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Immunology-Spring 2017 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the immune system do?

A

Protects the body against disease

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2
Q

What is immunology?

A

The study of all aspects of the immune system that protect the body from invading organisms

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3
Q

What are commensal organisms?

A

Resident microorganisms that normally colonize healthy humans
Do not normally cause disease

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4
Q

What is microbiota/microflora?

A

The microbial community that inhabits a particular site

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5
Q

How are some commensal organisms beneficial to humans?

A

Metabolic functions
Protective functions
Immune system development

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6
Q

What are 4 specific functions of commensal microorganisms?

A

Synthesize essential metabolites
Break down plant fibers in food
Prevent pathogens from benefiting from the resources of the human gut
Interact with epithelium to trigger development of secondary lymphoid tissue

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7
Q

What can some commensals be labeled as?

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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8
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

Any organism with the potential to cause disease

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9
Q

When can opportunistic pathogens cause disease?

A

When an individual is immunocompromised or the body’s defenses are compromised or the microbe grows beyond its typical load or gains access to a site that it doesn’t normally colonize

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10
Q

What happens when antibiotic treatments disrupt the natural ecology of the colon? (4)

A

The colon is colonized by large numbers of commensal bacteria
Antibiotics kill many of these commensal bacteria
Pathogenic bacteria produce toxins that cause mucosal injury
Red and white blood cells leak into gut between injured epithelial cells

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11
Q

What are the 4 groups of pathogens?

A

Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites

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12
Q

What is gram positive bacteria?

A

Cell wall contains lipoteichoic acid, teichoic acid, and peptidoglycan

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13
Q

What is gram negative bacteria?

A

Outer membrane contains lipopolysaccharide

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14
Q

What can some bacteria have?

A

Capsule

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15
Q

Is bacteria intracellular or extracellular?

A

Can be both

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16
Q

What is the genetic material in viruses surrounded by?

A

Outer capsid proteins with or without a lipoprotein bilayer envelope

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17
Q

How do viruses replicate?

A

Intracellularly, but they have an extracellular phase

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18
Q

Where can fungi be found?

A

Ubiquitous in the environment

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19
Q

How many fungi can cause severe infection? In whom?

A

A limited number

In the immunocompromised

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20
Q

What type of organisms are fungi?

A

Eukaryotic

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21
Q

What does the cell wall of fungi contain?

A

β-glucans, chitin, and mannan’s added to fungal proteins

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22
Q

What kind of infections does fungi cause?

A

Extracellular and intracellular

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23
Q

What type of organisms are protozoan parasites?

A

Single-celled eukaryotes

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24
Q

What is an example of protozoan parasites?

A

Plasmodium, which causes malaria

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25
Q

What stage(s) do protozoan parasites have?

A

Intracellular and extracellular

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26
Q

What kind of organisms are helminths (worms)?

A

Large, multicellular eukaryotes

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27
Q

What stage(s) do helminths have?

A

Extracellular

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28
Q

Where can the site of infection be for extracellular pathogens? (4)

A

Interstitial spaces, blood, lymph, and epithelial surfaces

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29
Q

What organisms have a site of infection that is interstitial spaces, blood, or lymph? (5)

A 
Viruses
Bacteria
Protozoa
Fungi
Worms
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30
Q

What kind of protective immunity is there in the interstitial spaces, blood, or lymph?

A

Complement
Phagocytosis
Antibodies

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31
Q

What kind of protective immunity is there in the epithelial surfaces?

A

Antimicrobial peptides

Antibodies, especially IgA

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32
Q

Where can the site of infection be for intracellular pathogens?

A

Cytoplasmic

Veisular

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33
Q

What organism has a site of infection that is cytoplasmic?

A

Viruses

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34
Q

What kind of protective immunity is there in the cytoplasm?

A

NK cells

Cytotoxic T cells

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35
Q

What kind of protective immunity is there in the vesicles?

A

T-celland NK-cell dependent macrophage activation

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36
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A structure recognized by the immune system

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37
Q

What makes up RNA viruses?

A

RNA

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38
Q

What makes up DNA viruses?

A

DNA

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39
Q

What makes up gram positive bacteria?

A

Lipoproteins
Lipoteichoic acid
DNA

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40
Q

What makes up gram negative bacteria?

A

Lipopolysaccharide
DNA
Flagellin

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41
Q

What makes up fungi?

A

Zymosan β-Glycan

DNA

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42
Q

What makes up protists?

A

DNA

GPI anchors

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43
Q

What are examples of conserved, non-specific antigens recognized by the innate immune system?

A 
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
RNA viruses
DNA viruses
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Fungi
Protists
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44
Q

What are 4 differences between the innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

Speed
Specificity
Strength of response
Memory response

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45
Q

What is the speed of an innate response like?

A

Fast acting, immediate, within hours

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46
Q

What is the speed of an adaptive response like?

A

Takes time to develop, at least 5 days for an initial response

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47
Q

What is the specificity of an innate response like?

A

Non-specific
Detects evolutionary conserved structures (PAMPs)
Fixed number of receptor specificities

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48
Q

What is the specificity of an adaptive response like?

A

Highly specific for a particular microbe

Infinite number receptor specificities

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49
Q

What is the strength of an innate response like?

A

Constant

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50
Q

What is the strength of an adaptive response like?

A

Gets stronger during the course of infection

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51
Q

What is the memory of an innate response like?

A

No memory response

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52
Q

What is the memory of an adaptive response like?

A

Memory response are faster, stronger, and more effective than primary responses

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53
Q

What does the innate immune system response do?

A

Effectively clears the majority of early infections before symptoms develop

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54
Q

What happens if innate immunity is lacking?

A

Uncontrolled infection occurs because the adaptive immune response cannot be deployed without the preceding innate response

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55
Q

What happens if the innate response cannot clear the infection?

A

It holds it i check until the stronger adaptive immune response develops

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56
Q

What is the innate response also necessary for?

A

Activation of the adaptive response

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57
Q

What happens if the adaptive immune response is lacking?

A

The infection is initially contained by the innate system but cannot be cleared from the body

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58
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Development of blood cells

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59
Q

What do all blood cells arise from?

A

The hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) in the bone marrow

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60
Q

What do HSCs differentiate to?

A

Myeloid and lymphoid precursors

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61
Q

What blood cells are of lymphoid lineage? (3)

A

T cells — effector T cell
B cells — plasma cell
Natural killer cells

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62
Q

What blood cells are of myeloid precursors? (10)

A 
Monocyte
Macrophage
Dendritic cell
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Mast cell
Megakaryocyte
Platelets
Erythrocyte
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63
Q

What do RBCs (erythrocytes) do?

A

Carry oxygen around the body

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64
Q

What do platelets do?

A

Clot blood after damage to blood vessels

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65
Q

What is another type of blood cell? What are the also called?

A

White blood cells (cells of the immune system)

Leukocytes

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66
Q

When does the bone marrow start being the location of hematopoiesis?

A

Birth

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67
Q

What are the locations of hematopoiesis before birth?

A

Yolk sac

Fetal liver and spleen

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68
Q

What does a megakaryocyte do?

A

Platelet formation and wound repair

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69
Q

What is the mast cell important in?

A

Defense against parasites

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70
Q

What is the mast cell responsible for?

A

Type I allergic reactions

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71
Q

Where does the mast cell reside?

A

Tissues

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72
Q

What is the eosinophil involved in?

A

Defense against parasites

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73
Q

What do eosinophils contribute to?

A

Type I allergic reactions

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74
Q

What are basophils?

A

Rare immune cells

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75
Q

What is the basophil involved in?

A

Defense against parasites

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76
Q

What do basophils contribute to?

A

Type I allergic reactions

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77
Q

What are neutrophils specialized for?

A

The phagocytosis and killing of microbes

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78
Q

What is the most abundant leukocyte in the blood?

A

Neutrophils

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79
Q

What are monocytes?

A

Blood precursors

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80
Q

What do monocytes differentiate to?

A

Macrophages upon leaving blood and entering tissues

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81
Q

What do macrophages circulate in?

A

Tissues and detect invading microbes

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82
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

Phagocytosis of microbes and general debris

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83
Q

What do macrophages orchestrate?

A

An inflammatory immune response

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84
Q

What is a conventional dendritic cell?

A

A professional antigen presenting cell

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85
Q

What do conventional dendritic cells do?

A

Picks up antigens in tissues and moves to secondary lymphoid tissues to activate T cells and initiate adaptive immune responses

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86
Q

What do plasmacytoid dendritic cells do?

A

Secrete large amounts of type I interferons

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87
Q

What do type I interferons do?

A

Activate antiviral responses

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88
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

Kill host cells infected with intracellular pathogen as well as some tumor cells

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89
Q

What are small lymphocytes?

A

Cells of the adaptive immune response

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90
Q

What do B cells differentiate to?

A

Plasma cells that secrete antibodies

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91
Q

What are T cells involved in?

A

Almost all aspects of adaptive immunity

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92
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Terminally differentiated B cells that secrete antibody

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93
Q

What is found in the highest numbers in tissue rather than blood? (3)

A

Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Mast cells

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94
Q

What is lymph?

A

Blood plasma that forms the extracellular fluid

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95
Q

What are lymphatics?

A

Vessels that drain lymph and return it to circulation

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96
Q

What are the primary/central lymphoid tissues?

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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97
Q

What are primary/central lymphoid tissues the site of?

A

B cell and T cell development

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98
Q

What are the secondary/peripheral lymphoid tissues? (6)

A 
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Peyer's patches 
Tonsils
Adenoids 
Appendix
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99
Q

What is special about the spleen?

A

It has no direct connections with the lymphatics

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100
Q

What are the secondary/peripheral lymphoid tissues the site of?

A

B cell and T cell activation

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101
Q

If B cells and T cells are not activated, what happens?

A

They return to the blood via the efferent lymphatics and continue to recirculate

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102
Q

What are 2 broad categories of innate defenses?

A

Surface barriers

Internal defences

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103
Q

What are examples of surface barriers?

A

Skin

Mucous membranes

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104
Q

What are examples of internal defenses? (5)

A 
Phagocytes
Fever
NK cells
Antimicrobial proteins
Inflammation
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105
Q

What are 2 broad categories of adaptive defenses?

A

Humoral immunity

Cellular immunity

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106
Q

What is an example of humoral immunity?

A

B cells

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107
Q

What is an example of cellular immunity?

A

T cells

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108
Q

What are the 4 stages of an immune response?

A

Adherence to epithelium
Local infection penetration of epithelium
Local infection of tissues
Adaptive immunity

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109
Q

During adherence to epithelium, what protection is used against infection? (3)

A

Epithelial surfaces
Antimicrobial molecules
Commensal microbes

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110
Q

During local infection penetration of epithelium, what protection is used against defense? (2)

A

Macrophages detect pathogen and initiate an immune response

Activation of complement

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111
Q

During local infection of tissues, what protection is used against defense? (3)

A

Innate immune response:
Inflammation
Recruitment of neutrophils, NK cells
Fever

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112
Q

During adaptive immunity, what protection is used against defense? (1)

A

Adaptive immune response:

Activation of B and T cells

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113
Q

What are microbes detected by?

A

Macrophages

Dendritic cells

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114
Q

What do dendritic cells do?

A

Traffic to secondary lymphoid tissues

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115
Q

What is the first line of defense?

A

Skin and mucosal barriers

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116
Q

What does the skin cover?

A

The outside of the body

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117
Q

What do mucosal surfaces line?

A

The bodies internal tubes

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118
Q

What is special about the mucosal surfaces?

A

More delicate than skin and must be permeable due to their function

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119
Q

Where do most pathogens enter the body?

A

Through mucosal surfaces

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120
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of defense at epithelial surfaces?

A

Physical
Mechanical
Chemical
Microbiological

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121
Q

What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the skin, gut, lungs, and eyes/nose/oral cavity?

A

Epithelial cells joined by tight junctions

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122
Q

What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the skin and gut?

A

Longitudinal flow of air or fluid

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123
Q

What is a mechanical mechanism of defense for the lungs?

A

Movement of mucus by cilia

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124
Q

What are mechanical mechanisms of defense for the eyes/nose/oral cavity?

A

Tears

Nasal cilia

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125
Q

What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the skin?

A

Fatty acids

Antimicrobial peptides

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126
Q

What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the gut?

A

Low pH
Antimicrobial enzymes
Antimicrobial peptides

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127
Q

What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the lungs?

A

Movement of mucus by cilia
Pulmonary surfactant
Antimicrobial peptides

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128
Q

What are chemical mechanisms of defense for the eyes/nose/oral cavity?

A

Antimicrobial enzymes in tears and saliva

Antimicrobial peptides

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129
Q

What is a microbiological mechanism of defense for the skin, gut, lungs, and eyes/nose/oral cavity?

A

Normal microbiota

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130
Q

What do all epithelial surfaces produce?

A

Chemical antimicrobial molecules

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131
Q

What do commensal microbiota do?

A

Inhibit colonization by pathogens because pathogens have to compete for nutrients and attachment sites

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132
Q

What are 2 examples of antimicrobial proteins?

A

Defensins

Lysozyme

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133
Q

What are defensins?

A

Amphipathic antimicrobial peptides

134
Q

What are defensins secreted by?

A

Epithelial calls and phagocytic cells

135
Q

Are defensins cationic or anionic?

A

Cationic

136
Q

What do defensins do?

A

Disrupt pathogen membranes by forming a pore

137
Q

What are lysozymes secreted in?

A

Tears and saliva

138
Q

What are lysozymes secreted by?

A

Phagocytes

139
Q

What do lysozyme do?

A

Breaks down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls

140
Q

What have commensal microbes developed?

A

Mechanisms of resistance to host antimicrobial peptides

141
Q

What do pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs) do?

A

Recognize PAMPs

142
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

Antigens that are highly conserved in groups of pathogens

143
Q

What are examples of highly conserved molecules recognized by PRRs?

A

Bacterial LPS and LTA
Fungal β-glucans
Bacterial and viral DNA

144
Q

What are DAMPs?

A

Danger associated molecular patterns

Antigens produced by damaged cells that signal stress

145
Q

What do PRRs promote?

A

Phagocytosis

Signaling

146
Q

What are tissue macrophages?

A

The first leukocyte to detect pathogens in the tissues

147
Q

What does the binding of PAMPs to PRRs do?

A

Promote phagocytosis

Induce production of inflammation cytokines to initiate an immune response against bacterial and fungal pathogens

148
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Endocytosis of pathogen into phagosome/endosome vesicle

149
Q

When the phagosome fuses with a lysosome, what forms?

A

Phagolysosome

150
Q

What happens to the pathogen in phagocytosis?

A

Pathogen is destroyed by degradative enzymes and antimicrobial substances

151
Q

What are the 4 steps to phagocytosis?

A
  1. Macrophage receptors recognize components of microbial surfaces
  2. Microorganisms are bound by phagocytic receptors on the macrophage surface
  3. Microorganisms are internalized by receptor-mediated endocytosis
  4. Fusion of endosome with a lysosome forms
152
Q

What is opsonization?

A

The coating a particle by any molecule that promotes phagocytosis of the coated particle

153
Q

What do phagocytic cells have for the molecule that coats the particle in opsonization?

A

Phagocytic receptors

154
Q

What do some antibodies and complement act as?

A

Opsonins

155
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Proteins released by cells that affect the behavior of other cells

156
Q

What is a group of cytokines?

A

Interleukins

157
Q

What are interferons?

A

Generally antiviral cytokines

158
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Cytokines that induce chemotaxis

159
Q

What do pro-inflammatory cytokines do? What are some examples? (5)

A

Stimulate the immune system/inflammation

INF-γ, TNF-α, IL-2, IL-6, IL-12

160
Q

What do anti-inflammatory cytokines do? What are some examples? (4)

A

Suppress the immune system/inflammation

IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, TGF-β

161
Q

What are examples of signaling receptors? (4)

A

Toll-like receptors
NOD-like receptors
RIG-I-like receptors
DNA sensors

162
Q

Where are toll-like receptors located?

A

On the cell surface and in endosomes

163
Q

Where are NOD-like receptors located?

A

Cytoplasm

164
Q

Where are RID-I-like receptors located?

A

Cytoplasm

165
Q

Where are DNA sensors located?

A

Cytoplasm

166
Q

What does the activation of toll-like receptors result in?

A

Results in the production of cytokines

167
Q

What are TLRs present on?

A

Various different leukocytes and epithelial cells

168
Q

What are NOD-like receptors?

A

Sensors of intracellular bacteria and viruses

169
Q

What do RIG-I-like receptors do?

A

Detect viral DNA

170
Q

What do DNA sensors do?

A

Detect bacterial and viral DNA

171
Q

What does the binding of PAMPs to signaling receptors result in?

A

Expression of inflammatory cytokines

172
Q

What does the combination of cytokines produced depend on?

A

The PRRs that were activated

173
Q

What are 2 things that cytokines do?

A

Activate other mechanisms of innate immunity

Shape the nature of the adaptive immune response

174
Q

When there is an infection, how are neutrophils released?

A

From the bone marrow in greater numbers

175
Q

Are neutrophils normally in tissues? When are they there?

A

No

During infection

176
Q

What do neutrophils function as?

A

Phagocytes

177
Q

What do neutrophils contain?

A

Performed granules with various antimicrobial substances

178
Q

What does the phagosome fuse with prior to the lysosome?

A

Granules

179
Q

What do neutrophils form upon death?

A

Pus

180
Q

What kind of bacteria can neutrophils bind with?

A

Pyogenic bacteria

181
Q

What is pyogenic bacteria?

A

Pus forming bacteria

182
Q

What do neutrophils do upon death? (2)

A

Undergo apoptosis, then removed by macrophages

Die by netosis

183
Q

What does netosis produce?

A

Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

184
Q

What are NETs composed of?

A

A network of chromatin, bacterial peptides, and proteases

185
Q

What do NETs do?

A

Trap and kill microbes

186
Q

What do inflammatory cytokines act on?

A

The hypothalamus

187
Q

What do inflammatory cytokines?

A

Increase metabolism of fat and muscle to allow increased body temperature

188
Q

What do inflammatory cytokines promote?

A

Decreased pathogen replication

189
Q

What class of proteins does serum amyloid protein belong to?

A

Pentraxins

190
Q

What do serum amyloid proteins do?

A

Enhance opsonization

191
Q

What do acute phase proteins do?

A

Change concentration by more than 25% during infection

192
Q

What does the detection of viral PAMPs result in?

A

Activation of type I interferons

193
Q

What can type I interferons be produced by?

A

Almost all virally infected cells

194
Q

What do antiviral innate immune responses generated by interferons activate?

A

Expression of genes that inhibit viral replication in infected cells
Upregulate certain cell surface molecules to indicate infection
Activate natural killer cells

195
Q

What are natural killer cells activated by?

A

Type I interferons and macrophage cytokines

196
Q

What do NK cells recognize?

A

Changes in the expression of cell surface molecules in cells that are infected with a virus

197
Q

What is the killing function of NK cells regulated by?

A

A balance of signals from inhibitory and activating receptors

198
Q

Why do inhibitory signals dominate no lysis cells?

A

So the cell is not destroyed

199
Q

Why do activating signals dominate lysis cells?

A

So the cell is destroyed

200
Q

What do NK cells form a synapse with?

A

Infected cells

201
Q

What do NK cells release through the direct synapse? What does it do?

A

Contents of granules

Kills one cell at a time

202
Q

How many people does inherited neutropenia (phagocyte defect) affect?

A

About 1 in 200,000

203
Q

What does inherited neutropenia lead to?

A

Neutrophil deficiency

204
Q

What does inherited neutropenia result in?

A

Susceptibility to infections with extracellular bacteria

205
Q

What are treatments for inherited neutropenia? (2)

A

Regular infusions of antibody and a cytokine that stimulates neutrophil production
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

206
Q

How many people does leukocyte adhesion deficiency (phagocyte defect) affect?

A

About 1 in 1,000,000

207
Q

What is leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Deficiency in adhesion molecules necessary for phagocytes to leave the blood and enter tissues

208
Q

What does leukocyte adhesion deficiency result in?

A

Widespread infection with extracellular bacteria

209
Q

What is a treatment for leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

210
Q

How many people does chronic granulomatous disease (phagocyte defect) affect?

A

About 1 in 250,000

211
Q

What does chronic granulomatous disease result in?

A

Bacterial and fungal infections

Early death due to chronic lung infections

212
Q

What is a treatment for chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Antibiotics to prevent and treat infections

213
Q

Do NK cell defects occur?

A

They are very rare

214
Q

What do NK cell defects increase the susceptibility to? (2)

A

Herpesvirus

Human papillomaviruses

215
Q

What are complement proteins made by?

A

Liver

216
Q

Where do complement proteins circulate?

A

Plasma
Lymph
Extracellular fluid

217
Q

What kind of enzyme are complement proteins?

A

Proteases

218
Q

What are complement proteins made as?

A

Zymogens

219
Q

What are zymogens?

A

An inactive form of the protease

220
Q

How are complement proteins named?

A

C1, C2, C3, etc.

221
Q

What are 3 functions of the complement system?

A

C3b fixations tags a pathogen for opsonization
Membrane attack complex forms a pore in the pathogen membrane
Production of the pro-inflammatory cytokines C3a and C5a

222
Q

What are the 3 pathways of the complement system?

A

Alternative pathway
Lectin pathway
Classical pathway

223
Q

What happens in the alternative pathway?

A

Pathogen surface creates local environment conducive to complement activation

224
Q

What happens in the lectin pathway?

A

Mannose-binding lectin binds to pathogen surface

225
Q

What happens in the classical pathway?

A

C-reactive protein or antibody binds to specific antigen on pathogen surface

226
Q

What is the next step in the complement system after one of the 3 complement pathways?

A

Cleavage of C3 to C3a and C3b

227
Q

After the cleavage of C3, what happens in the complement system? (3)

A

Recruitment of inflammatory cells
Opsonization of pathogens, facilitating uptake and killing by phagocytes
Perforation of pathogen cell membranes

228
Q

What happens at the end of the complement system?

A

Death of pathogen

229
Q

How is C3 produced?

A

Constitutively

230
Q

What do cytokines do to C3?

A

Upregulate it

231
Q

After C3 is cleaved, what happens to C3b?

A

Becomes attached to the pathogen surface

232
Q

What does C3b function as?

A

Opsonin

233
Q

What does the cleavage of C3 of?

A

Exposes a thioester bond

234
Q

What is the thioester bond susceptible to?

A

Nucleophilic attack

235
Q

What is the thioester bond attacked by?

A

H2O

Pathogen surface

236
Q

What does H2O result in during C3b fixation?

A

Results in inactive C3b (iC3b)

237
Q

What does the pathogen surface result in during C3b fixation?

A

Complement fixation

238
Q

What is the first pathway activated?

A

Alterative pathway

239
Q

What is iC3b?

A

Soluble convertase

240
Q

What is C3a?

A

Inflammatory cytokine

241
Q

What does factor B also bind?

A

Fixed C3b

242
Q

After factor B binds fixed C3b, what does factor D do?

A

Celaves factor B to form Ba and C3bBb

243
Q

What is C3bBb? What does it do?

A

Alternative C3 convertase

Amplifies complement fixation

244
Q

What is the lectin pathway initiated by?

A

Mannose binding lectin

245
Q

What are lectins?

A

Carbohydrate binding proteins

246
Q

What does mannose binding lectin function as?

A

An opsonin

247
Q

What does mannose binding lectin activate?

A

The complement system

248
Q

What is the classical pathway initiated by?

A

C-reactive protein

249
Q

What does C-reactive protein bind to?

A

Phosphocholine

250
Q

What does C-reactive protein function as?

A

An opsonin

251
Q

What does C-reactive protein activate?

A

The complement system via C1

252
Q

What do activated MASP-2 or C1s do?

A

Cleave C4 to C4a and C4b

Cleave C2 to C2a and C2b

253
Q

What is C4a?

A

A weak inflammatory mediator

254
Q

What is the order of inflammatory mediators from strongest to weakest?

A

C5a, C3a, C4a

255
Q

What does C4b do?

A

Binds to C2a to form the classical C3 convertase to cleave C3 to C3a and C3b

256
Q

What do phagocytes have?

A

Complement receptor 1

257
Q

What do phagocytes do on the pathogen surface?

A

Bind to C3b, which facilitates phagocytosis

258
Q

What do complement control proteins do?

A

Control the site and amount of complement deposition

259
Q

What disrupts the alternative C3 convertase on human cell surfaces? What does that do?

A

DAF, MCP, factor H, and CR1

Inhibit complement fixation

260
Q

What happens in the membrane attack complex?

A

C3b binds to the alternative C3 convertase to form C5 convertase which cleave C5 into C5a and C5b

261
Q

What does C5b initiate?

A

Formation of the membrane attack complex, which forms a pore in microbial cell membranes

262
Q

What does the membrane attack complex do?

A

Disrupts microbial cell membranes

263
Q

What do C3a and C5a induce?

A

An inflammatory response

264
Q

What is the most common symptom for defective complement proteins?

A

Increased susceptibility to Neisseria meningitidis

265
Q

What is a less common symptom for defective complement proteins?

A

Susceptibility to Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilius influenzae

266
Q

What are defective complement proteins strongly associated with?

A

Increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus

267
Q

Where is adaptive immunity initiated?

A

Secondary lymphoid tissues

268
Q

How are antigens transported in adaptive immunity?

A

From the site of infection to secondary lymph tissues

269
Q

What is activated in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

B cells and T cells

270
Q

What do lymphoid follicles contain?

A

B cells

271
Q

What do primary lymphoid follicles contain?

A

Naive (unactivated) B cells

272
Q

What do secondary lymphoid follicles contain?

A

A germinal center

273
Q

What does the germinal center contain?

A

Activated B cells undergoing proliferation

274
Q

What do T cell areas contain?

A

T cells

275
Q

What do sinuses contain?

A

Lymph and macrophages that filter lymph

276
Q

What is the spleen composed of?

A

Red pulp

White pulp

277
Q

What does red pulp do?

A

Removes finished red blood cells

278
Q

What is white pulp?

A

Secondary lymphoid tissue

279
Q

What is the structure of white pulp similar to?

A

Lymph nodes with B cell and T cell areas

280
Q

What does the marginal zone of white pulp do?

A

Screen the blood for antigens

281
Q

What does the spleen receive?

A

Bloodborne pathogens

282
Q

What do antibodies bind to?

A

Foreign antigens

283
Q

What are antibodies?

A

Secreted form of the B cell receptor

284
Q

What are 4 functions of antibodies?

A

Neutralization
Opsonization
Activation of the classical complement pathway
Antibody dependent cell mediated toxicity

285
Q

What does neutralization do?

A

Prevents pathogen attachment to host cell surfaces

286
Q

What do opsonization do?

A

Enhances phagocytosis

287
Q

What does antibody dependent cell mediated toxicity do?

A

Tags infected cells for destruction by NK cells

288
Q

What does immunoglobulin refer to?

A

B cell receptor and secreted antibody

289
Q

What is the structure of immunoglobulins?

A

2 light chains, 2 heavy chains, variable region, and constant region

290
Q

What do the variable regions of immunoglobulins contain?

A

The antigen binding site

291
Q

What do the constant regions of immunoglobulins determine?

A

Antibody function

292
Q

What are the functional classes of constant regions called? How many?

A

Antibody isotypes

5

293
Q

What is the antibody stem?

A

Heavy chain constant region

294
Q

What is the antibody stem often referred to as?

A

The Fc region

295
Q

What does the antibody stem bind to?

A

Fc receptors on immune cells

296
Q

Describe the chain composition of immunoglobulin domains. (3)

A

All change have 1 variable domain
Light chains have 1 constant domain
Heavy chains have 3-4 constant domains

297
Q

What are the 5 antibody isotypes?

A 
γ (G)
μ (M)
δ (D)
α (A)
ε (E)
298
Q

How many different light chains are there? What are they called?

A

2

Kappa and lambda

299
Q

In humans, how many antibodies have a kappa light chain?

A

About 2/3

300
Q

Do the different antibody isotypes have the same or different functions?

A

Different

301
Q

What are the different functions of immunoglobulins? (6)

A 
Neutralization
Opsonization
Sensitization for killing by NK cells
Sensitization of mast cells
Sensitization of basophils
Activation of complement system
302
Q

What is each antigen binding site formed from?

A

6 hypervariable regions

303
Q

Where are the 6 hyper variable regions?

A

3 each on light and heavy chains

304
Q

What are antigen binding sites surrounded by?

A

Less variable framework designs

305
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A molecule recognized by the immune system

306
Q

What does the molecule (antigen) contain?

A

A structure recognized by a receptor

307
Q

What is an epitope?

A

Specific part of an antigen to which an antibody binds

308
Q

What do immunoglobulins bind to?

A

Surface epitopes

309
Q

What can epitopes of protein antigens can be divided into? (2)

A

Linear epitope

Discontinuous epitope

310
Q

What is a linear epitope?

A

Continuous segment of a polypeptide chain

311
Q

What is a discontinuous epitope?

A

Amino acids brought together in a folded structure

312
Q

What are polyclonal antibodies?

A

Collection of different antibodies that recognize the same structure but different epitopes

313
Q

What are polyclonal antibodies produced from?

A

Different B cell lineages

314
Q

When are polyclonal antibodies produced?

A

During an immune response

315
Q

How many epitopes do monoclonal antibodies recognize?

A

1

316
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies produced from?

A

One B-cell lineage

317
Q

How is antivenom for humans developed? (4)

A
  1. Venom extracted
  2. Animal injected
  3. Animal produces polyclonal antibodies against venom
  4. Antivenom give to humans
318
Q

Why does the hybridoma cell provide an infinite supply of the antibody?

A

It is immortal

319
Q

What are the 4 types of therapeutic monoclonal antibody?

A

Mouse
Chimeric
Humanized
Human

320
Q

What do chimeric antibodies contain?

A

Mouse V regions and human C regions

321
Q

What are humanized antibodies?

A

When mouse HVR sequences replace human HVR sequences

322
Q

What are human antibodies?

A

When mouse immunoglobulin genes are replaced with human immunoglobulin genes

323
Q

How are human antibodies produced from mice?

A

Genes encoding human B-cell receptor/antibody genes replace the corresponding mouse genes and human antibodies will be produced by the genetically modified mice

324
Q

What is the treatment of chimeric monoclonal antibody against B cells, Rituximab, used to treat?

A

Lymphomas

Leukemia

325
Q

What is the treatment of humanized monoclonal antibody against IgE, Omalizumab, used to treat?

A

Allergies unresponsive to corticosteroids

326
Q

What is the treatment of monoclonal antibody against TNF-α, Adalimamab, used for?

A

Anti-inflammatory drug

327
Q

What does the 1st antibody do when using monoclonal antibodies?

A

Binds to the target protein

328
Q

What does the 2nd antibody do when using monoclonal antibodies?

A

Binds to the first antibody

329
Q

What does the 2nd antibody when using monoclonal antibodies contain?

A

An enzyme that catalyzes a color-producing reaction

Fluorescent molecule

330
Q

What diagnostic test can be used with monoclonal antibodies?

A

Pregnancy test

Immunology-Spring 2017 (4 decks)

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