Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
a disease caused by an unknown etiology is a
A
idiopathic
2
Q
what is secreted during the alarm stage of a stress response?
A
glucocorticoids
3
Q
during the which stage do cortisol, epinephrine and norepinephrine take action?
“fight or flight”
A
resistance stage
4
Q
what 3 systems regulate the neuroendocrine immune system?
A
nervous system
endocrine system
immune system
5
Q
The somatic nervous system has pathways that regulate_____
A
voluntary motor control
6
Q
autonomic nervous system regulates
A
involuntary control of visceral organs
7
Q
glucocorticoids and cortisol hormones are secreted by the _________
A
adrenal cortex (stimulated by adrenocortropic hormone ACTH.
8
Q
Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenisis and elevates blood sugar?
A
cortisol
9
Q
Cortisol is a powerful _________ and immunosuppressive agent.
A
anti-inflammatory
10
Q
epinephrine and norepi. are secreted by _________
A
adrenal medulla
11
Q
fight or flight response is mediated by
A
catecholamines (aka. stress hormone)
12
Q
adrenal hormones are synthesized in the brain and act on
A
a1, a2 -adrenergic receptors (heart and skeletal muscles)
13
Q
b1,b2 receptors are for the
A
bronchial smooth muscles and heart.
14
Q
cells maintain _______ by digesting and removing damaged substances
A
homeostasis
15
Q
removal of any mutated cell is
A
surveillance
16
Q
first line of defense is
A
natural resistance
17
Q
second line of defense is
A
humoral-inflammatory response
18
Q
third line of defense is
A
acquired immunity
19
Q
biochemical barriers include
A
saliva, tears, mucus, sweat, ear wax, bacteria flora in gi tract
20
Q
what is the goal of an inflammatory response?
A
to initiate healing
21
Q
early inflammation (vascular response) Includes which cells and responses
A
leukocyte activation, redness, swelling
22
Q
where are monocytes produced
A
bone marrow
23
Q
the bodies defense against parasites and regulation of vascular protein mediators are
A
eosinophils
24
Q
what causes the dilation of post-capillary venules during inflammation
A
histamine
25
what is the production of interferon triggered by?
viral cells with double stranded DNA, they protect host during infection
26
what is SIRS
a wide organ reaction ---systemic inflammatory response syndrome
27
anaphalaxis can manifest as
severe itching, swelling, hypotension, bronchospasm
28
the presence of bacteria within the bloodstream is known as
bacteremia
29
SIRS + Bacteremia =
Sepsis
30
what is a urinary tract obstruction?
blockage of urine flow, obstruction in ureter, etc...
31
masses of crystals, protein or other substances formed in the kidneys are
kidney stones
32
symptoms of kidney stones are
pain, hematuria, UTI, fever, dysuria
33
when paralysis interferes with normal flow and emptying of bladder due to spinal cord trauma, tumors or diabetes
neurogenic bladder
34
most common pathogens for a uti are
escheria coli, staphylococcus saprophyticus, enterobacter
35
infection of the bladder
acute or chronic cystitis
36
S/S including fever, chills, flank pain and cost vertebral tenderness can be signs of
pyelonephritis
37
inflammation of the glomerulus is called
glomerulonephritis
38
what causes altered glomerular permeability
nephrotic syndrome
39
REnal diagnostic tests
urinalysis
blood - bun, creatinine, gfr creatinine clearance
imaging studies- renal ultrasound, renal ct
40
renal dysfunction can be caused by
renal failure, kidney disease, kidney injury, renal insufficiency
41
is acute tubular necrosis reversable?
yes
42
impaired renal blood flow cause decreased GFR
decrease in vascular volume, cardiac output, vascular resistance
43
rise in urea nitrogen
azotemia BUN
44
clinical sydrome associated with F/E, hormone imbalance and metabollic abnormalities
Uremia
45
a person suffering from CRF should limit _______ in their diets
proteins, fluid, sodium and potassium
46
goal of dialysis
remove waste, correct acidosis, remove excess fluid
47
what term describes a trigger to a disease
precipitation
48
pain and nausea are examples of a
symptom
49
some examples of cellular function are
secretion, respiration, communication
50
what causes cellular swelling during hypoxic injury?
calcium and sodium channels
51
a disease caused by treatment is
latrogenic
52
when a condition becomes worst with increased activity it is known as
exacerbation
53
a clinical sign can be
measured in numbers
54
the cheif function of a cell to maintain homeostasis is
communication
55
cellular _______ is reversible
metaplasia
56
which phagocyte is predominating in the first 24 hours of inflammation?
neutrophils
57
immunosuppressed is when a persons immune system is
weakened
58
why do patients experience hypotension during systemic infection?
capillary leak
59
anorexia, anemia and altered metabolism are signs of
cachexia
60
individuals with cancer are often at risk for infections because of
leukopenia
61
the goal of chemotherapy is to eradicate
all tumor cells
62
malignant tumors are capable of
angeogenisis
63
what is leukocytosis
high wbc count
64
what is leukopenia
low wbc count
65
cancer patients are at risk for severe bleeding because of
thrombocytopenia
66
what is kaposi sarcoma
a tumor caused by infection
67
what is ascites
swelling of the belly caused by liver disease
68
an intrarenal injury is
a direct blow to the kidneys
69
decreased oncotic pressure causes
anemia
70
chronic renal failure patients often represent
metabolic acidosis
71
a decrease in erythropoietin production can cause
anemia
72
after acute renal failure patients ---------- suffer from chronic renal failure
do not
73
patients with chronic renal failure should consume a _______
high carbohydrate diet
74
a cell that promotes division
oncogene, in mutated cells it promotes abnormal cell growth
75
what is a caretaker gene?
it repairs dna mutations in normal cells but is unable to in mutated cells
76
cell death
apoptis in normal cells, immortality in mutated cells
77
what is the physiological function of cancer cells?
they do not have a function
78
when a cell tissue overgrows it is called
hyperplasia
79
the abnormal change in size, shape and organization of cells in a tissue is
dysplasia
80
these cells are usually encapsulated, grow slowly, do not metastisize and do not destroy local tissue
benign
81
these tumors are not contained, grow rapidly, metastisize and have variable prognosis
malignant tumor
82
the definition of angeogenisis is
growth of new blood vessels
83
the presence of reed-sternberg cells is an indicator of
hodgkins lymphoma
84
a person experiencing enlarged lymphnodes, chest tumors, splenomegaly, abdominal mass , fever, weight loss and night sweats is showing symptoms of
hodgkins lymphoma
85
it is worst to have _________ lymphoma
non-hodgkins lymphoma
86
where does multiple myeloma originate
in plasma cells that infiltrate bone marrow and aggregate into tumors in the skeletal system
87
CRAB-C in relation to mm means
```
hyper calcemia
renal failure
anemia
bone lesions
chemotherapy
```
88
chemotherapy is
a nonselective cytotoxic drug that targets all vital cellular structures or metabolic pathways, kills healthy and cancerous cells
causes alopecia, diarrhea, pancytopenia, etc...
89
ionizing radiation
selectively destroys cancer cell's , eradicates tumor without excessive tosicity to normal tissues, no systemic side effects
90
tumor pressure or obstruction, stretching of visceral surfaces, tissue destruciton causes
cancer pain
91
development of unusual or recurrent sever infections in a clinical setting
immune deficiencies in a clinical setting
92
leukocytes and lymphocytes are both
types of WBC
93
a primary immunodeficiency is caused by
genetic anomoly
94
things like pregnancy, aging, neonates, diabetes and autoimmune diseases examples of
physiologic and pathologic conditions
95
a bloodborn pathogen and virus that attacks and destroys T4 lymphocytes
HIV
96
what does the HIV virus use to bind to helper T cells?
gp 120proteins bind to the CD4 molecules on the helper T cells
97
HIV uses ________ to convert RNA into double stranded DNA
reverse transcriptase
98
after reverse transcriptase in HIV the proviral DNA inserts itself into the host genome. the final step is the _____
synthesis of HIV protein and release of mature HIV into host system
99
in order to be dx with HIV a person must show_______
seroconversion- the presence of enough antibodies in the blood on an HIV test
100
the difference between a standard HIV antibody test and an antibody/antigen test
a/a is faster, as early as 3 weeks from exposure
101
the symptoms of HIV at stage zero are similar to____?
a really bad cold..usually about 3 weeks
102
CD4 cell count > 500 or
| > 29% of all lymphocytes
stage 1 of HIV
103
what are cytotoxic cells
cells that attack and kill cells that have been infiltrated
104
CD4 cell count is 200-499 or between 14-28% of all lymphocytes
stage 2 HIV
105
CD4 cell count is < 200 or < than 14% of all lymphocytes, or an AIDS condition is present
stage 3 AIDS
106
which immune cell is targeted by HIV?
CD4 cells
107
infections that occur when in an AIDS patient is an
opportunistic infection
108
a yeast infection of the esophagus is
oral thrush
109
aids has now become a chronic disease due to
effective HAART tx and healthy lifestyles
110
the recommended tx for HIV patients is
HAART, to fend off opportunistic infections
111
what do histamines cause
capillary leak, vasodilation
112
what is a UTI
Obstruction in ureter, below bladder neck(slpow stream), above bn(backflow), blockage of flow.
113
manifestation and tests for kidney stones
hematuria, fever, dsuria, renal colic
| CT or intravenous pyelogram
114
causes of prerenal failure
impaired blood flow, decreased vv, co, increased rvr
115
intrarenal causes of arf
drugs, dye, nephrotoxins
116
postrenal causes of arf
urinary obstruction, calculi trauma, prostatic hypertrophy
117
rise in blood urea nitrogen
azolemia
118
ex of atrophy
decrease in heart size
119
hypertophy
increase in heart or kidney size
120
hyperplasia
increased rate of division, injury
121
dysplasia- reversible
abnormal shape changes, cervix
122
metaplasia-reversible
replacement of mature cells-tissue
123
innate immunity
first response- barriers like sweat, mucus. not selective and create time for body to figure out the pathogen
124
inflammation- second defense
response to damage, rapid initiation, initiates adaptive response
125
benefits of inflammation
dilute toxins, prevent infection and further amage, contains bacteria
126
inflammation delivers __________ to _________
leukocytes to injury
127
what is Kussmauls respiration?
fast and deep breathing
128
what are the four steps in GAS
general adaptation
cns arousal
resistance : defense
exhaustion
129
what are the five ways a cell is injured
```
calcium alter
atp depletion
mitochondrial damage
dna damage
protein defects
```
130
hypoxia is mediated by
ROS
131
what is a free radical
a molecule that has lost its charge
| they bond quickly to lipids carbs and proteins
132
why is reperfusion injury so bad?
there will be an influx of blood and calcium causing increased permeability of mitochondria. that will result in atp depletion and cell deathq
133
what is the main electrolyte responsible for cell function?
potassium
134
what is hypokalemia
potassium deficiency
135
what is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis
A- death without inflammation
| N- death with inflammation
136
what is inflammation
dilation, increased permeability, leakage causing edema delivering leukocytes to injury
137
what is the benefit of inflammation
dilutes toxins, contains bacteria, prevents further damage
138
what are the steps of adaptive immunity
lymphoid cells migrate to organs, become immunocompetent, migrate to secondary organs, establish residence, create antibodies
139
chronic inflammation leads to
pus and scar tissue
140
why are catecholamines synthesized in the brain?
they cannot cross the blood brain barrier
141
what does chronic stress do?
causes inflammatory leukocytes which promotes plaque and cytokine secretion which leads to stroke and heart attack
142
what do pathogens need to function
communicability, infectivity, extent of damage, virulence
143
how to parasites enter the body
ingestion
144
how does bacteria enter the body
skin to skin
145
the criteria for SIRS
```
fever > 100.4
HR >90
RR > 20
Respiratory Alkolisis < 32
4000 12000 or 10 % immature
```
146
SIRS + Bacteremia =
sepsis (hypotension, organ dysfunction hypo-perfusion)
147
what are NK cells
cells who find and destroy infections
148
steps of HIV
```
DX
seroconversion
stage 1- CD4 + >500
stage 2- CD4 + 200-499
stage 3- CD4 + <200 ---- AIDS
```
149
hallmark of cancer
immortality
