Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

If demand is inelastic
A) then quantity demanded changes very little in response to a price change.
B) then demand is zero at all prices.
C) then demand is infinite at all prices.
D) then quantity demanded changes significantly in response to a price change.

A

A) then quantity demanded changes very little in response to a price change.

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2
Q

A firm engaging in efficient production, using current technology, ________ produce its current level of
production with a ________ amount of all inputs.
A) cannot; smaller
B) cannot; different
C) could; smaller
D) cannot, greater

A

A) cannot; smaller

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3
Q
If a firms cuts inputs in half, and output falls by more than half, then there are
A) increasing marginal returns. 
B) increasing returns to scale.
C) constant returns to scale. 
D) decreasing returns to scale.
A

B) increasing returns to scale.

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4
Q
Variable costs
A) might increase or decrease with increasing output.
B) increase with decreasing output.
C) increase with increasing output.
D) decrease with increasing output.
A

C) increase with increasing output.

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5
Q

When a firm produces one unit, the variable cost is $3. When the firm produces two units, the variable cost is
$6. What is the marginal cost associated with two units of production?
A) $6
B) $3
C) $0.5
D) $2

A

B) $3

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6
Q

A firm that backward vertically integrates
A) moves downstream in the production process.
B) may be producing its own inputs.
C) requires that the production process be relatively simple.
D) has to merge with another corporation.

A

B) may be producing its own inputs.

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7
Q

The market supply curve is found by
A) vertically summing all individual supply curves at a quantity.
B) horizontally summing all individual supply curves at a price.
C) either A or B above since they both give the same answer.
D) None of the above.

A

B) horizontally summing all individual supply curves at a price.

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8
Q

A conflict between an owner and a manager may occur when
A) the manager is the owner himself.
B) the manager is seeking to maximize leisure time
C) the owner can easily observe the manager slacking off and reward him accordingly.
D) the manager earns more when the firm has higher profits.

A

B) the manager is seeking to maximize leisure time

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9
Q

Manisha could work for another firm making $10,000 per month, but she decides to open her own gourmet
cheese store and pay herself $2,000 per month. In her first month of operations, she spends $6,000 on cheese,
$1,000 on other items, and $2,500 on rent. She had a great opening month, and brought in revenues of
$14,500. What are Manisha’s economic profits?
A) -$5,000
B) $4,000
C) -$6,000
D) $3,000

A

A) -$5,000

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10
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a governance structure where owners are not personally liable.
A) sole proprietorship 
B) partnership
C) corporation 
D) All of the above
A

C) corporation

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11
Q

The slope of an isoquant tells us
A) the increase in MPL (Marginal Product of Labor) when capital increases.
B) how much output increases when both inputs are increased.
C) the decrease in capital necessary to keep output constant when labor increases by one unit.
D) the decrease in capital necessary to keep MPL (Marginal Product of Labor) constant when labor increases by one unit.

A

C) the decrease in capital necessary to keep output constant when labor increases by one unit.

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12
Q

Which of the following statements best summarizes the law of diminishing marginal returns?
A) In the short run, as more labor is hired, output diminishes.
B) In the short run, as more labor is hired, output increases at a diminishing rate.
C) As more labor is hired, the length of time that defines the short run diminishes.
D) In the short run, the amount of labor a firm will hire diminishes as output increases.

A

B) In the short run, as more labor is hired, output increases at a diminishing rate.

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13
Q
The "goodness of the fit" of the regression is measured by the
A) t-statistic. 
B) unbiased coefficient.
C) standard error. 
D) R2 statistic.
A

D) R2 statistic.

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14
Q

If an isocost line crosses the isoquant twice, a cost minimizing firm will
A) use a different isocost line to select the bundle of inputs.
B) use the input bundle associated with the intersection on the higher point of the isoquant.
C) use the input bundle associated with the intersection on the lower point of the isoquant.
D) Both B and C.

A

A) use a different isocost line to select the bundle of inputs.

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15
Q
In the long run, fixed costs are
A) avoidable. 
B) larger than in the short run.
C) sunk. 
D) not included in production decisions.
A

A) avoidable.

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16
Q
Sometimes distinct patterns around a trend line for a time series with quarterly data can be caused by
A) dummy variables. 
B) yearly variation. 
C) extrapolation. 
D) seasonal variation.
A

D) seasonal variation.

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17
Q
If the price of automobiles were to increase substantially, the demand curve for gasoline would most likely
A) become steeper. 
B) remain unchanged.
C) shift leftward. 
D) shift rightward.
A

C) shift leftward

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18
Q
An isoquant represents levels of capital and labor that
A) have constant marginal productivity. 
B) yield the same level of output.
C) incur the same total cost. 
D) All of the above.
A

B) yield the same level of output.

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19
Q

Suppose the demand function for a good is expressed as Q = 100 - 4p. If the good currently sells for $10, then
the point price elasticity of demand equals
A) approximately -0.67.
B) -2.5.
C) -4.
D) -1.5.

A

A) approximately -0.67.

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20
Q

All of the following are characteristics of an oligopolistic market EXCEPT
A) firms have the ability to influence prices.
B) firms are price takers.
C) firms must consider the actions of their rivals.
D) firms earn lower profits than a monopoly.

A

B) firms are price takers.

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21
Q

If a consumer increases her quantity of ice cream consumed by 100% when her income rises by 25%, then her
income elasticity of demand for ice cream is
A) .25.
B) 4.0.
C) .08.
D) 8.0.

A

B) 4.0.

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22
Q

Suppose a market were currently at equilibrium. A rightward shift of the supply curve would cause a(n)
A) decrease in price but an increase in quantity.
B) increase in price but a decrease in quantity.
C) decrease in both price and quantity.
D) increase in both price and quantity.

A

A) decrease in price but an increase in quantity.

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23
Q

Which of the following would NOT change demand?
A) information about the product’s health effects
B) the income of the consumers
C) the price of related products
D) the price of the product

A

D) the price of the product

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24
Q

It is appropriate to use the supply-and demand-model if, in a market where
A) firms sell identical products.
B) costs of trading are low.
C) everyone is a price taker with full information about the price and quality of the good.
D) All of the above.

A

D) All of the above.

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25
Q
Economic costs of an input include
A) only explicit costs.
B) only implicit costs.
C) both implicit and explicit costs.
D) whatever management wishes to report to the shareholders.
A

C) both implicit and explicit costs.

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26
Q

The purpose of making assumptions in economic model building is to
A) simplify the model while keeping important details.
B) force the model to yield the correct answer.
C) minimize the amount of work an economist must do.
D) express the relationship mathematically.

A

A) simplify the model while keeping important details.

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27
Q

Suppose a firm can only vary the quantity of labor hired in the short run. An increase in the cost of
capital will
A) have no effect on the firm’s marginal cost.
B) decrease the firm’s marginal cost.
C) increase the firm’s marginal cost.
D) More information is needed to answer the question.

A

A) have no effect on the firm’s marginal cost.

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28
Q

A firm will shut down in the short run if
A) total revenue from operating would not cover fixed costs.
B) total revenue from operating would not cover all costs.
C) total revenue from operating would not cover variable costs.
D) total revenue from operating exceeds fixed costs.

A

C) total revenue from operating would not cover variable costs.

29
Q

A microeconomic model CANNOT be used to
A) evaluate the fairness of a proposal to nationalize health insurance.
B) predict the impact of an increase in the minimum wage on unemployment.
C) evaluate the effect of an increase in stadium size on the price of a sport team’s tickets.
D) evaluate the impact of a price change on a firm’s revenue.

A

A) evaluate the fairness of a proposal to nationalize health insurance.

30
Q

The agency problem can be avoided (or minimized) if
A) the firm has positive profits.
B) the goals of the owner and manager are aligned.
C) the manager and owner can manipulate reported profit.
D) the firm is not subject to regulation by a government agency.

A

B) the goals of the owner and manager are aligned.

31
Q
If an estimated regression explains none of the variation, R2 (R-squared) will be
A) 1.
B) between 0 and 1.
C) 0.
D) greater than 1.
A

C) 0.

32
Q

If the cost of capital increases, then the efficient combination of labor and capital for the same
isoquant
A) will both decrease.
B) will involve an increase in labor and a decrease in capital.
C) will involve an increase in capital and a decrease in labor.
D) will remain unchanged.

A

B) will involve an increase in labor and a decrease in capital.

33
Q

A rightward shift of the demand curve will lead to a(n)
A) excess demand at the old equilibrium price.
B) increase in quantity supplied.
C) increase in equilibrium price.
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

34
Q

If the government institutes a specific tax for a good
A) the equilibrium price paid by consumers drops.
B) the producer must absorb the entire tax.
C) the producer simply passes the entire tax on to the consumer.
D) the producer can generally only pass part of the tax onto the consumer.

A

D) the producer can generally only pass part of the tax onto the consumer.

35
Q
If 𝑄𝑆 = -20 + 10p, and 𝑄𝐷 = 40 - 20p, what is the equilibrium price?
A) 8
B) 4
C) 2
D) 12
A

C) 2

36
Q
An isoquant represents levels of capital and labor that
A) incur the same total cost.
B) have constant marginal productivity.
C) yield the same level of output.
D) All of the above.
A

C) yield the same level of output.

37
Q
An organization that converts inputs (like Labor, Capital etc.) into output can be a
A) partnership.
B) sole proprietorship.
C) corporation.
D) All of the above.
A

D) All of the above.

38
Q

In the short run, at any given point on the curve, the slope of the total product curve always equals
A) the change in input divided by the change in output.
B) the quantity of the fixed input.
C) the average product of the variable input.
D) the marginal product of the variable input.

A

D) the marginal product of the variable input.

39
Q

A 95% confidence interval
A) indicates that there is 95% confidence that the value of the estimated coefficient has been
calculated correctly.
B) is a range of of values that can never contain zero.
C) is a range of of values that gives a 95% probability that the true value of the coefficient is
within the specified interval.
D) is the probability that we have obtained the true value of the coefficient with 95% accuracy.

A

C) is a range of of values that gives a 95% probability that the true value of the coefficient is

40
Q
Market structure depends upon
A) the ability of firms to differentiate their goods and services.
B) the number of firms in the market.
C) the ease of entry and exit.
D) All of the above.
A

D) All of the above.

41
Q

When the isocost line is tangent to the isoquant, then
A) the firm is producing that level of output at minimum cost.
B) the last dollar spent on capital yields as much extra output as the last dollar spent on labor.
C) MRTS = -w/r.
D) All of the above.

A

D) All of the above.

42
Q

When selecting explanatory variables to include in a regression
A) you should pick all observable variables available.
B) you should pick all observable variables that are likely to have a meaningful impact on the
dependent variable.
C) ignore variables that have an R2 less than 1.
D) you should choose the single best variable

A

B) you should pick all observable variables that are likely to have a meaningful impact on the
dependent variable.

43
Q

Fixed costs are
A) equal to total cost divided by the units of output produced.
B) a production expense that changes with the quantity of output produced.
C) a production expense that does not vary with output.
D) the amount by which a firm’s cost changes if the firm produces one more unit of output.

A

C) a production expense that does not vary with output.

44
Q
If a firm triples inputs and produces twice the output, then there are
A) increasing returns to scale.
B) constant returns to scale.
C) decreasing returns to scale.
D) None of the above.
A

C) decreasing returns to scale.

45
Q

A profit-maximizing firm sets its output where
A) revenue is highest.
B) marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
C) revenue equals cost.
D) None of the above.

A

B) marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

46
Q

Vertical integration can
A) lower transaction costs due to lower costs of writing and enforcing contracts.
B) increase management costs and complexity.
C) improve supply chain security and flexibility
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

47
Q
The supply-and-demand model is appropriate in which of the following markets? 
 A) soft drinks 
 B) DVD's 
 C) used cars 
 D) wheat
A

D) wheat

48
Q
Isoquants 
 A) hold output constant. 
 B) hold labor constant. 
 C) hold capital constant. 
 D) hold cost constant.
A

A) hold output constant.

49
Q
When interacting with a small number of rival firms, a manager uses a  
 A) strategy 
 B) macroeconomic model 
 C) plan to maximize cost 
 D) All of the above
A

A) strategy

50
Q
Economic costs of an input include 
 A) Only implicit costs. 
 B) both implicit and explicit costs. 
 C) only explicit costs. 
 D) whatever management wishes to report to the shareholders.
A

B) both implicit and explicit costs.

51
Q

The steeper an isoquant is (labor measured on the horizontal axis):
A) the greater is the level of output.
B) the greater is the substitutability between capital and labor.
C) the greater is the marginal productivity of labor relative to that of capital.
D) the greater is the need to keep capital and labor in fixed proportions.

A

C) the greater is the marginal productivity of labor relative to that of capital.

52
Q
In the long run, fixed costs are 
 A) larger than in the short run. 
 B) sunk. 
 C) avoidable. 
 D) not included in production decisions.
A

C) avoidable.

53
Q

Suppose that the government subsidizes the cost of workers by paying 25% of the wage (the rate offered by the U.S. government in the late 1970s under the New Jobs Tax Credit program). What effect will this subsidy have on the firm’s choice of labor and capital to produce a given level of output? For a given level of output, the subsidy will prompt the firm to use
A) more labor and more capital because the cost of production will decrease.
B) more labor and less capital because the marginal product of the last dollar spent on labor is greater than the marginal product of the last dollar spent on capital.
C) the same quantities of labor and capital because the marginal rate of technical substitution has not changed.
D) less labor and more capital because the last dollar spent on labor adds more extra output than the last dollar spent on capital.

A

B) more labor and less capital because the marginal product of the last dollar spent on labor is greater than the marginal product of the last dollar spent on capital.

54
Q

According to economists, competitive firms
A) are able to change output and affect the market price.
B) compete for the same customers.
C) are price takers.
D) differentiate their products.

A

C) are price takers.

55
Q
If a consumer increases her quantity of ice cream consumed by 100% when her income rises by 25%, then her income elasticity of demand for ice cream is 
 A) 4.0. 
 B) .25. 
 C) 8.0. 
 D) .08.
A

A) 4.0.

56
Q
If the marginal rate of technical substitution for a cost minimizing firm is 10, and the wage rate for labor is $5, what is the rental rate for capital? 
 A) $2 
 B) $10 
 C) $1 
 D) $0.50
A

D) $0.50

57
Q

With respect to production, the short run is best defined as a time period
A) lasting about two years.
B) in which all inputs are fixed.
C) in which at least one input is fixed.
D) lasting about six months.

A

C) in which at least one input is fixed.

58
Q

The principal-agent problem can be avoided if
A) the goals of the owner and manager are aligned.
B) the manager and owner can manipulate reported profit.
C) the firm has positive profits.
D) the firm is not subject to regulation by a government agency.

A

A) the goals of the owner and manager are aligned.

59
Q

If the price of a good is initially below the equilibrium level
A) firms supply none of the good.
B) the supply curve will shift rightward.
C) the supply curve will shift leftward.
D) excess demand exists.

A

D) excess demand exists.

60
Q

Which of the following is an example of a normative statement?
A) This food has negative health effects.
B) Since this food is bad for you, you should not consume it.
C) People usually get sick after consuming this food.
D) If you consume this food, you will get sick.

A

B) Since this food is bad for you, you should not consume it.

61
Q

A firm’s marginal cost can always be thought of as the change in total cost if
A) the firm buys one more unit of capital.
B) the firm produces one more unit of output.
C) the firm moves to the next highest isoquant.
D) the firm’s average cost increases by $1.

A

B) the firm produces one more unit of output.

62
Q

A profit-maximizing firm sets its output where
A) marginal profit equals marginal revenue.
B) marginal profit is zero.
C) marginal profit is maximized.
D) marginal revenue is maximized.

A

B) marginal profit is zero.

63
Q
Market structure depends upon 
 A) the ability of firms to differentiate their goods and services. 
 B) the ease of entry and exit. 
 C) the number of firms in the market. 
 D) All of the above.
A

D) All of the above.

64
Q

A microeconomic model CANNOT be used to
A) evaluate the effect of an increase in stadium size on the price of a sport team’s tickets.
B) predict the impact of an increase in the minimum wage on unemployment.
C) evaluate the impact of a price change on a firm’s revenue.
D) evaluate the fairness of a proposal to nationalize health insurance.

A

D) evaluate the fairness of a proposal to nationalize health insurance.

65
Q

An estimation method is unbiased if it produces a(n) ________ that equals the ________ on average.
A) estimated coefficient; residual
B) error term; standard error
C) estimated coefficient; true coefficient
D) R2; t-statistic

A

C) estimated coefficient; true coefficient

66
Q
Which of the following inputs is normally considered to be fixed in the short run? 
 A) labor 
 B) money 
 C) capital 
 D) All of the above.
A

C) capital

67
Q

In regression analysis, the explanatory variables
A) are always price and income.
B) are the factors that are thought to affect the dependent variable.
C) are the variables whose variations are to be explained.
D) are used to explain the random error term.

A

B) are the factors that are thought to affect the dependent variable.

68
Q

Should a competitive firm ever produce when it is losing money? Why or why not?
A) Yes, as long as revenue can cover some portion of total variable costs.
B) No, the firm should shutdown so it can recover its sunk costs.
C) No, the firm should shutdown if it is making an accounting loss.
D) Yes, as long as revenue can cover total variable costs plus any portion of fixed costs.

A

D) Yes, as long as revenue can cover total variable costs plus any portion of fixed costs.

69
Q

Average variable cost (AVC)
A) always decreases with increased output.
B) are always flat.
C) may either increase, decrease, or remain flat with increased output.
D) always increases with increased output.

A

C) may either increase, decrease, or remain flat with increased output.