNF-α, Adalimamab, used for?
Anti-inflammatory drug
327
What does the 1st antibody do when using monoclonal antibodies?
Binds to the target protein
328
What does the 2nd antibody do when using monoclonal antibodies?
Binds to the first antibody
329
What does the 2nd antibody when using monoclonal antibodies contain?
An enzyme that catalyzes a color-producing reaction
| Fluorescent molecule
330
What diagnostic test can be used with monoclonal antibodies?
Pregnancy test
