Exam 1 Flashcards

(125 cards)

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural, connective tissues

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast- form bone
Osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone
Osteoblast- remodel bone

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3
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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4
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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5
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type 1

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6
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

What is Wolffs Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors, Bone is formed or absorbed in response to stressors

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8
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

The ability to heal
To remodel under stressors
To age

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9
Q

Bone is embryology all derivative of which specific connective tissues?

A

Mesenchyme and or cartilage

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10
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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11
Q

What is the timing of the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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12
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Skull

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13
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is partially formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Clavicle

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

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16
Q

What part of the skull is derived from Endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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17
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers of ossification appear BEFORE birth

Secondary centers of ossification appear AFTER birth

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18
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation ( growth or age variation), geographic or population based variation (ethnicity), and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation).

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19
Q

What are the six more commonly classifications of normal bone?

A
Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones
Irregular bones
Paranasal sinus
Sesamoid
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20
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal anatomy?

A

Heterotrophic and accessory bone

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21
Q

What is the name give to bone formed in a non bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

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22
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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23
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

They are essentially cuboidal

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24
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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25
What are examples of flat bones?
The parietal bone and sternum
26
What is characteristic of irregular bone?
Numerous projections or irregular outlines
27
What is characteristic of pneumatic bone
Air spaces within the bone
28
What are examples of pneumatic bone
Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal
29
What bones constrain paranasal sinuses
Frontal ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid
30
What is the characteristic of Sesamoid bone
The bone develops within a tendon
31
What are consistent examples of Sesamoid bones
Patella and pisiform
32
What are examples of heterotrophic bone
Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments
33
What are examples of accessory bone
Para articular processes and bony Spurs of vertebrae
34
What are the four basic surface feature categories
Elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets
35
What are the types of osseous elevations
Linear, rounded, and sharp
36
What are the types of osseous linear elevation
The line, ridge, crest
37
What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevation
Transverse lines of sternum
38
What is an example of an osseous ridge elevation
Sacral transverse ridges
39
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberousity and malleolous
40
What is the definition of an osseous trochanter
A large blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height
41
What is the definition of an osseous malleolus
A hammerhead like elevation on the surface on bone
42
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations
Spine and process
43
What is the definition of an osseous process
A relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length
44
What are the categories of osseous depressions
Linear and rounded depressions
45
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions
Notch or incisure, groove, sulcus
46
What is the definition of an osseous sulcus
A wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone
47
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions
The fovea and fossa
48
What is the definition of an osseous fossa
A deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone
49
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone
Ostium or orifice and hiatus
50
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus
An irregular opening on the surface of bone
51
What are the names given to osseous Ostia which completely penetrate bone
For amen or canal
52
What is the definition of an osseous foramen
An ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone
53
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway
Meat us
54
What is the definition of an osseous fissure
An irregular slit like or crack like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
55
What are the categories of osseous facets
Flat facets and rounded facets
56
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets
Articular heads and articular condyles
57
What is the definition of an osseous condyles
A knuckle shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation
58
What bones from the axial skeleton
Skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
59
What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull
The neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles
60
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull
28
61
What is the facial skeleton
The bones that support the face
62
How many bones form the facial skeleton
14
63
What bones form the splanchnocranium
Vomer,nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic
64
How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles
6
65
How many bones are present in the adult hyoid
1
66
What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column
7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, 1 coccyx
67
What is the name given to the press real region of the typical adult vertebral column
The spine
68
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine
24
69
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum
1
70
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton
12 pair or 24 ribs
71
What constitutes the spine
The 24 presacral segments, the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
72
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae
The ant bear and three toed sloth
73
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae
The manatee and two word sloth
74
What does the term "thoracic" refer to
Breast plate or chest, it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
75
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest
The dorsal segments, the dorsal
76
What does the term "lumbar" refer to
The loin, the region between the rib and hip
77
What does the term coccyx refer to
A cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak
78
What is the length of a typical male spinal column
About 70 centimeters or 28 inches
79
What is the length of a typical female spinal column
60 centimeters or 25 inches
80
Difference in spinal column length from male to female
3 inches
81
What is male cervical region
12 centimeters or 5 inches
82
What is the length of male thoracic region
28 centimeters or 11 inches
83
Length of male lumbar region
18 centimeters or 7 inches
84
Length of the male sacrum
12 centimeters or 5 inches
85
What is the length of the male spine?
58 centimeters or 23 inches
86
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation
Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
87
What levels of the column are weight bearing
=S1-S3 at the agricultural surface
88
Distinguish between locomotion and motion
Motion is movement without travel, locomotion is movement to a new site or location
89
What organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull
The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
90
What are the 3 layers of embryo called
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
91
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what
Notochord
92
What is the name of mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column
Paraxial mesoderm
93
What does parasail mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column
So mites
94
Name the areas of cellular differtiation formed within the Somite
Sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome
95
What part of the Somite will give rise to the vertebral column
Sclerotium E
96
List in order the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development
Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal, or osseous
97
Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature
Perichordal blasts a
98
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes
Neural processes and costal processes
99
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae
Intersegmental artery
100
Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema results in what
A loose cranial sclerotomomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite
101
What forms between the sclerotomite and the perichordal blastema
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)
102
The intrasclerotomal fissure gives rise to what developmental feature
The perichordal disc
103
The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature
The intervertebral disc
104
What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc
The intrasclerotomal fissure
105
The Union of the dense caudal sclerotomite and loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature
The vertebral blastema
106
What vessels will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema
The segmental artery
107
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage
Chondrification
108
Chondrification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column
The cervical region
109
What are the names given to the centers of Chondrification within the vertebral blastema
Centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center
110
How many centers of Chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema
Six, 2 in the centrum, 2 neural arch, 2 for each transverse process
111
What is the earlies time centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebrae
During the 7th embryonic week
112
Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column
The lower cervical-upper thoracic region
113
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebrae
3 primary centers, 5 secondary centers
114
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification. Of a typical vertebra
Centrum centers and neural arch centers
115
How many primary centers of ossification appear in typical vertebra
Three, 1 centrum, 2 in neural arches
116
What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification
Cartilage synchondrosis, amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
117
What are the names of the synchondrosis forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra
Neuro central synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis
118
What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra
Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
119
How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra
Five, 1 for each tip of transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous, and 1 for each epiphyseal plate
120
What is the classification of the joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra
Cartilage synchondrosis/ amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
121
What are the names of the synchondrosis forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra
Tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis
122
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra
During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
123
What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra
The vertebral body, vertebral arch and the apophyseal regions
124
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine
Cervical- rectangular Thoracic- triangular Lumbar- reniform
125
What is the name give to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body
Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rime