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Spinal Anatomy Exam 1 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural, connective tissues

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast- form bone
Osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone
Osteoblast- remodel bone

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3
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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4
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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5
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type 1

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6
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

What is Wolffs Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors, Bone is formed or absorbed in response to stressors

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8
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

The ability to heal
To remodel under stressors
To age

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9
Q

Bone is embryology all derivative of which specific connective tissues?

A

Mesenchyme and or cartilage

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10
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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11
Q

What is the timing of the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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12
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Skull

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13
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is partially formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Clavicle

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

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16
Q

What part of the skull is derived from Endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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17
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers of ossification appear BEFORE birth

Secondary centers of ossification appear AFTER birth

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18
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation ( growth or age variation), geographic or population based variation (ethnicity), and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation).

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19
Q

What are the six more commonly classifications of normal bone?

A 
Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones
Irregular bones
Paranasal sinus
Sesamoid
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20
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal anatomy?

A

Heterotrophic and accessory bone

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21
Q

What is the name give to bone formed in a non bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

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22
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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23
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

They are essentially cuboidal

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24
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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25
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

The parietal bone and sternum

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26
Q

What is characteristic of irregular bone?

A

Numerous projections or irregular outlines

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27
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone

A

Air spaces within the bone

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28
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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29
Q

What bones constrain paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

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30
Q

What is the characteristic of Sesamoid bone

A

The bone develops within a tendon

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31
Q

What are consistent examples of Sesamoid bones

A

Patella and pisiform

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32
Q

What are examples of heterotrophic bone

A

Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments

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33
Q

What are examples of accessory bone

A

Para articular processes and bony Spurs of vertebrae

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34
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories

A

Elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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35
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations

A

Linear, rounded, and sharp

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36
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation

A

The line, ridge, crest

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37
Q

What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevation

A

Transverse lines of sternum

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38
Q

What is an example of an osseous ridge elevation

A

Sacral transverse ridges

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39
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberousity and malleolous

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40
Q

What is the definition of an osseous trochanter

A

A large blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height

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41
Q

What is the definition of an osseous malleolus

A

A hammerhead like elevation on the surface on bone

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42
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations

A

Spine and process

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43
Q

What is the definition of an osseous process

A

A relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length

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44
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions

A

Linear and rounded depressions

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45
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions

A

Notch or incisure, groove, sulcus

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46
Q

What is the definition of an osseous sulcus

A

A wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone

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47
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions

A

The fovea and fossa

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fossa

A

A deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone

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49
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone

A

Ostium or orifice and hiatus

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50
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus

A

An irregular opening on the surface of bone

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51
Q

What are the names given to osseous Ostia which completely penetrate bone

A

For amen or canal

52
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen

A

An ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone

53
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway

A

Meat us

54
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure

A

An irregular slit like or crack like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

55
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

56
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

57
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyles

A

A knuckle shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

58
Q

What bones from the axial skeleton

A

Skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

59
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull

A

The neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles

60
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull

A

28

61
Q

What is the facial skeleton

A

The bones that support the face

62
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton

A

14

63
Q

What bones form the splanchnocranium

A

Vomer,nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic

64
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles

A

6

65
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid

A

1

66
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, 1 coccyx

67
Q

What is the name given to the press real region of the typical adult vertebral column

A

The spine

68
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine

A

24

69
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum

A

1

70
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

71
Q

What constitutes the spine

A

The 24 presacral segments, the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

72
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae

A

The ant bear and three toed sloth

73
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae

A

The manatee and two word sloth

74
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to

A

Breast plate or chest, it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

75
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest

A

The dorsal segments, the dorsal

76
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to

A

The loin, the region between the rib and hip

77
Q

What does the term coccyx refer to

A

A cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak

78
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column

A

About 70 centimeters or 28 inches

79
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column

A

60 centimeters or 25 inches

80
Q

Difference in spinal column length from male to female

A

3 inches

81
Q

What is male cervical region

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

82
Q

What is the length of male thoracic region

A

28 centimeters or 11 inches

83
Q

Length of male lumbar region

A

18 centimeters or 7 inches

84
Q

Length of the male sacrum

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

85
Q

What is the length of the male spine?

A

58 centimeters or 23 inches

86
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

87
Q

What levels of the column are weight bearing

A

=S1-S3 at the agricultural surface

88
Q

Distinguish between locomotion and motion

A

Motion is movement without travel, locomotion is movement to a new site or location

89
Q

What organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

90
Q

What are the 3 layers of embryo called

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

91
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what

A

Notochord

92
Q

What is the name of mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column

A

Paraxial mesoderm

93
Q

What does parasail mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column

A

So mites

94
Q

Name the areas of cellular differtiation formed within the Somite

A

Sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

95
Q

What part of the Somite will give rise to the vertebral column

A

Sclerotium E

96
Q

List in order the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development

A

Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal, or osseous

97
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature

A

Perichordal blasts a

98
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes

A

Neural processes and costal processes

99
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae

A

Intersegmental artery

100
Q

Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema results in what

A

A loose cranial sclerotomomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite

101
Q

What forms between the sclerotomite and the perichordal blastema

A

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)

102
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure gives rise to what developmental feature

A

The perichordal disc

103
Q

The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature

A

The intervertebral disc

104
Q

What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc

A

The intrasclerotomal fissure

105
Q

The Union of the dense caudal sclerotomite and loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature

A

The vertebral blastema

106
Q

What vessels will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema

A

The segmental artery

107
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage

A

Chondrification

108
Q

Chondrification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column

A

The cervical region

109
Q

What are the names given to the centers of Chondrification within the vertebral blastema

A

Centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

110
Q

How many centers of Chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema

A

Six, 2 in the centrum, 2 neural arch, 2 for each transverse process

111
Q

What is the earlies time centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebrae

A

During the 7th embryonic week

112
Q

Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column

A

The lower cervical-upper thoracic region

113
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebrae

A

3 primary centers, 5 secondary centers

114
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification. Of a typical vertebra

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

115
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in typical vertebra

A

Three, 1 centrum, 2 in neural arches

116
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification

A

Cartilage synchondrosis, amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

117
Q

What are the names of the synchondrosis forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra

A

Neuro central synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

118
Q

What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

119
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra

A

Five, 1 for each tip of transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous, and 1 for each epiphyseal plate

120
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra

A

Cartilage synchondrosis/ amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

121
Q

What are the names of the synchondrosis forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra

A

Tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

122
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra

A

During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

123
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch and the apophyseal regions

124
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine

A

Cervical- rectangular
Thoracic- triangular
Lumbar- reniform

125
Q

What is the name give to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body

A

Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rime

Spinal Anatomy Exam 1 (1 decks)

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