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Oral Histology D1 S > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

No ameloblasts = no ______

A

enamel

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2
Q

There are X # of crystals per ameloblast

A

one

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3
Q

Since ameloblasts are lost after eruption enamel … 1) 2)

A

1) has to be the hardest tissue

2) can not regenerate

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4
Q

What %organic and %inorganic component is enamel

A 
organic= 4%
Inorganic= 96% (mineral)
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5
Q

enamel can not be regenerated but it can be ___ (to a certain extent

A

remineralized

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6
Q

Between dentin and enamel, which material can be repaired?

A

Dentin. Enamel can NOT be repaired.

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7
Q

What are the inorganic components that make up enamel?

A
  • crystalline calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite) subsatued with carbonate
  • ions such as strontium, Mg, Pb, fluoride
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8
Q

What structure helps maintain hard brittle enamel?

A

a resilient underlying dentin

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9
Q

What will likely happen to enamel if underlying dentin is lost?

A

Will easily fracture, its hard but very brittle

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10
Q

What color is enamel

A

translucent, light yellow to gray-white

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11
Q

What are the various thickness of enamel?

A

max 2.5mm(working surfaces) to a thin featheredge on cervicle line

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12
Q

how does enamel differ from other hard tissues? 8 things

A

1) there is no pre-enamel (unlike dentin, bone, cementum)
2) crystals grow against the secretory surface of ameloblasts
3) enamel proteins do not play any major structuring function
4) enamel is already 30% mineralized when its being layed down
5) elasticity
6) color
7) no matrix vessicles
8) enamel lacks mineral modulating molecules (promoters and inhibitors)

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13
Q

What are the fundamental similarities between enamel and other hard tissues?

A

1) composed of hydroxyapatite crystals

crystalline calcium phosphate substituted with carbonic ions

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14
Q

Enamel crystals are organized into 2 units called ____.

A

Rods and interrods

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15
Q

Crystals are ____ shape in cross-section and run in a _____ direction along rods.

A

1) hexagonal

2) longitudinally

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16
Q

In regards to rod organization, name 2 characteristics regarding geometry and shape.

A

1) not a regular geometry

2) cylindrical

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17
Q

How does interrod enamel compare to rod?

A

Interrods have the same crystal morphology, but a different orientation.

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18
Q

What is found in the interface between rod and interrod enamel?

A

an organic sheath

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19
Q

Rods and interrods are closely packed and long ribbon-like carbanoatoaptite crystals measuring what width and thickness?

A

width: 60-70nm
thickness: 25-30nm

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20
Q

How does the structure of enamel change as it matures?

A

1) crystals become thicker
2) crystals have a different orientation
3) become more hexagonal
4) linear pattern can be seen in older crystals due to reflection of crystalline lattice (artifact)

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21
Q

What is the zone of confluence?

A

areas that crystals from interrod enamel enters the rod.

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22
Q

young enamel is a _____ texture compared to mature enamel

A

younger enamel is a uniform texture, has no rod sheaths

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23
Q

What are two steps that occur during mineralization?

A

1) crystals grow wider and thicker

2) phenotypic changes occur in ameloblasts

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24
Q

What are the phenotypic changes of ameloblasts

A

1) presecretory ( morphogenetic & histodifferentiation)
2) secretory
3) maturation

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25
Q

When does amelogenesis begin?

A

After a few microm of dentin is deposited at the DEJ

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26
Q

What happens during the presecretory stage of amelogenesis?

A

Cells differentiate, acquire phenotype, change polarity, develop and extensive protein synth machinery, prepare to secrete an organic matrix of enamel.

1) morphogenetic stage
2) histodifferentiation

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27
Q

What happens in the morphogenetic stage of amelogenesis?

A

the shape of the crown is determined

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28
Q

What happens during the histodifferentiation stage of amelogenesis?

A

cells of the inner dental epithelium are differentiating into ameloblasts

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29
Q

The presecretory stage starts from what are of the developing tooth?

A

starts from the cusp tip outlines

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30
Q

Describe the secretory stage of amelogenesis.

A

Ameloblasts elaborate and organize entire enamel thichkness.
Tomes processes develop at apical end of ameloblasts.
Amelogenin accumulates.

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31
Q

What is Tomes processes?

A

Short conical processes that develop at the apical end of the ameloblast.

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32
Q

What is the main protein that accumulates during amelogenesis? And at what stage?

A

Amelogenin, secretory stage

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33
Q

Name two main things that happen during the Maturation stage of amelogenesis.

A

1) transportation of ions

2) mineralization

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34
Q

How do ameloblasts contribute to maturation?

A

1) modulate and transport ions
2) become more active in absorption of water and organic matrix-contributes to mineralization phase
3) secrete an organic cuticle on the surface of enamel= primary cuticle

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35
Q

What is a primary or developmental cuticle

A

an organic cuticle on the surface of enamel formed by ameloblasts after they have completed their contributions to the mineralization phase.

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36
Q

The protection phase of amelogenesis is characterized by…

A

1) ameloblasts are shorter
2) ameloblasts contact the stratum intermedium and outer dental epithelium
3) The above fuse to form the reduced dental epithelium
4) when tooth erupts the reduced enamel epithelium is destroyed, but the cervical parts become the junctional epithelium

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37
Q

How is junctional epithelium formed and where?

A

As the tooth erupts the incisal part of the reduced dental epithelium is destroyed, but the epithelium present cervically interacts with oral epithelium to become junctional epithelium.

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38
Q

Ameloblasts can be described as what type of cell?

A

Tall columnar

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39
Q

What happens to ameloblast’s nuclei?

A

Reverse polarization

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40
Q

The initial layer of enamel is ____.

A

Rodless, but composed of interrods that extend to make a honeycomb like structure. End layer of enamel is also rodless.

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41
Q

Which way do ameloblasts move in reference to the dental papilla?

A

Ameloblasts move away from dental papilla, causing a change in vascular supply.

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42
Q

What happens after full thickness formation?

A

1) maturation of enamel starts
2) ameloblasts shorten
3) loss of distinct layers of dental organ
4) blood vessels invaginate but dont violate papillary layer

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43
Q

What happens when enamel is fully mature?

A

ameloblastic and papillary layers become reduced enamel epithelium

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44
Q

What does the reduced enamel epithelium do?

A

1) protects enamel from follicular cells

2) helps form the junctional epithelium

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45
Q

Describe the life cycle of ameloblasts in 7 steps.

A

1) morphogenic
2) histodifferentiation
3) initial secretory stage (no tomes’ processes)
4) secretory stage (tomes’ processes)
5) ruffle-ended ameloblast of the maturative stage
6) smooth-ended ameloblast of maturative stage
7) protective stage

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46
Q

What is modulation?

A

Going back and forth between the ruffle-ended emeloblast to the smooth ended ameloblast. Occurs during maturative phase.

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47
Q

Describe presecretory morphogenietic stage ameloblast cells.

A

1) cuboidal to lowpcolumnar
2) centrally placed nuclei
3) poorly defined golgi
4) cells can still divide

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48
Q

Describe what happens to ameloblas (cellularly) during presecretory histodifferentiation step. 8 things

A

1) elongation of cells
2) reverse polarization
3) breakup of the basal lamina
4) golgi apparatus moves distally
5) RER
6) development of tomes processes (proximal)
7) Cell division seizes!!
8) junctional complexes and terminal webs

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49
Q

What happens in the secretory stage of amelogenesis? 5 things

A

1) constitutive secretion (continuous, no storage of secretory granules)
2) proteins are released against the mantle dentin
3) mineralization starts concomitantly
4) tomes distal processes develop
5) formation of pit, interrod, and rod enamel

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50
Q

What happens to tomes processes during the secretory stage of amelogenesis?

A

they become longer and thinner, move distally (called Tomes distal processes)

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51
Q

What proteins are released against mantle dentin during secretory stage?

A

1) amelogenin (90%)
2) ameloblastin
3) enamelin

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52
Q

What happens to the basal lamina separating ameloblasts from predentin?

A

1) differentiating ameloblasts send cytoplasmic projections into it
2) basal lamina is fragmented and removed before active deposition of enamel matrix

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53
Q

Where do secretory granules of ameloblasts go?

A
  • translocated into tome’s processes
  • accumulate by secretory surfaces
  • recognized by infoldings of membrane
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54
Q

What are the two parts of Tomes process?

A

1) proximal tomes process (ppTP)- extends from the junctional complex to the surface of the enamel layer
2) Distal tomes process (dpTP) penetrates into enamel.

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55
Q

Which of tome’s process is first present?

A

the proximal part of tomes process

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56
Q

the interrod growth site is associated with witch tome’s process?

A

the proximal portion of Tome’s crocess

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57
Q

Rod growth cites are associated with which part of Tome’s process?

A

the distal portion of tomes process

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58
Q

Where are secretory granules released?

A

the infoldings of tome’s processes

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59
Q

how long does maturation of newly formed enamel take?

A

4 years

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60
Q

what happens (ultrastructural) in maturation of amelogeneisis?

A

1) crystals mature, enlarge, harden
2) matrix proteins and fluid are replaced
3) apoptosis of ameloblasts start (enamel knot at cusp tip)
4) modulation
5) secretion of basal lamina material that adheres/protects enamel (hemidesmosomes)

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61
Q

What is the significance of modulation?

A

Maintaining an enviornment that allows for accretion of mineral content, and loss of organic matrix. Ph alters which facilitates the process.

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62
Q

What do ruffle-ended ameloblasts produce and why?

A

Produce bicarbonate ions to 1) protect enamel from decalcification

2) maintenance of pH for matrix degrading enzymes
3) pumping of calcium into enamel

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63
Q

What do smooth-ended ameloblasts do?

A

leak small proteins and water out of enamel.

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64
Q

Which form of ameloblast exists at low pH?

A

ruffled-ended ameloblasts @ ph 5.5

smooth-ended ameloblasts @ 7

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65
Q

What form (ruffled or smooth) do ameloblasts spend most of their lives in?

A

ruffled

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66
Q

what do ameloblasts secrete as they enter modulation stage?

A

basal lamina (nueva)

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67
Q

What do ameloblasts form in basal lamina nueva?

A

hemidesmosomes, laminin-5, amelotin, NO type IV collagen.

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68
Q

What are some characteristics of amelogenin proteins?

A

1) have several isoforms
2) present in both x & y chromosomes
3) undergo major and minor extracellular processing
4) epithelial mesenchymal events

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69
Q

What is the function of amelogenins?

A

controls growth in thickness and with of crystals by forming nanospheres.

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70
Q

What happens in loss of function of amelogenins?

A

enamel defects that affect overall thickness and enamel rod strucure

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71
Q

Name the disorder in which a patient does not form enamel rods and what protein is involved?

A

Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta, amelogenins

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72
Q

What is the function of ameloblastin protein?

A

in newly formd enamel it helps stabilize the DEJ by adhering (secretory stage)

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73
Q

What results in loss of function of ameloblastin?

A

terminal differentiating ameloblasts detach from dentin and enamel formation is aborted

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74
Q

What is the function of the enamelin protein?

A

promotes crystal elongation

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75
Q

What is the result of loss of function of enamelin?

A

no defined enamel layer

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76
Q

What are three things amelotin protein is involved in?

A

1) modulating emeloblasts
2) basal lamina
3) junctional epithelium

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77
Q

2 things apin is associated with are…

A

1) modulating ameloblasts

2) calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

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78
Q

Name two proteinases of anamelogenesis.

A

1) enamelysin

2) kallikrein-4

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79
Q

What does enamelysin do?

A

cleaves ameloblstin and enamelin in the secretory stage- short term processing of enamel proteins

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80
Q

3 things about Kallikrein-4

A

1) serine proteinase
2) during modulation
3) loss of function = enamel hypomutation

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81
Q

loss of function of enamelysin =

A

formation of a thin hypomutated enamel layer….related to amelogenesis imperfecta hypomaturation type

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82
Q

When is kallikrein4 secreted and where?

A

secreted into full thickness enamel when ameloblasts loose their tomes processes and start their modulation cycle.

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83
Q

What is the function of kallikrein4?

A

slowly degrades residual amelogenins and framents from nonamelogenins

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84
Q

loss of function of kallikrein4 results in ___

A

hypomature enamel

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85
Q

Calcification mechanism: deposition of calcium salts on ____.

A

collagen fibrils

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86
Q

calcification is induced by.. 1__ 2___

A

1) high affinigy calcium binding proteins

2) proteoglycans

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87
Q

calcification is aided by ___

A

alkaline phosphatase

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88
Q

name 2 ways calcium moves from the blood?

A

through intercellular and transcellular routes

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89
Q

where do calcium crystallites form?

A

against mantle dentin

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90
Q

dentin may provide ___ for enamel crystallites.

A

nucleation (helps start crystal formation)

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91
Q

surface enamel is ____

A

most highly mineralized

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92
Q

what does the degree of mineralization do as it moves towrds the DEJ?

A

degree of mineralization decreases

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93
Q

mineralization _______ at the innermost layers

A

increases

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94
Q

what type of arrangement do rods have around the long axis?

A

circumferential

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95
Q

rods do not have a straight course except for where?

A

in the cervical, inner 2/3s adjacent groups intertwine

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96
Q

rods are oriented _____ to dentin surface

A

perpendicular with a slight inclnation toward cusp

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97
Q

what unique rod orientation is seen near the cusp tip?

A

gnarled enamel… vertical and twisted rods

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98
Q

rods are ____ at the cervix.

A

parallel

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99
Q

where do rods deviate in arrangement?

A

the CEJ

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100
Q

what are striae of retzius?

A
  • ground sections of calcified teeth

- incremental lines or weekly rhythm of enamel production

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101
Q

what is a neonatal line?

A

an enlarged striae of retzius

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102
Q

accented striae of rezius could be cause by ___.

A

systemic disturbances.

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103
Q

what are perikymata and where are they found?

A
  • endpoints of striae of retzius found on surace of enamel

- appear as shallow furrows, circumferentially horizontal lines

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104
Q

what are cross striations?

A

-changes in the organization of crystals

_structural interrelations of interrods and rods

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105
Q

describe bands of hunter-schreger

A
  • an optical phenomenon when rods change direction
  • seen in grounds sections, inner 2/3
  • appears as light and dark zones
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106
Q

What are enamel tufts and where do they form?

A

greater concentrations of enamel protein that appear from the DEJ into the enamel a short distance.
-developmental
_branched
_no clinical significance

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107
Q

What are lamellae and where do they form?

A
  • defects filled with organic material (trapped enamel organ or CT)
  • form from surface to varying distances within enamel
  • different from cracks
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108
Q

what are enamel spindles?

A

entrapped cytoplasmic processes of odontoblasts

-make a scalloped pattern

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109
Q

Name some changes enamel goes through with age.

A

1) lack of regeneration
2) enviornmental structural changes ex attrition, bruxism, abrasion
3) discoloration extrinsic and intrinsic
4) decreased permeability
5) progressive increase in Fl content

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110
Q

3 patterns of acid etching (dependent on crystal orientation)

A

Type 1- loss of rods
Type 2- loss of interrod enamel
Type 3- haphazard

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111
Q

acid etching can be done in which procedures?

A

fissure sealants, bonding, cementing, removal of plaque and increase of enamel porosity

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112
Q

Name an ex. of hereditary enamel defects

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

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113
Q

name 2 examples of developmental enamel defects.

A

1) hypoplasia caused by accidens, febrile disease, flurosis

- tetracycline staining

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114
Q

What does fluroide to to crystals?

A

makes them more resistant to acid dissolution by precipitating calcium phosphate

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115
Q

Name the process of tooth development

A

1) bud stage
2) cap stage
3) bell stage
4) Dentinogenesis
5) amelogenesis
6) crown formation
7) root formation and eruption
8) function

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116
Q

When does tooth development begin?

A

37 days of development

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117
Q

What is the primary epithelial band?

A

a continuous horseshoe-band of thickened epithelium in the location of upper and lower jaws, signifies the initiation of tooth development, forms the Buccal and Li vestibules

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118
Q

When/where does dental lamina appear?

A

Dental lamina appears as a thickening of the oral epithelium adjacent to condensation of ectomesenchyme. It begins to function in the 6th week of prenatal dev- contues to 15th yr after birth (3rd molars)

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119
Q

what is sucessional lamina?

A

lamina from which permanent teeth develop

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120
Q

Tooth development can be divided into 3 major stages…

A

1) bud stage
2) cap stage
3) bell stage

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121
Q

Describe bud stage.

A

characterized by rounded, localized growth of epithelium surrounded by proliferating mesenchymal cells, wich are packed closely beneath and around epithelial buds.

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122
Q

Describe the enamel organ in bud stage.

A

in bud stage the enamel organ consists of peripherally located low columnar cells and centrally located polygonal cells.

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123
Q

Describe cap stage.

A
  • Condensation of the ectomesenchyme next to the tooth bud (caused by a lack of extracelluar matrix secretion by the cells, prevents separation)
  • histodifferentiation begins at the end of cap stage
  • epithelial outgrowth called enamel organ (will form enamel)
  • dental papilla
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124
Q

Describe dental papilla in the cap stage.

A

ball of condensed ectomenenchymal cells

-will form dentin and pulp

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125
Q

Which cells differentiate into odontoblasts?

A

peripheral cells adjacent to the inner dental epithelium enlarge and differentiate into odontoblasts

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126
Q

What is the dental follicle or sac?

A

the condensed ectomesencymal tissue surroundign the enamel organ and dental papilla. It gives rise to cementum and the PDL.

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127
Q

Where do the PDL and cementum come from?

A

the dental follicle or sac

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128
Q

Describe lateral lamina.

A

An extension from the dental lamina that is connected to the enamel organ.

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129
Q

Describe an enamel niche.

A

An artifact produced during sectioning of the the tissue. Occurs because the enamel organ is in sheets rather than strands.

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130
Q

When are the inner and outer dental epithelium organized

A

cap stage

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131
Q

Describe an enamel knot.

A

A densely packed, nondividing accumulation of cells projecting from the inner enamel epithelium into the enamel organ. Exact role not known, maybe cusp develoment.

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132
Q

What is a dental organ or tooth germ?

A

A term used to constitute the structure that has enamel organ, dental papilla, dental follicle.

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133
Q

p21 gene expression is related to the appearance of what structure?

A

enamel knot precursor cells

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134
Q

Name two temporary structures that disappear before enamel formation begins.

A

Enamel knot and enamel cord

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135
Q

What are the functions of the enamel knot and the enamel cord?

A

Speculated that they are a resivor of dividing cells for the growing enamel organ.

136
Q

Describe the bell stage.

A
  • continuted growth
  • enamel organ resembles a bell, deepening of the epithelium over the dental papilla.
  • continuation of histodifferentiation
  • *beginning of morphodifferentiation.
137
Q

What is morphodifferntiation and when does it begin?

A

when the tooth crown assumes its final shape, begins in bell stage

138
Q

Describe the inner dental epithelium during early bell stage.

A
  • short columnar cells bordering dental papilla
  • will eventually become ameloblasts (by differentiating into tall columnar cells)
  • exert an organizing influence on mesenchymal cells of dental papilla which later form odontoblasts
139
Q

What cells form odontoblasts?

A

mesenchymal cells in the dental papilla

140
Q

What cells become ameloblasts?

A

inner dental epithelium

141
Q

Describe the outer dental epithelium during the early bell stage.

A
  • cuboidal cells that cover the enamel organ
  • organize a network of capillaries that will bring nutrition to ameloblsasts
  • later laid in folds which work with papillae to supply nutrition for enamel organ
142
Q

What structure forms between the folds of the outer dental epithelium?

A

The dental sac forms papillae that contain capillary loops that provide the enamel organ vascular supply

143
Q

Describe stellate reticulum.

A
  • star-shaped cells with processes
  • present between outer and inner dental epithelium
  • secrete GAGs
  • support/protect delicate enamel organ
  • not present in root portions
144
Q

Describe stratum intermedium.

A
  • cell layer between the inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
  • have high alkaline phosphate activit
  • help inner dental epithelium (ameloblasts) form enamel, needed for calcification of enamel
145
Q

Describe dental papilla in the bell stage.

A
  • differentiate into odontoblasts under the organizing influence of the epithelium
  • are first a cuboidal shape then acolumnar form and aquire the specific potential to make dentin
  • separated from the enamel organ by the membrana preformativa just before dentin is formed.
146
Q

What is the membrana preformativa?

A

the basement membrane that separates the enamel organ and the dental papilla just before dentin is formed

147
Q

describe the cervical loop

A
  • area where the inner and outer dental epithelium meet at the rim of the enamel organ
  • point where cells continue to divide until crown is full size
  • after crown formation will give rise to epithelium for root formation*
  • critical for root formation
148
Q

What is the “zone of reflexion”?

A

AKA cervical loop

  • point where inner and outer dental epithelium meet
  • critical in root formation
149
Q

Where is the enamel cord located?

A

extends between the inner and outter dental epithelium

-we dont know significance yet

150
Q

define epithelial pearls or cell rests of serre and name their clinical significance.

A
  • epithelial cells that remain from dental lamina and lateral lamina that should have disintegrated
  • clinical sig: cysts will develop (eruption systs), may form odontomas or supernumery teeth
151
Q

How is crown pattern determined & when?

A
  • bell stage
  • folding of inner dental epithelium
  • halting of mitotic activity within the inner dental epithelium determines shape
152
Q

Describe the vascular and nerve supply during tooth development.

A
  • clusters of blood vessels in dental follicle and papilla
  • coincide with position of root formation
  • enamel organ is avascular
153
Q

Describe the nerve supply during tooth development.

A
  • initally in the dental follicle during bud to cap stage
  • seen in dental papilla during dentinogenesis
  • nerve fibers do not enter enamel organ
154
Q

What is ameloblastoma?

A
  • tumors of odontogenic epithelium that may arise from cell rests of enamel organ or the developing enamel organ or other things.
  • histology resembles enamel organ epithelium with peripheral columnar ameloblast-like cells surroundign stellate-reticulum like cells
155
Q

What is odontogenic myxoma?

A
  • tumor of the jaw that arise from odontogenic ectomesenchyme
  • histologically looks similar to mesenchymal portion of a developing tooth (dental papilla)
156
Q

Describe the formation of the permanent dentition.

A
  • successional teeth develop from further proliferative activity within the dental lamina, lingual to decidous tooth germ
  • perm tooth develops lingual from deciduous tooth
157
Q

Where does permanent molar development come from?

A

-originate from dental lamina that extends posteriorly beneath the oral epithelium after the jaws have grown

158
Q

The entire primary dentition is initiated during which weeks of embryonic development.

A

6-8 weeks

159
Q

When are successional permanent teeth initiated in utero and after birth?

A

-20wks in utero and through 10th month after birth

160
Q

When are permanent molar initiated?

A

-between 20th week in utero (fist molar) and 5th year of life (third molar)

161
Q

When does hard tissue formation start?

A

at the late stages of the bell stage

162
Q

Which is formed first, dentin or enamel?

A

dentin

163
Q

Which structure initiates the formation of enamel?

A

Dentin

164
Q

Deposition of dental hard tissue is called ____.

A

apposition

165
Q

Where does the first layer of dentin appear?

A

the cusp tips

166
Q

After the first layer of dentin appears, which direction is dentin layed?

A

cervically

167
Q

What happens to columnar cells of the inner dental dpithelium?

A
  • they become elongated
  • reverse polarization (nuclei adj to stratum intermediate
  • become ameloblasts
168
Q

The boundary between the odontoblasts and the inner dental epithelium will be the future ____.

A

DEJ

169
Q

What is reciprocal induction?

A
  • differentiating odontoblasts and ameloblasts will recieve signals from each other
  • necessary for dentinogenesis and amelogenesis to take place normally
170
Q

What are the stages of apposition?

A

1) Elongation of inner ental epithelium
2) Differentiation of odontoblasts
3) formation of dentin
4) formation of enamel

171
Q

What type of collagen is found in dentin?

A

Type I

172
Q

What is the fist layer of dentin called?

A

Mantle dentin

173
Q

What happens at the same time or soon after mantle dentin is formed?

A

Inner dental epithelial cells differentiate into ameloblasts and secrete enamel proteins

174
Q

How do enamel proteins effect ectomenenchymal cells odontoblasts.

A

Aid in terminal differentiation

175
Q

Formation of enamel is called _____.

A

amelogenesis

176
Q

What cells do odontoblasts come form?

A

ectomesenchymal cells of dental papilla (need influence from inner dental epithelium)

177
Q

How are any acellular zones eliminated uring apposition?

A

increase in size of papillar cells (differentiating odontoblasts)

178
Q

If there is no inner dental epithelium there is also no ____.

A

dentin (or enamel)

179
Q

What does the inner dental epithelium secrete that effects the ectomesenchymal cells of dental papilla?

A

signalling molecules and growth factors

180
Q

Odontoblasts are highly _____.

A

polarized

181
Q

Which direction is the odontoblast nuclei polarized?

A

away from the inner dental epithelium

182
Q

What composes mantle dentin?

A
  • von Korff’s fibers (type III collagen fibrils)

- type I collagen

183
Q

What are dontoblast processes or Tomes fibers?

A
  • stubby processes on odontoblasts at the side closer to the inner dental epithelium
  • extend into the extracellular matrix
  • elongate and become active in dentine matrix formation
184
Q

What is another name for dentine matrix?

A

predentin

185
Q

How does predentin become dentin?

A

mineralization

186
Q

Which direction do odontoblasts move as dentin is deposited?

A

towards the center of the dental papilla

187
Q

What do odontoblasts leave behind as they move towards the center of the dental papilla?

A

cytoplasmic extensions that become surrounded by dentin

-forms a tubular structure

188
Q

The 2 steps of dentinogenesis include:

A

1) formation of collagen matrix (predentin)
2) deposition of calcium and phosphate crystals (hydroxapatite) in the matrix
- similar to bone

189
Q

Amelogenesis can be simplified into 2 steps:

A

1) production of a partially mineralized matrix (30%)
- second step involves influx of additional minearal coincident with removal of organic material and water to get 96% mineral content

190
Q

What are tomes processes?

A

short conical processes that develop at hte apical end of the ameloblast

191
Q

What is the difference between tomes fibers and tomes processes?

A

Tomes fibers: AKA odontoblast process. starts as a stubby process on an odontoblast that elongates and becomes active in dentine matrix formation
Tomes processes: short connical processes that develop at the apical end of ameloblasts

192
Q

Where does growth occur on the developing crown?

A
  • cusp tips
  • intercuspal region
  • cervical region
193
Q

When does root development begin?

A

-After the enamel and dentin formation has reached the future CEJ

194
Q

What is Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath?

A
  • epithelial cells from the inner and outer dental ep cells at the cervical loop that proliferate to form the root(s)
  • the root sheath determines if a tooth will have a single or multiple roots as well as their shape.
195
Q

What are epithelial cell rests of malassez?

A
  • fragments of root sheath that form discrete clusters

- persist in adults within the PDL adjacent to cementum

196
Q

What is the epithelial diaphragm?

A
  • the proliferating end of the root sheath bends at 45degree angle
  • encircles the apical opeining of the dental pulp during root development
197
Q

How do secondary apical foramens form?

A

-result of two or three tongues of epithelium growing inward toward each other resulting in multirooted tooth

198
Q

What direction do roots grow?

A

Down, relative to the eruption of the crown

199
Q

What also happens during root formation?

A
  • tooth begins to erupt

- supporting structures (PDL, cementum) form

200
Q

Which cells differentiate into cementoblasts?

A

-dental follicle cells that lie close to newly formed dentin

201
Q

Which cells differentiate into the PDL fibers?

A

-cells of the dental follicle

202
Q

Craniofacial defects as a result of damage during prenatal development would have to happen between which weeks?

A

4-8 weeks after fertilization

203
Q

A ball of differentiating embryonic cells is called ___.

A

morula

204
Q

How is a blostocyst different from a morula?

A
  • morula grows into a blastocyst
  • blastocyst has a primary yolk sac
  • blastocyst has trophoblast and embroyblast layer
205
Q

How many cell layers thick is the embryo during the 2nd week of gestation? What are these layers?

A
  • 2 layers thick
  • ectoderm and endoderm
  • Called bilaminar germ disk
206
Q

What forms the prechondral plate?

A
  • a firm union between ectodermal and endodermal cells

- forms future head

207
Q

How many layers thick is the embryo at 3 weeks of develoment?

A
  • 3 layers, mesoderm formed

- called trilaminar embryonic disc

208
Q

What does the primitive streak form?

A

-notochord

209
Q

What is on either side of the notocord?

A

mesoderm

210
Q

Name some major things that happen during the 4-8 weeks of development.

A

1) differentiation of major tissues and organs
2) differation of nervous tissue from ectoderm
3) differentiation of neural crest cells (ectoderm)
4) differentiation of mesoderm
5) folding of the embryo (2 plane- rostrocaudal & lateral)

211
Q

What does the neural tube develop into?

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

212
Q

what are somites?

A

segments of trunk paraxial mesoderm

213
Q

Name the 3 components of somites.

A

1) clerotome- 2 adjacent vertebrae and disks
2) myotome- muscle
3) dermatome- connective tissue

214
Q

What are somatomeres?

A
  • fragments of paraxial mesoderm

- contributes to head and neck musculature

215
Q

What does the intermediate mesoderm form?

A

urogenital system

216
Q

What does lateral plate mesoderm form?

A
  • CT of muscle and vicera
  • serous membranes of pleura, pericardium and peritoneum
  • blood and lymphatic cells
  • cardiovascular system
  • lymphatic system
  • Spleen
  • Adrenal cortex
217
Q

What are rhombomeres?

A
  • 8 bulges of hindbrain segments

- play an important role in development of the head

218
Q

What is the buccopharyngeal membrane?

A

the structure that separates the stomatodeum from the gut

219
Q

What is the stomatodeum and what is it lined with?

A
  • a primitive oral cavity

- lined with ectoderm

220
Q

What time frame does the embryo fold?

A

24 days to end of 4 weeks

221
Q

The oral cavity originates from what type of tissue?

A

ectodermal tissue

222
Q

The gut lining originates from what type of tissue?

A

endodermal

223
Q

What are neural crest cells? What does it form?

A
  • groups of cells that separate from the neuroectoderm, migrate, and differentiate
  • form cranial sensory ganglia & most of the CT in the head
224
Q

What do neural crest cells form?

A
  • cranial and sensory ganglia and nerves
  • adrenal medulla
  • ectomesenchyme bone and skull
  • dentin
  • PDL
  • alveolar bone
225
Q

What does surface ectoderm form?

A
  • epidermis
  • hair
  • nails
  • cutaneous glands
  • mammary glands
  • anterior pituitary gland
  • parenchyma of salivary gland
  • enamel of teeth
  • lense
  • inner ear
226
Q

What does neuroectoderm form?

A

posterior pituitary
pineal body
retina
CNS

227
Q

What does the intermediate plate mesoderm form?

A

urogenital system

228
Q

What does the paraxial mesoderm form?

A

muscles of trunk
skeleton except for skull
dermis of skin
CT (mesenchyme)

229
Q

What direction do neural crest cells migrate?

A

laterally and forward

230
Q

What is Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • defects of structures that are derived from te 1st and 2nd brachial arches
  • due to failure of neural cress cell migration to the face region
  • no mental handicap associated with the defect
231
Q

What tissue is between the ectodermal and endodermal layers of the pharyngeal (branchial) arches?

A

lateral plate mesoderm

232
Q

All arches have what type of tissue covering the outside (covers grooves)

A

ecotderm

233
Q

What type of tissue lines the inside of the 1st branchial arch?

A

ectoderm

234
Q

What type of tissue lines the inside of all but the 1st branchial arch?

A

endoderm

235
Q

What is another name for the 1st brachial arch?

A

Mandibular arch

236
Q

What is another name for the 2nd brancial arch?

A

hyoid arch

237
Q

What is the fate of the 1st groove and pouch?

A 
external auditory meatus
tympanic membrane
tympanic antrum
mastoid antrum
pharyngotympanic or eustachian tube
*all related to ear
238
Q

What is the fate of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th grooves?

A

they are obliterated by over growth of the second arch forming the cervical sinus

239
Q

What happens if the cervical sinus persists?

A

branchial fistula that opens into the side of the neck extending from tonsillar sinus
congenital annomilie

240
Q

What is the fate of the 2nd pouch?

A

obliterated by deveopment of palatine tonsil

241
Q

What is the fate of the 3rd pouch?

A

dorsally- forms inferior parathyroid gland

ventrally- forms the thymus gland by fusing with counterpart from opposite side

242
Q

What is the fate of the 4th branchial pouch?

A

dorsal: superior parathyroid gland
ventral: ultimobranchial body–> parafollicular cells of thyroid gland

243
Q

What doe the 2nd and 5th branchial arch do?

A

grow towards each other to make branchial grooves disappear

244
Q

What does each arch have?

A

cartilage
artery
nerve (motor and sensory)

245
Q

The cartilage of the 1st arch is called ___.

A

Meckel’s

246
Q

What is the cartilage of the 2nd arch called?

A

Reicherts

247
Q

Some mesenchyme around arch cartilage gives rise to ___.

A

striated muscle

248
Q

Sensory nerves from the branchial arches divide into 2 branches called ___.

A

1) postrematic branch: covers anterior half of the arch epith
2) pretrematic branch: covers the posterior half of the previous arch epithelium

249
Q

What is Meckel’s cartilage relationship w/ developing mandible?

A
  • indicates position of future mandible

- DOES NOT contribute to it

250
Q

What type of ossification produces the mandible?

A

intramembranous ossification.

251
Q

The malleus and the incus develop by ___.

A

endochondral ossification of the dorsal aspect of meckel’s cartilage

252
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is associated with which CN?

A

CN V trigeminal

253
Q

What develops from Reichert’s cartilage?

A

Dorsal end: stapes and styloid process

Ventral end: lesser horns of hyoid bone & superior part of the body of the hyoid bone

254
Q

Reichert’s cartilage is associated w/ CN ___.

A

CN VII facial

255
Q

What does the cartilage of the 3rd arch contribute to?

A

inferior part of the body and greater horns of the hyoid bone

256
Q

What develops from the 4th and 6th arches fusing?

A

laryngeal cartilage

257
Q

Name the nerve derived from the 1st (mandibular) arch.

A

Trigeminal CN V

258
Q

Name the muscles derived from the 1st branchial arch.

A 
muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, medial & lateral pterygoids)
mylohyoid
anterior belly of digastric
tenor tympani
tensor veli palatini
259
Q

Name the skeletal structures derived from the 1st branchial arch.

A

malleus

incus

260
Q

Name the ligments derived from the 1st branchial arch.

A

anterior ligament of malleus

spenomandibular ligament

261
Q

Name the nerve derived form the 2nd branchial arch.

A

facial CNVII

262
Q

Name the muscles derived from the 2nd branchial arch.

A

muscles of facial expression (buccinator, auricularis, frontalis, platysma, orbicularis oris and oculi)
stapedius
stylohyoid
posterior belly of digastric

263
Q

Name the skeletal structures derived from the 2nd branchial arch.

A

stapes
styloid process
lesser horn of hyoid
upper part of body of hyoid bone

264
Q

Name the ligaments derived from the 2nd branchial arch.

A

stylohyoid ligament

265
Q

Name the nerve derived from the 3nd branchial arch.

A

glosspharyngeal CN IX

266
Q

Name the muscle derived from the 3nd branchial arch.

A

stylopharyngeus

267
Q

Name the skeletal structures derived from the 3nd branchial arch.

A

greater horn of the hyoid

lower part of the body of hyoid bone

268
Q

Name the nerves derived from the 4th and 6th branchial archs.

A

superior laryngeal branch of vagus

recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus

269
Q

Name the muscles derived from the 4th and 6th branchial archs.

A 
cricothyroid
levator veli palatini
constrictors of pharynx
intrinsic muscles of larynx
striated muscles of esophagus
270
Q

Name the skeletal structures derived from the 4th and 6th branchial archs.

A 
thyroid cartilage
cricoid cartilage
arytenoid cartilage
corniculate cartilage
cuneiform cartilage
271
Q

Aortic vasculature development: where are vessels in wk 4?

A

aortic vessels have passed through each branchial arch tissue and disappeared. pouches project laterally between each arch

272
Q

Aortic vasculature development: where are vessels in wk 5?

A

-3rd branchial arch vessel becomes the common carotid which supplies the face by means of internal carotid and stapedial arterias

273
Q

Aortic vasculature development: where are vessels in wk 7?

A
  • prior to week 7: face,neck,brain supplied by the internal carotid
  • Week 7: circulation to the face and neck switch from internal carotid to EXTERNAL CAROTID. Internal carotid still supplies the brain.
274
Q

Which aortic arches disappear during development?

A

1,2,5

275
Q

The vessel from arch 3 becomes what artery?

A

common carotid

276
Q

The artery from arch 4 becomes what structure?

A

dorsal aorta

277
Q

The artery from arch 6 becomes what vessels?

A

right and left pulmonary arteries

278
Q

When do muscles in the 1st branchial arch become apparent? Spread to origin?

A

5th week become apparent

6th & 7th week migrate to origin

279
Q

When do the muscles from the 2nd arch grow upward toward the face?

A

Week 7

280
Q

Describe apparent fusion

A

fusion of facial processes by elimation of furrows

281
Q

Describe true fusion

A

fusion of facial processes by breakdwon of surface epithelium

282
Q

Muscles of the tongue come from

A

occipital somites

motor innervation does not come from branchial arches

283
Q

Between which days of gestation does the face develop?

A

24-38th days

284
Q

When does the 1st branchial arch divide into the mx and mn arches?

A

24th day

285
Q

How is the middle portion of the upper lip formed?

A

By the fusion of the medial nasal process (both sides) with the frontal nasal process

286
Q

How are the lateral portions of the upper lip formed?

A

fusion of mx process (each side) + medial nasal process

287
Q

How is the lower lip formed?

A

by fusion of the two mn processes

288
Q

how is the nasolcrimal duct formed?

A

fusion between lateral nasal process + mx process forming a canal

289
Q

the pituitary gland is _____ in origin

A

ectodermal

290
Q

The pituitary glad develops from what 2 ectodermal structures?

A

1) upgrowth from hypophysial diverticulum (rathke’s pouch)- adenohyopohysis, glandular
2) downgrowth from neuroectoderm of diencephalon called the neurohypophysial diverticulum- neurohypophysis, neural portion

291
Q

What happens to the pituitary gland during the 4th and 5th week of development?

A

4th: hypophysial diverticulum (rathke’s pouch) projects from roof of stomatodeum, adj to diencephalon
5th: pouch elongates and is in contact with infundibulum

292
Q

What do craniopharyngiomas devlope from?

A

remnants of stalk of hypophysial diverticulum

293
Q

Overall the palate forms between ___ weeks.

A

7-9

294
Q

When does the primary palate develop?

A

28 days of gestation

295
Q

What structures does the primary palate develop from?

A

frontonasal and medial nasal processes

296
Q

When does the secondary palate develop? Complete?

A

Develops between 7th, 8th week

Completes in the 3rd month

297
Q

When is the critical period of palate development?

A

end of 6th week to beginning of 9th week

298
Q

When does the tongue begin to develop?

A

4 weeks

299
Q

What makes up the anterior 2/3 (oral part) of the tongue?

A

develops from 2 distal tongue buds (lateral swellings)
median tongue bud (tuberculum impar)
from 1st brachial arch
innervation: CN V

300
Q

What makes up the pharyngeal part of the tongue? (posterior 1/3)

A

copula
hypobranchial eminence (2,3,4th arches)
innervation: CN
IX

301
Q

What is the terminal sulcus?

A

line of fusion between the oral and pharyngeal parts of the tongue. Forms a V shape in adults

302
Q

What is at the apex of the terminal sulcus?

A

foramen cecum

303
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue?

A

hypoglossal CN XII

304
Q

When do the lingual papillae appear?

A

End of 8th week

305
Q

When and how do tastebuds develop?

A

develop during 11-13th week by inductive interactions between epithelial cells of the tongue and gustatory nerve cells from corda typani, glossopharyngeal, vagus nerves

306
Q

Which tastebuds appear first?

A

vallate & foliate

fungiform and filiform appear later

307
Q

During which weeks does the thyroid develop?

A

4-7 weeks

308
Q

What is a lingual thyroid?

A

A thyroid that did not migrate down to its normal place beneath the hyoid bone. Located in the foramen cecum area

309
Q

What does the capsule of Meckel’s cartilage form?

A

sphenomandibular ligament

310
Q

How many secondary sites of ossification are there for the devlopeing mandible?

A

3

311
Q

Describe 4 important components in the timeline of the developing mandible.

A

1) mesenchymal condensation begins at wk 6
2) intramembranous ossification begins in the condensation at wk 7
3) rudimentary mandible is completed by 10wks
4) 3 secondary cartilages act as secondary centers of ossification, facilitate growth

312
Q

Mandible development: when does mesenchymal condensation start?

A

6wks

313
Q

Mandible development: intramembranous ossification begins in week ___.

A

week 7

314
Q

Mandible development: When is the rudimentary mandible complete?

A

10weeks

315
Q

Mandible development: what are the functions of the 3 secondary cartilages?

A

secondary centers of ossification that facilitate growth of mn until birth

316
Q

In relation to Meckel’s cartilage, what direction does the mn grow?

A

laterally and anteriorlly

317
Q

Name the 4 fates of Meckel’s cartilage.

A

1) posterior- malleus of inner ear
2) spenomandibular ligament
3) anteriorly, may contribute to mandible by endochondral ossification
4) remainder resorbed completely

318
Q

Name the 3 secondary cartilages.

A

1) condylar cartilage: most important, develops at 12wks, remnant persists until 20yrs
2) coronoid cartilage- develops at 4 months
3) symphysial cartilage: develops as 2 independent cartilages near CT of Meckels
* all cartilages above are not part of meckel’s cartilage

319
Q

Where does development of the Mx take place?

A

in the mx process of the 1st branchial arch from ONE center of ossification

320
Q

What cartilage does the mx develop in close association wtih?

A

nasal cartilage

mx has no arch cartilage

321
Q

What secondary cartilage contributes to mx development?

A

zygomatic cartilage

322
Q

When does the mx sinus develop?

A

16 weeks

is small and rudimentary at birth

323
Q

What intermediate structures of the tongue come from the 1st branchial arch.

A

median tongue bud

lateral lingual swellings

324
Q

What adult structure does the median tongue bud form?

A

none- overgrown by lateral lingual swellings

325
Q

What is the median tongue bud innervated by?

A

Li branch (sensory) of mn division of CN V

326
Q

What adult structure does the lateral lingual swellings form?

A

mucosa of anterior 2/3 of tongue

327
Q

What innervates the lateral tongue swellings?

A

corda tympani from CN VII

all taste buds except vallate papillae

328
Q

What intermediate structures of the tongue develop from the 2nd branchial arch?

A

copula- it is overgrown by other structures in adults

329
Q

What intermediate structure develops from the 3rd pharyngeal arch?

A

large ventral part of hypopharyngeal eminance

330
Q

What does the large ventral part of the hypopharyngeal develop into?

A

mucosa of most of posterior 1/3 tongue.

331
Q

the large ventral part of hypopharyngeal eminance is innervated by ___.

A

sensory branch of CN IX

also supplies valate papillae

332
Q

What intermediate structure developes from the 4th pharyngeal arch?

A

small dorsal part of hypopharyngeal eminence, forms mucosa of small dorsal region of tonge as adult structure

333
Q

What innervates teh small dorsal part of hypopharyngeal eminence?

A

superior laryngeal branch of vagus

334
Q

Occipital somites form what intermediate structure of the tongue?

A

myoblasts

335
Q

Myoblasts of the tongue form what adult structures?

A 
intrinsic muscles of the tongue (XII)
palatoglossus muscle (superior laryngeal branch of vagus)

Oral Histology D1 S (2 decks)

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