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BIOL 315 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is cell biology?

A

The study of the structure and function of the unit of living organisms

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2
Q

What are the three strands of cell biology?

A

Cytology
Biochemistry
Genetics

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3
Q

What is cytology?

A

Focus mainly on cellular structure and emphasizes optical techniques

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4
Q

What is biochemistry?

A

Focuses on cellular structure and function

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5
Q

What is genetics?

A

Focuses on information flow and heredity

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6
Q

What is the biggest asset to cytology?

A

Microscopy

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7
Q

Micrometer is

A

one millionth (10^-6)

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8
Q

What cells are a few micrometers in diameter?

A

Bacterial cells

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9
Q

About how big are organelles?

A

The size of bacterial cells (1-2 micrometers)

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10
Q

The nanometer is used for

A

molecules and subcellular structures too small for the light microscope

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11
Q

The nanometer is

A

one billionth of a meter (10^-9_

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12
Q

The earliest microscope was the

A

Light Microscope

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13
Q

The light microscope allows for the identification of

A

nuclei, mitochondria, chloroplasts

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14
Q

______ microscopy is also called brightfield microscopy

A

Light microscopy

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15
Q

Light microscopes can identify structures by

A

passing a white light directly through a specimen

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16
Q

The microtome

A

cuts specimens into thin slices

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17
Q

What is limit of resolution?

A

How far apart objects must be to appear distinct

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18
Q

The smaller the microscopes limit of resolution, the greater its

A

resolving power

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19
Q

What are the four specialized light microscopes?

A

Phase contrast
Differential interference
Fluorescence
Confocal

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20
Q

Fluorescence microscopy detects

A

proteins, DNA sequences, mlcs made fluorescent by binding to antibodies

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21
Q

What is an antibody?

A

protein that binds to a particular target molecule called an antigen

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22
Q

What does GFP allow us to do?

A

Study the temporal and spatial distribution of proteins in a living cell

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23
Q

How does confocal microscopy work

A

Uses a laser beam to illuminate a single plane of a fluorescently labeled specimen

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24
Q

Can you use GFP in living or nonliving cells?

A

LIVING

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25
Q

How does the electron microscope work?

A

Aims a beam of electrons rather than light through a specimen

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26
Q

The limit of resolution of electron microscopes is about ____ times better than light microscopes

A

100

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27
Q

What is the total magnification of electron microscopes?

A

100,000X

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28
Q

In transmission electron microscopy

A

Electrons are transmitted through the specimen

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29
Q

In scanning electron microscopy

A

the SURFACE of a specimen is scanned while electrons deflect

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30
Q

Who demonstrated yeast extracts could function?

A

The Buchners

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31
Q

What did the Buchners discovery lead to?

A

Discovery of enzymes

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32
Q

Who coined the 1 gene-1 enzyme hyopothesis

A

Beadle and Tatum

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33
Q

What is the 1 gene-1 enzyme hypothesis

A

One gene makes one protein in bacteria (wrong for humans)

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34
Q

Flemming identified

A

Chromosomes and mitosis

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35
Q

Morgan identified

A

Link traits to chromosomes

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36
Q

The genetic strand evolution goes mendel flemming to morgan meaning

A

physical traits are inherited (mendel) to nature of chromosomes (flemming) to traits belonging to parts of chromosomes (morgan)

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37
Q

Who proposed the double helix model?

A

watson and crick and franklin

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38
Q

Who coined the central dogma of molecular biology

A

Crick

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39
Q

What is the central dogma of biology?

A

DNA replicates itself by transcribing the RNA that is then translated to protein

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40
Q

What are the three important kinds of RNA molecules?

A

mRNA
rRNA
tRNA

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41
Q

What is mRNA

A

translated to produce protein

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42
Q

What is rRNA

A

components of ribosomes

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43
Q

What is tRNA

A

bring appropriate amino acid for protein synthesis

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44
Q

Recombinant DNA technology uses

A

restriction enzymes to cut DNA at specific places

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45
Q

Recombinant DNA technology allows scientists to create ________ with DNA from different sources

A

recombinant DNA molecules

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46
Q

What is DNA cloning?

A

Generation of many copies of a specific DNA sequence

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47
Q

What is DNA transformation?

A

process of introducing DNA into cells

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48
Q

Which microscopic technique would work best for precisely visualizing the location of a protein in a living cell?

A

Confocal microscopy with a fluorescently tagged protein

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49
Q

If you wanted to study the expression of many genes in a cell type and you wanted to study them simultaneously at the level of protein expression, what would you need to use?

A

Proteomics

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50
Q

Compare Direct and Indirect Immunofluorescence

A

Direct: not commonly used, antibodies bind to antigen
Indirect: more common, use 2 antibodies

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51
Q

What are some drawbacks to indirect immunofluorescence?

A

Requires specific antibodies

Can’t be done on living cells

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52
Q

What are the macromolecules of the cell

A

Proteins
Nucleic Acids
Polysaccharides
Lipids

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53
Q

What are the 9 classes of protens?

A 
Enzymes
Structural
Motility
Regulatory
Transport
Signaling
Receptor
Defensive
Storage
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54
Q

What are enzymes

A

serve as catalysts and aim to increase rates of chemical reactions

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55
Q

What are structural proteins

A

Physical support and shape

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56
Q

What are motility proteins

A

Contract andmove

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57
Q

What are regulatory proteins

A

control and coordinate cell function

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58
Q

What are transport proteins

A

move substances in and out of cells

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59
Q

What are signaling proteins

A

communication between cells

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60
Q

What are receptor proteins

A

Enable cells to respond to chemical stimuli from the environment

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61
Q

What are defensive proteins?

A

Protect against disease

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62
Q

What are storage proteins

A

reservoirs of amino acids

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63
Q

How many amino acids are there? How many are used in protein synthesis?

A

60 total

20 used

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64
Q

What is the structure of amino acids?

A

R group
Amino group
Carboxyl group

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65
Q

Amino acids exist in L- or D- forms, but only ___ exist in proteins

A

L-

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66
Q

Each peptide has directionality: N terminus (_____) and C terminus (_____)

A

left

right

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67
Q

How many amino acids have nonpolar hydrophobic R groups?

A

Nine

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68
Q

How many amino acids have hydrophilic R groups that are polar or charged?

A

Eleven

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69
Q

Acidic amino acids are _____ charged

A

Negatively

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70
Q

Polar amino acids tend to be found

A

On surfaces of proteins

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71
Q

Amino acids are linked together stepwise into a linear polymer by

A

Dehydration reactions

72
Q

A peptide bond (C–N) forms as

A

H2O is removed

73
Q

What is a peptide bond?

A

Carbon bound to nitrogen

74
Q

The N-terminous group has a

A

amino group

75
Q

The C terminous group has a

A

Carboxyl group

76
Q

What is protein synthesis?

A

Process of elongating a chain of amino acids

77
Q

The immediate product of amino acid polymerization is

A

a polypeptide

78
Q

______ proteins consist of 2 or more polypeptides

A

Multimeric proteins

79
Q

Proteins composed of 2 polypeptides are called

80
Q

Hemoglobin is a ____ consisting of 2 alpha subunits and 2 beta subunits

81
Q

Covalent disulfide bonds form

A

Between the sulfur atoms of two cysteine residues

82
Q

How do disulfide bonds form?

A

Removal of 2 hydrogen ions (via oxidation) and can be broken by addition of 2 hydrogens (reduction)

83
Q

What is the purpose of disulfide bonds?

A

To create considerable stability to the protein conformation

84
Q

_______ form between cysteines in the same polypeptide

A

Intramolecular Disulfide bond

85
Q

_______ form between cysteines in two different polypeptides

A

Intermolecular disulfide bonds

86
Q

What are noncovalent bonds and interactions?

A

Hydrogen bonds
ionic bonds
van der waal
hydrophobic

87
Q

Which is weaker: cysteine or noncovalent bonds?

A

Noncovalent bonds

88
Q

How do hydrogen bonds form?

A

In water between amino acids via their R group

89
Q

How do ionic bonds form?

A

Between positively and negatively charged R groups

90
Q

Changes in pH can disrupt what type of bond?

91
Q

How do Van Der Waals Interactions form?

A

2 dipoles attract if they are close enough

92
Q

What is a hydrophobic interaction?

A

When hydrophobic molecules are excluded from interactions with water.

93
Q

What are the four levels of organization of protein structure?

A

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary

94
Q

What makes up the primary stage of proteins?

A

Amino acid sequence

95
Q

What makes up the secondary stage of proteins?

A

Alpha Helix and Beta Sheet, hydrogen bonding

96
Q

What makes up the tertiary stage of proteins?

A

Different bonds and interactions

97
Q

What makes up the Quaternary stage of proteins?

A

When multiple polypeptides are put together

98
Q

What is the alpha helix?

A

Peptide backbone, spiral, R groups jut out from the spiral

99
Q

How many amino acids per turn of the alpha helix?

A

3.6 amino acids

100
Q

If the parts of polypeptides forming the beta sheet have opposite polarity they are called

A

antiparallel

101
Q

What amino acids tend to form alpha helices?

A

Leucine
Mthionine
Glutamate

102
Q

What amino acids tend to form beta sheets?

A

Isoleucine
Valine
Phenylalanine

103
Q

What are motifs?

A

Short stretches of alpha helices and beta sheets in secondary structures

104
Q

What are the two common examples of motifs?

A

B-a-B
Hairpin loop
Helix-turn-helix

105
Q

What is the most stable conformation of a particular polypeptide?

A

It’s Native Conformation

106
Q

Proteins aredivided into what two categories

A

Fibrous

Globular

107
Q

Fibrous Proteins have

A

extensive regions of secondary structure giving them a highly ordered, repetitive structure

108
Q

What are some examples of fibrous proteins?

A

Keratin
Fibroin
Collagen
Elastin

109
Q

Most proteins are _____ folded into compact structures

A

Globular proteins

110
Q

Most enzymes are what type of proteins?

A

Globular proteins

111
Q

What is a domain?

A

Discrete, locally folded unit of tertiary structure, usually with specifi function

112
Q

What is the structure of a domain?

A

50-350 amino acids long

regions of a helix and b sheet mixed together

113
Q

What is the function of nucleic acids?

A

To store, transmit, and express genetic information

114
Q

Dna serves as the _______ of genetic information whereas RNA serves the role of ______ that information

A

repository

expressing

115
Q

_____ contains 5 carbon sugar Ribose

116
Q

What are the Pyramidines?

A

(Pyramids, swords, cut)

Cytosine, uracil, thymine

117
Q

What are the purines?

A

Guanine, adenine

118
Q

A nucleoside is

A

The sugar base portion without the phosphate group

119
Q

Nucleic acids are linear nucleotides linked together by a

A

3’ 5’ phosphodiester bridge

120
Q

_____ is a fundamental property of nucleic acids

A

Base pairing

121
Q

Glycogen is highly

122
Q

Starch occurs as both unbranched ______ and branched _______

A

amylose

amylopectin

123
Q

Cellulose is found in

A

plant cell walls

124
Q

Why can’t humans digest cellulose?

A

Lack an enzyme to break the beta glycosidic bonds

125
Q

What are the 2 structural abnormalities of alzheimer’s?

A
  • amyloid plaques

- Neurofibrillary tangles

126
Q

What are amyloid plaques?

A

Made of mainly Amyloid beta, accumulate at synapses

127
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Tau protein excessively phosphorylated to the point of tangled

128
Q

What animal mutant genes are subject to therapy to reduce alzheimer’s symptoms?

129
Q

What are polysaccharides and their function?

A

Long polymers of sugars

Serve in structure and storage

130
Q

Aldo sugars have a ____ carbonyl group and Keto sugars have a _____ carbonyl group

A

terminal

internal

131
Q

For every molecule of CO2 incorporated into a sugar, one _____

A

water molecule is consumed

132
Q

What is the most stable form of glucose?

A

D-glucose in Haworth projection

133
Q

What are the two ring forms of D glucose?

A

Alpha (hydroxyl group down)

Beta (hydroxyl group up_

134
Q

What are the 3 disaccharides?

A

Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose

135
Q

Disaccharides are linked via a ________

A

glycosidic bonds

136
Q

What 2 disaccharides have an alpha glycosidic bond?

A

Maltose and Sucrose

137
Q

What are the 2 storage polysaccharides?

A

Starch

Glycogen

138
Q

What are the 2 types of cells?

A

Prokaryotes (bacteria)

Eukaryotes (plants, animals, fungi, algae, protozoa)

139
Q

What distinguishes a prokaryote from a eukaryote?

A

Membrane bound nucleus in eukaryotes

140
Q

Prokaryotic cells are divided into what 2 classes?

A

Bacteria and Archaea

141
Q

What the 3 domains?

A

Archaea
Bacteria
Eukarya

142
Q

What are examples of bacteria?

A

E. Coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Strep

143
Q

What are examples of archaea?

A

methanogens
Halophiles
Thermacidophiles

144
Q

What are methanogens?

A

Obtain energy and convert CO2 to methane

145
Q

What are halophiles?

A

Occupy salty environments

146
Q

What are thermacidophiles?

A

Thrive in acidic hot springs

147
Q

Cells specialized for _____ have characteristics to maximize their surface area (Ex. microvilli)

A

absorption

148
Q

Many molecules move through cytoplasm by

A

Diffusion: regions of high to low concentration

149
Q

Rate of _____ of molecules decreases as the _____of the molecule increases

A

diffusion

increases

150
Q

How do eukaryotic cells avoid slow diffusion rates?

A

By using carrier proteins

151
Q

A eukaryotic cell has

A

membrane bound nucleus

152
Q

A prokaryotic cell has

A

genetic information stored in a nucleoid

153
Q

How do eukaryotic cells exchange materials between compartments within the cell and the exterior of the cell?

A

Exocytosis and endocytosis

154
Q

Bacterial DNA is present in the cell in

A

circular form

155
Q

Eukaryotic DNA is present in the cell in

A

Linear molecules

156
Q

What is a histone

A

Linear molecules complexed with large amounts of proteins

157
Q

Archaeal DNA is

A

circular and has protein similar to histones

158
Q

Eukaryotic cells have how much more DNA than prokaryotes?

A

1000 times

159
Q

How do bacterial and archaeal cells repllicate?

A

Replicate DNA and divide by binary fission

160
Q

How do Eukaryotic cells replicate?

A

Replicate DNA and distribute chromosomes via mitosis and meiosis followed by cytokinesis

161
Q

Chromosomes are difficult to visualize during ______ because they are dispersed as chromatin

A

interphase

162
Q

What is the nucleoli?

A

harbors ribosomal DNA and synthesizes ribosomal RNA

163
Q

The inner mitochondrial membrane

A

encloses the matrix (semifluid material filling mitochondria)

164
Q

What is found in cristae?

A

Enzymes and intermediates needd for oxidation of sugars and generation of ATP

165
Q

Chrloroplast is

A

The site of photosynthesis in plants and algae

166
Q

What are thylakoids?

A

Membraneous sacs flattened and stacked into granum

167
Q

Reactions involved in the reduction of CO2 to sugar occur within the

168
Q

Cisternae are

A

tubular membranes found in the ER

169
Q

What is the internal space of the ER called?

170
Q

Smooth ER is involved with

A

synthesis of lipids and steroids

inactivating and detoxification

171
Q

What does the Golgi apparatus do?

A

processes and packages secretory proteins

172
Q

Once processed by the Golgi complex, materials are packaged into

A

secretory vesicles

173
Q

How do secretory vesicles work?

A

Move to plasma membrane andfuse with it to release contents outside of the cell

174
Q

What makes up the endomembrane system of the cell?

A

ER
Golgi Apparatus
Secretory Vesicles
Lysosomes

175
Q

What are peroxisomes and where are they found?

A

single membraned perform variety of functions found in liver and kidney cells

176
Q

H2O2 is toxic but cells can be formed into water and oxygen by the enzyme

BIOL 315 (4 decks)

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