exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

t/f Inflammatory pathways promote thrombosis, which is responsible for myocardial infarction and most strokes

A

true

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2
Q

What is released from the endothelial wall, that promotes vasodilatation and limits platelet extension?

A

prostacyclin (PGI2)

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3
Q

Released from the platelet that promotes vasoconstriction and potentiates platelet degranulation?

A

Thromboxane A2

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4
Q

Which of the following is effective at dissolving blood clots

A

Plasmin – dissolves clots (from plasminogen)- only clot buster we talked about

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5
Q

name an anticoagulant we spoke about

A

Heparin; others include chelators, and dicumarol

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6
Q

What is the key step in blood coagulation?

A

the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin -(necessity for this conversion - Thrombin)

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7
Q

What is the key step merging of the intrinsic/extrinsic pathways

A

the activation of factors X and V

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8
Q

the release of platelet granule contents…

A

are potentiated by Thromboxane A2, not essential for the process to occur

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9
Q

Fibrinogen and prothrombin along with factors VII, IX, X are produced by which organ?

A

liver (nothing on other organs related to clotting factors

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10
Q

Concerning Ca++ role in blood clotting, which of the following statements is true?

A

required at all steps except the 1st two intrinsic steps

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11
Q

At a normal resting membrane potential of -85 mV, which of the following ions is closest to its Nernst equilibrium potential?

A

K+
during resting potential Fast Na, Slow Ca/Na are closed, K+ are open, therefore K+ ions free to move when they reach their Nernst equilibrium potential

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12
Q

A 2-3 X elevation in extracellular fluid of what ion can cause flaccidity and weakness of cardiac muscle in part by decreasing the resting membrane potential?

A

K+

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13
Q

What is the effect of elevated Ca++ ?

A

Spastic contraction

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14
Q

If end diastolic volume = 160 ml and end systolic volume = 120 ml; what is the ejection
fraction?

A

25%

160-120= 40 40/160 = .25

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15
Q

What percentage of blood from the atrial to the ventricle is actively pumped?

A

25-30%

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16
Q

Norepinephrine binds to which cardiac receptors?

A

Beta

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17
Q

muscarinic receptors are blocked by…

A

atropine (S72)

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18
Q

At rest, if you block both divisions of the autonomic nervous system, which of the following changes would occur?

A

HR will increase and strength of contraction will decrease

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19
Q

At rest, if you block the sympathetic nervous system, which of the following changes would occur?

A

both HR and strength of contraction will decrease

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20
Q

At rest, if you block the parasympathetic nervous system, which of the following changes would occur?

A

both HR and strength of contraction will increase

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21
Q

if you stimulate both divisions of the autonomic nervous system, which of the following changes would occur?

A

HR will decrease and strength of contraction will increase

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22
Q

what dominates inhibitory influence on HR, SNS – stimulatory influence on contraction

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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23
Q

What allows the action potential to spread from one cardiac cell to an adjacent cardiac cell, and therefore allows the heart to behave as a syncytium (many acting as one)?

A

intercalated discs

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24
Q

What delays the wave of depolarization from entering the ventricle, and allows atria to contract slightly ahead of the ventricles

A

AV node

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25
what creates only a diastolic murmur?
mitral stenosis -Diastolic
26
what creates only a systolic murmur?
aortic stenosis | pulmonic stenosis
27
what creates a diastolic and systolic murmur? (combined valvular defect)
patent ductus arteriosis
28
what causes a diastolic insufficiency
aortic and pulmonary insufficiency
29
what causes systolic insufficiency
mitral and tricuspid insufficiency
30
systolic problems
A+P Stenosis, M+ Tri Insufficiency, its reversed for diastolic.
31
Reperfusion injury following infarction is primarily associated with which of the following?
free radical production
32
overdrive suppression
drive a self-excitatory cell at a rate faster than its own inherent rate, you will suppress the cell’s own automaticity
33
sympathetic activity
+ HR, +Strength of contraction, +Conduction velocity
34
If the left atrial pressure is 7 mmHg., the left ventricular pressure is 100 mmHg., and the aortic blood pressure is 106 mmHg., what is the status of the valves on that side of the heart
mitral and aortic valves closed | rememeber the heart is all pressure gradients
35
Increased stretch on the ventricular fibers during filling, have what effect on calcium influx into the ventricular cells?
increase | “More Ca++ influx into cell associated with increased stretch, and increased venous return”
36
Which of the following has a positive inotropic effect on the ventricle.
thyroxine – Thyroid hormones have a +Inotropic (inc strength) & +Chronotropic (Inc HR) & Inc CO by Inc BMR
37
A wave of repolarization moving toward the positive recording electrode would create what type of deflection?
negative deflection
38
Depole Towards (+) & Repole Toward ( - )
positive
39
Depole Towards (-) & Repole Toward ( + )
negative
40
When does myocardial blood flow peak in the left ventricle?
at the onset of diastole
41
Which of the following statements regarding a prolonged QT interval (increased incidence of sudden cardiac death) is true?
males are more susceptible than females Prolonged QT also associated with Left Stellate Ganglion stimulation, higher propensity to develop ventricular fibrillation
42
If the sympathetic nerves to the heart are cut, and then the SNS is stimulated, heart rate will still increase, why?
circulating norepinephrine/epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
43
Under resting conditions, what percentage of oxygen is extracted by the myocardium from the perfusing coronary blood flow?
70%
44
The preferred energy substrate of ventricular cardiac cells is which of the following?
fatty acids - 70% | others include: glucose, glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, amino acids
45
At a constant operating pressure what happens to the wall tension as the radius of that chamber decreases?
decreases
46
No consistent relationship of P waves to QRS complexes describes which of the following?
3rd o AV block
47
1st degree
Depolarization wave from atria to ventricle is delayed excessively (But it still happens)
48
2nd degree
Some depolarization waves pass, others blocked
49
3rd degree
All depolarization waves from atria to ventricles are blocked
50
As heart rate increases, cycle length decreases, which of the following statements is true?
diastole shortens more than systole | at resting HR: systole
51
Most of the energy consumed by the heart for work is utilized for which of the following
pressurization of blood by the ventricles >99%
52
An inverted T wave is associated with which of the following?
ischemia
53
An elevated ST segment is associated with which of the following?
infarction
54
A PR interval greater than .20 sec. is associated with which of the following?
first degree AV block
55
A prolonged QRS complex (>.12 sec) is associated with which of the following?
left ventricular hypertrophy
56
A PR interval less than .1 sec. is associated with which of the following?
inadequate delay, possible accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricle
57
What is the major function of the AV node?
delays the wave of depolarization from the atria to the ventricle
58
What is the major function of the SA node?
normal pacemaker of the heart
59
What is the major function of intercalated discs?
allows the ventricle to depolarize as a unit
60
Which of the following changes in ion flux will slow the heart rate?
increased K+ efflux
61
Which of the following changes in ion flux will increase stretch of the heart
increase in Ca++ influx
62
A traumatized vessel will constrict; most of the constriction is due to which of the following?
local myogenic spasm
63
induced constriction from pain
SNS reflex contraction