Exam #1 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is toestablish a standard performance criterion for the average productivity rate in that organization.
    rank-order the people in the organization in the most cost-effective manner.
    maximally differentiate among the people in the organization.
    set the most attainable and acceptable production goals for each person in that organization
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.

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2
Q
  1. Differential prediction is one of the causes of test unfairness and occurs when:members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance
    a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion
    a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups
    a test has differential validity
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A. As described in the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, differential prediction is a potential cause of test unfairness. Differential prediction occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion (b.). Differential validity, also a possible cause of adverse impact, occurs when a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups (c.). When a test has differential validity (d.), there is a slope bias. Slope bias refers to differences in the slope of the regression line

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3
Q
  1. All of the following are examples of a rater bias except:central tendency bias
    ceiling effect
    contrast effect
    severity error
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

B. Rater biases impacts the accuracy of subjective rating scales. When a rater rates all individuals using the middle of a rating scale, he/she is exhibiting the central tendency bias (a.). When ratings of one individual are affected by ratings given to another then the rater is exhibiting a contrast effect (c.). Severity error (d.), also known as strictness error or bias, refers to the rater tendency to rate all individuals using the low end of the rating scale. A ceiling effect is not a rater bias, it refers to the measurement instrument’s inability to distinguish between individuals who have high levels of what is being assessed by the instrument.

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4
Q
  1. A personnel director devises four measures to be used as selection techniques for police officers. She plans on using multiple regression to combine the scores on the four measures in order to predict an applicant’s score on a measure of job performance. You suggest that multiple regression is not the appropriate method in this situation because:multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories.
    multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale.
    the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure.
    the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure.
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

It isn’t clear from the question what would be wrong with multiple regression in this situation. However, by process of elimination, only response C is correct. Responses A and B aren’t true about multiple regression, and response D is incorrect because multiple regression is compensatory and would be appropriate if a high score on one measure could compensate for a low score on another measure. Multiple regression isn’t the appropriate technique when the characteristics measured by the different predictors are noncompensatory.© Academic Review

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5
Q
  1. Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance:are the most valid across different jobs.
    is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items.
    are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone.
    is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

D. Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs (a.). For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively (b.). When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased (See: Schmidt & Hunter. (1998). The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 124(2), 262-274).

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6
Q
  1. Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that
    having employees work as a team with team goals results in lower productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals.
    having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals.
    having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been consciously accepted by the employees.
    having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been determined by the employees.
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

A current emphasis in the I/O literature is on team work, and the increased reliance on teams in organizations is supported by research showing that teams are more productive than individuals. Note that, in some situations, group performance is not as good as individual performance (e.g., in certain types of decision-making). However, this question is asking specifically about research related to goal-setting theory, so this is the best response. See A. J. DuBrin, Fundamentals of Organizational Behavior: An Applied Approach, Cincinnati, OH, South-Western College Publishing, 1997.

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7
Q
  1. Krumbholtz’s Social Learning Theory of career development and decision-making emphasizes
    self-observation and world-view generalizations.
    lifespan developmental stage.personality type.outcome expectations.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Krumbholtz’s social learning theory views learned experiences as the most important factors in career choice and preference, though it does acknowledge the role of other factors such as innate abilities and environmental events. According to the theory, generalizations about one’s self and the world, called self-observation generalizations and world-view generalizations respectively, play a direct role in career choice. For example, the self-observation generalization that one is very good at logical reasoning, and the world-view generalization that jobs in computer programming will pay more than other jobs in the future might lead one to pursue a career in computer programming. Regarding the other choices, lifespan developmental stage is correlated to career behavior in Donald Super’s theory of vocational choice, and John Holland developed a personality typology which links career choice and personality type. Outcome expectations could certainly be an example of a self-observation and world-view generalization, but the first choice is better because it names specific theoretical constructs associated with Krumbholtz’s theory.

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8
Q
  1. In applied industrial settings, Maslow’s theory has been shown to be:
    applicable for lower-level employees only.
    appropriate for supervisors but not managers.
    applicable across the board.
    not applicable.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

Maslow’s theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.

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9
Q
  1. The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when:the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low
    the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high
    there are many applicants for few job openings
    there are few applicants for many job openings
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

This question is referring to a test’s incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test’s validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).
Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test’s incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.

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10
Q
  1. A manager assumes that his employees need constant supervision and detailed guidelines in order to perform their jobs well. What management style does this reflect?Theory Y
    Theory X
    laissez-faire
    management by objectives
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. Managers adopting a scientific management model assume that workers are motivated primarily by financial self-interest (i.e., pay is the most effective motivator); that job demands must match workers’ skills; and that workers need detailed guidelines and constant supervision because they are incapable of regulating themselves or assuming responsibility on their own. Theory X is similar to scientific management: Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible; therefore, workers must be directed and controlled.

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11
Q
  1. According to the EEOC’s 80% rule for determining disparate impact of hiring practices on a minority group, disparate impact occurs whenthe hiring rate of a protected group is less that 80% of the hiring rate of another group.
    80% or more of applicants in a protected group are not hired.
    less than 20% of applicants for the job are members of any protected group.
    the number of people who would have been hired based on a random selection process is more than 80% greater than the number of protected group applicants hired.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

According to the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Criteria, disparate impact (also known as adverse impact) occurs if members of a protected class are selected at a rate less than 4/5ths, or 80% of the selection rate of another group. For example, if 2 out of every 10, or 20%, of African American applicants are hired, and 3 out of 10, or 30%, whites are hired, the ratio of the selection rates for the two groups would be 20/30, or 66%. This would indicate adverse impact against African-Americans in the hiring practice. Note that since this guideline was published, legal standards such as the Civil Rights Act of 1991 have held that failure to adhere to the 80% rule is not, by itself, sufficient to provide the basis for an adverse impact claim. Usually, additional proof, such as statistically significant differences between the hiring rates of two groups is required.

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12
Q
  1. According to Herbert Simon’s administrative model, decision-makers in organizational settings typically chose the:least expensive choice
    most “satisficing” choice
    best choice after weighing all the alternatives
    worst choice after weighing all the alternatives
A

The Correct Answer is “B”© Academic Review
Herbert Simon earned a Nobel Prize in economics, but was also known for his theories in psychology, computer science (artificial intelligence), and administration. The one thread through all of his work was his interest in decision-making and problem solving. His “administrative” model maintains that decision-makers cannot always afford to be rational, instead, they must choose the first solution that is minimally acceptable or “satisficing.” This is in contrast to another decision making theory, the “rational-economic model” in which decision-makers attempt to find the optimal solution to a problem.

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13
Q
  1. According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership?consideration and initiating structure
    employee-centered and production-centered
    autocratic and democratic
    authoritarian and laissez-faire
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (response “B”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people. (See: Stogdill, R. M., and Coons, A. E. (Eds.). (1957). Leader behavior: Its description and measurement. Columbus, OH: Bureau of Business Research, Ohio State University.)

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14
Q
  1. Job evaluation methods have been criticized for containing biases against work typically performed by women. This criticism most directly pertains to the standard of
employment equity.
procedural justice.
comparable worth.
job fairness.
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

The term “job evaluation” refers to procedures used within a workplace to establish the relative worth of particular jobs and tasks within the organization. If a job evaluation were biased against work typically performed by women, this would mean that the value of such work to the organization would be unfairly set too low. The term “comparable worth” refers to the standard that wages for jobs with different titles and/or duties should be based on their actual worth to the organization rather then the gender makeup of the workers in those jobs. In other words, a gender biased job evaluation would contradict the standard of comparable worth. Regarding the other choices, employment equity refers to multidimensional efforts to promote fair representation of minority groups in the workplace–not only through hiring practices but also through retention, promotion, and training efforts. Procedural justice refers to perceptions of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources. It is not as good an answer as comparable worth because it usually refers to perceptions rather than actual practice and because comparable worth refers specifically to the undervaluation of tasks that women typically perform. A bias in a job evaluation method relates more to distributive justice, or fairness in outcomes, because a job evaluation is typically used to establish salary. And “job fairness” is a broad term that generally means that distribution of workplace rewards, such as salaries and selection for jobs, is based on merit rather than some form of bias.©

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development?
Outward Bound programs
job rotation
coaching or mentoring
vestibule training
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

Management Development development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.

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16
Q
  1. Eagly et al.’s (2003) meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles comparing women and men found:
female leaders engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors than male leaders.
male leaders engaged in more of tThe Correct Answer is "A"© Academic Review A. The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. The results of Eagly et al’s meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles indicate female leaders were more transformational than male leaders, however they also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors - a component of transactional leadership. Male leaders were found to be more likely to manifest other aspects of transactional leadership, such as active and passive management by exception, and laissez-faire leadership. The implications of these results are positive for female leadership as it supports other research that has found the aspects of leadership style on which women exceeded men relate positively to leaders' effectiveness, while the aspects on which men exceeded women have null or negative relations to effectiveness. (See: Eagly, A. H., Johannesen-Schmidt, M. C., & van Engen, M. (2003). Transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles: A meta-analysis comparing women and men. Psychological Bulletin, 129, 569-591.) he contingent reward behaviors than female leaders.
female leaders were more likely to employ a laissez-faire leadership style
male leaders were more likely to employ a laissez-faire leadership style.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A. The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. The results of Eagly et al’s meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles indicate female leaders were more transformational than male leaders, however they also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors - a component of transactional leadership. Male leaders were found to be more likely to manifest other aspects of transactional leadership, such as active and passive management by exception, and laissez-faire leadership. The implications of these results are positive for female leadership as it supports other research that has found the aspects of leadership style on which women exceeded men relate positively to leaders’ effectiveness, while the aspects on which men exceeded women have null or negative relations to effectiveness. (See: Eagly, A. H., Johannesen-Schmidt, M. C., & van Engen, M. (2003). Transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles: A meta-analysis comparing women and men. Psychological Bulletin, 129, 569-591.)

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17
Q
  1. In an attempt to increase motivation among employees, a company begins to pay employees based on their output. This will most likely result in:
    increased job satisfaction and increased quality of work
    decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quality of work
    decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quantity of work
    increased job satisfaction and no change in quantity of work
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

If a person’s pay is based on output, his or her output is likely to increase, but the quality of work will not necessarily increase. This makes sense – if you are working so fast in order to produce more so that you can get paid more, the quality of your work is likely to suffer. In addition, increased pay is likely to decrease job dissatisfaction, as predicted by Herzberg’s two-factor theory.

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18
Q
  1. The motivation theory that proposes a continuum of needs that is comparable to Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory but attempts to overcome shortcomings of Maslow’s theory is
Equity theory.
ERG theory.
Expectancy theory.
Goal-Setting Theory.
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

The ERG theory of motivation proposes three categories of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth needs. Existence needs are material and are met by environmental factors such as (in the workplace) pay and benefits. Relatedness needs are met by relationships with superiors, co-workers, and subordinates. Growth needs are met by opportunities for personal development such as the chance to develop abilities that are important to the person. These three categories exist on a continuum from concrete to abstract; existence needs are the most concrete and relatedness needs are the most abstract. The theory is similar to Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory in that it proposes a continuum of needs, but differs in a number of ways as well. For instance, in ERG theory, a person can move back and forth on the needs continuum. Specifically, according to ERG theory, difficulties in satisfying the more abstract needs causes frustration regression, or a greater focus on fulfilling needs on the next level below.

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19
Q
  1. You are hired as a consultant by a large corporation. You evaluate the company and come up with a list of interventions that you believe would increase the company’s profitability. To encourage employees to accept these changes, you assemble them in a large meeting hall and give a speech explaining how your proposed changes will benefit the company and, by extension, the employees. Which of the following strategies for increasing acceptance to change are you using?
normative-reeducative
empirical-rational
power-coercive
advocacy consultation
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

This question refers to a framework that identifies three general strategies to bring about change in an organization: empirical-rational, power-coercive, and normative-reeducative. Empirical-rational strategies are based on the assumption that people are basically rational and, if they have all relevant information about a situation, will act in accord with their self-interest. Thus, a proposed change will be adopted if the proposer can rationally justify the change and show that it will benefit the members of the organization. The consultant in this question is explaining how the proposed changes will advance the self-interest of the employees; thus, he is adopting an empirical-rational approach.

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20
Q
  1. Low LPC leaders, according to contingency theory of leadership, are most effective when relationships with subordinates are:moderate
    very good or very poor
    very good
    very poor
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

B. Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) theory proposes that a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation, including the leader-subordinate relations. Fiedler described a leader’s style by scores on his Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) Scale and believed that leadership style cannot be changed. Rather, a leader’s is determined by the match between the leader’s style and the demands of the situation. A high LPC or relationship motivated leader describes his least preferred coworker in positive terms and is primarily person-centered. Whereas, a low LPC or task motivated leader describes his least preferred coworker in negative terms and is more task-oriented. Low LPC leaders are most effective in either “very favorable” or “very unfavorable” situations, in which favorableness refers to amount of control. High LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations

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21
Q
  1. You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they’re being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be toexplain the nurses’ concerns to the hospital administrators.
    conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators.
    act with the best interests of the hospital’s patients in mind.
    help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization’s underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and “fix” the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.

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22
Q
  1. Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in:corrective transactions
    contingent rewarding
    passive management-by-exception
    active management-by-exception
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

C. Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders’ rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been “contracted” to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers’ mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception. In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers’ performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.

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23
Q
  1. In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to:the willingness of a worker to exert effort.
    the strength of the worker’s needs.
    the desirability of the job itself.
    the desirability of the consequences of performance.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to three phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.

24
Q
  1. A high LPC leaderTreats his least favorite worker well
    Treats his least favorite worker poorly
    Treats his favorite worker like his least favorite worker
    Has an ambivalent style toward his workers .
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Fiedler’s Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader’s style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader’s style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader “treats” their worker rather than how they “describe” the worker.. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the “ballpark”.

25
Q
  1. A needs assessment is usually conducted to:acertain a job applicant’s skills
    describe the requirements of a job
    determine the relative worth of a job
    identify the needs of an organization
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. Choice B describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. And choice C describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.

26
Q
  1. An important decision when utilizing the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection is:how to weigh each predictor.
    which order to administer the predictors.
    if the same person should administer the criterion and evaluate predictor performance.
    which statistical test to use to assess if the results are significant.
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

B. Multiple hurdles approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures one at a time. The usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique is maximized by administering the predictors in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).

27
Q
  1. If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged:
20 to 25.
30 to 35.
40 to 45.
50 to 55.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you’re measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.

28
Q
  1. A company that creates an overall ranking of its employees based on a variety of performance outcome measures and fires the employees in the bottom 10 percent of these rankings is using a(n) ______________ method of employee evaluation.
forced distribution
forced choice
BARS
illegal
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

In a forced distribution, or forced ranking, system of personnel evaluation, employees are basically ranked against each other. The method requires managers to distribute ratings into pre-specified performance distributions or rankings (e.g., 1 out of 100, top 10%), etc. Regarding the other choices, the forced choice methodology basically involves using a multiple choice scale to evaluate employees on a variety of dimensions; the rater must select one statement from a set (two or more) of statements that best describes the employee. BARS stands for Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales. These are constructed by doing a job analysis to identify critical incidents, or specific behaviors that are associated with good or poor performance. Using such as scale, a rater would choose the behavior most characteristic of the employee being evaluated. Finally, the method the question describes is not illegal as long it is applied fairly, and in fact describes the method of employee evaluation that Jack Welch implemented at GE in the 1980s and has been adopted by many other firms

29
Q
  1. Criterion contamination would have the effect of
increasing the validity coefficient of a job selection test.
lowering the validity coefficient of a job selection test.
increasing the reliability coefficient, but not necessarily the validity coefficient, of a job selection test.
lowering the reliability coefficient, and therefore the validity coefficient, of a job selection test.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees’ scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let’s say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee’s job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees’ IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

30
Q
  1. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, an employee who is happy with which of the following job elements will most likely be satisfied with her job?
job content
relationships with coworkers
pay
job security
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Herzberg’s two-factor theory divides job elements into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors result in job dissatisfaction when absent, but do not lead to job satisfaction when present. Motivators result in job satisfaction when present, but do not lead to dissatisfaction when absent. Of the choices listed, only job content is a motivator. According to the theory, motivators are intrinsic to the work (i.e., they have to do with the job itself), while hygiene factors are extrinsic to the work. The other three choices are not directly related to the job itself and are classified by Herzberg as hygiene factors.

31
Q
  1. Which of the “Big Five” personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder?
low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion
high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (“OCEAN”) have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that “neuroticism” is sometimes referred to as its opposite: “emotional stability”.

32
Q
  1. Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
use of a forced-choice rating scale.
use of the forced distribution rating scale.
use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
adequate training of raters.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors – specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is “relevant”: unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won’t work.

33
Q
  1. Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have:
lower absenteeism
lower productivity
better decision-making
higher turnover
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate “C” (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes universality of the transactional-transformational leadership theory?
universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations within Western culture.
universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures
universality has been observed in business and government organizations within Western culture.
universality has been observed in business and government organizations in a wide range of cultures.
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

B. Research indicates the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcends organizational and national boundaries. The same relationships and conception of phenomena can be observed in a wide range of cultures and organizations. Studies of organizations such as business, education, the military, the government, and the private sector have provided evidence supporting universality across a variety of organizations. The applicability of the paradigm has also received evidence of wide support internationally in most continents. Unusual attributes of the organizations or cultures have been indicated as the source of exceptions to the universality of the leadership paradigm. (See: Bass, Bernard M. (1997). Does the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcend organizational and national boundaries? American Psychologist, 52(2),130-139.)

35
Q
  1. ___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.
differential validity
criterion contamination
criterion deficiency
researcher deficiency
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity (“A”) refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination (“B”) occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an employee’s performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

36
Q
  1. Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with:
complex job tasks
simple job tasks
increased individual satisfaction
collaborative job tasks
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have been shown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.

37
Q
  1. According to Edgar Schein, the concept of career anchor refers to:
the tendency to stay in a financially secure position regardless of personal interest
the motivation of priorities that define how people see themselves and their work
the motivation of advancement opportunities to stay with an organization
the tendency to stay in a position regardless of advancement opportunities
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

A person’s career anchor is his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career. Schein says that people are primarily motivated by one of eight anchors — priorities that define how they see themselves and how they see their work. The eight anchors include: technical/functional competence – a desire to excel in a chosen line of work; general managerial competence – closely allied with the traditional career path of the corporation; autonomy/independence – individuals just want to be alone; security/stability – value predictable environment in which tasks and policies are clearly codified and defined; entrepreneurial creativity – desire to create something of own and run it; service/dedication to a cause – the need to focus work around a specific set of values; pure challenge – seek to solve or master challenges; and lifestyle – organized around an individual’s private life. (See: Schein, E. H. (1978). Career Dynamics: Matching Individual and Organizational Needs. Reading, MA.: Addison-Wesley; Schein, E. H. (1990). Career Anchors (Rev. Ed.). San Diego: Pfeiffer, Inc.)

38
Q
  1. The predictor cut-off score of a selection test is lowered. How will this impact successful hiring?
increase the probability of false negatives
decrease the probability of false positives
decrease the probability of true positives
increase the probability of true positives
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

C. The term “positive” refers to individuals selected or hired and “negative” to those who are not. “True” refers to a correct decision and “false” refers to an incorrect decision. When a predictor cutoff is lowered, more people are selected overall, or there are more positives. Since the predictor criterion is lower there are more true and false positives. Therefore, the probability that those hired will be successful (true positives) decreases and the probability of unsuccessful hiring (false positives) increases.

39
Q
  1. Holland’s investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types?
artistic
    conventional
enterprising
social
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

C. Holland’s theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as “RIASEC”). The personality types reflect a person’s primary interest, or an environment’s primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic (a.), and less similar to the enterprising, conventional (b.) and social (d.) types.

40
Q
  1. The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory?
Three-needs theory
Theory X
Theory Y
Theory Z
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

B. McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers’ skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management. In contrast, Theory Y’s (c.) management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles. While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z (d.) examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization. McClelland’s three needs, or Learned, theory (a.) proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction. The theory’s three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one’s environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.

41
Q
  1. In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whetherthe examinee is likely to do well on the job.
    the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample.
    the examinee will be satisfied on the job.
    the examinee is suited to train others.
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following models of leadership provides a “decision tree” to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation?Fiedler’s contingency model
    Hersey and Blanchard’s situational model
    Vroom and Yetton’s normative model
    House’s path-goal model
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don’t include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model

43
Q
  1. The “paired comparison” technique is a method to:evaluate appropriate compensation
    determine qualification for advancement
    assess appropriateness of a hiring decision
    appraise performance
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

D. The paired comparison technique compares an employee to every other employee on each dimension of job performance.

44
Q
  1. According to Hersey and Blanchard (1974), a “telling” leader is most effective when employees are low in both ability and willingness to assume responsibility. A telling leadership style is characterized by alow task and low relationship orientation.
    low task and high relationship orientation.
    high task and high relationship orientation.
    high task and low relationship orientation.
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader.

45
Q
  1. When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, aremore precise but more difficult.
    less precise but easier.
    more precise and easier.
    less precise and more difficult.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It’s specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn’t take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn’t be as precise either.

46
Q
  1. Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time?Conscientiousness
    Extraversion
    Agreeableness
    Neuroticism
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

All of the Big Five traits are relatively stable throughout adulthood. However, several studies have concluded that extraversion is the most stable trait, while neuroticism is the least stable over time. In a meta-analysis of 152 longitudinal studies, researchers obtained the following stability coefficients: Extraversion (.55), followed by Agreeableness (.52), Openness (.51), Conscientiousness (.49), and Neuroticism (.46) [B. W. Roberts & W. F. DelVecchio, The rank-order consistency of personality traits from childhood to old age: A quantitative review of longitudinal studies, Psychological Bulletin, 2000, 126(1), 3-25].

47
Q
  1. Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say:More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
    Flexitime was a brillant invention
    It’s time for a change around here
    The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

According to Fiedler’s 1971 contingency theory, a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about work samples as a selection technique?less likely to discriminate against members of minority groups
    good predictor of job performance
    work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills
    work samples of verbal skills have more validity than work samples of motor skills
A

The Correct Answer is “D”

D. Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills. Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are acceptable to applicants.

49
Q
  1. ____________________________ is a basic concept of the organizational development strategy of process consultation.
Attitude change follows behavior change
Behavior change follows attitude change
Attitude and behavior change simultaneously
Changes in attitude and behavior follow insight
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A. Process consultation centers on distinguishing and changing obvious behaviors that disrupt the normal social processes of a job. A distinctive feature of process consultation is its assertion that behavior change is the main concern and precedes attitude change.

50
Q
  1. The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to
train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test.
have a second set of raters rescore the test.
use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories.
ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix “intra” means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories (choice C) are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.

51
Q
  1. Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of “ruffling feathers.” Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error?
central tendency
halo
leniency
severity
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A. Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees. The halo effect (b.) occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person’s behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person. You may have considered the leniency bias (c.) as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance. Severity error (d.), or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees.

52
Q
  1. The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that
the base rate is low and the selection ratio is high.
the base rate is high and the selection ratio is low.
the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.
the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

In a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you’d want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don’t need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.

53
Q
  1. According to recent research, the compressed workweek has the least impact on:
absenteeism
supervisor performance ratings
overall job satisfaction
satisfaction with work schedule
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A. A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek (increasing the number of hours per day and decreasing the number of days worked in a given work period) did not have a strong impact on absenteeism or objective measures of job performance. However, compressed workweek schedules were found to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule [B. B. Baltes et al., (1999). Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513]. Earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek have not been completely consistent with the findings from this meta-analysis.

54
Q
  1. A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person’s job motivation?
give him a greater number of jobs to do
give him more responsibility
give him more money
give him a longer lunch break
A

The Correct Answer is “B”

According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker’s motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the three forms of job commitment?
affective commitment
continuance commitment
instrumental commitment
normative commitment
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

C. Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Affective commitment (a.) refers to the employee’s psychological attitudes toward the organization; continuance commitment (b.) refers to the costs of leaving the company and normative commitment (d.) is the employee’s perceived obligation to stay with the company. Continuance commitment is least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations.

56
Q
  1. Research on differential validity of predictor tests has suggested that it
is rare.
when present, tends to favor minority groups over majority groups.
is a common cause of test bias and unfairness that negatively impact minority groups.
only affects the construct validity of tests.
A

The Correct Answer is “A”

A predictor test has differential validity when it is a valid predictor of outcome for one subgroup of examinees, but invalid or significantly less valid for another group. For example, if a test designed to predict college success predicted the success of whites fairly accurately, but provided little or no predictive information for African-American examinees, the test would have differential validity. Validity generalization studies have suggested that differential validity rarely occurs. Differential validity is not the same as differential prediction, which is a greater concern these days than differential validity. In technical terms, differential prediction means that the regression line (either is slope or its y-intercept) is different for different subgroups. In less technical terms, it means that given scores on a predictor test are associated with different outcomes for different subgroups. In differential prediction, a test can be equally valid for two subgroups, but the actual outcome or criterion scores are different for a given result on the predictor. Research on differential prediction also suggests that it is rare, though not as rare as differential validity, and some research shows that when it does occur, it tends to favor minority groups over majority groups.

57
Q
  1. The Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA) is a person-environment fit theory of career development that indicates employment tenure is tied to:
organizational culture
organizational justice
satisfaction and satisfactoriness
satisfaction and ability
A

The Correct Answer is “C”

C. Dawis and Lofquist’s (1964) Theory of Work Adjustment defines satisfaction as an individual’s satisfaction with a job based on how well it meets the individual employee’s needs. Satisfactoriness refers to the degree to which the employee’s skills meet the requirements of the job and to which the employee successfully performs the job. According to TWA, both are influences of employment tenure.