Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Common Law

A

unwritten historical precedents created from everyday social customs, rules and practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stare decisis

A

“standing by decided matters”

legal principle that requires that in subsequent cases om similar issues of laws and fact, courts are bound by their own earlier decisions and by those of higher courts having jurisdiction over them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Procedural Law

A

body of rules that determines the proceedings by which legal rights are enforced (ex;search and seizure, procedures to be followed by arrest, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

substantive criminal law

A

law that describes what constitutes particular crimes and specifies the appropriate punishment for the offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

criminal law

A

aka Penal law
body of rules & regulations that define and specify the nature of and punishments for offenses of a public nature or for wrongs committed against the state or society (murder, rape, robbery, and assault)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

rule of law

A

aka Supremacy Law
belief that an orderly society must be governed by establishment principles and known codes that are applied uniformly and fairly to all of its members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

jurisprudence

A

philosophy of law or the science and study of the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

consensus model

A

criminal justice perspective that assumes that the systems components work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

due process model

A

criminal justice perspective that emphasizes individual rights at all stages of justice-system processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

conflict model

A

a cj perspective that assumes that the systems components function primarily to serve their own interests. Justice is more a product of conflicts among agencies within the system that it is the result of cooperation among component agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

crime control model

A

a cj perspective that emphasizes the efficient arrest and conviction of criminal offenders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

warrants

A

criminal proceedings, a writ issued by a judicial officer directing a law enforcement officer to perform a specified act and affording the officer protection from damages if he or she performs it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

social justice

A

ideal that embraces all aspects of civilized life and that is linked to fundamental notions of fairness and to cultural beliefs about right and wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

crime index

A

now-defunct but once inclusive measure of the UCR programs violent and property crime categories or what are Part 1 offenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Part 1 crimes

A

UCR/NIBRS offense group used to report murder, rape, robbery, aggravated assault, burglary, larceny-theft, motor vehicle theft, arson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

clearance rates

A

traditional measure of investigative effectiveness that compares the number of crimes reported or discovered to the number of crimes solved through arrest or other means (such as the death of the suspect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NIBRS

A

National Incident Based Reporting System

system that collects detailed data on every single crime occurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)

A

annual survey of selected american households conducted by the bureau of justice statistics to determine the extent of criminal victimization–especially unreported victimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Uniform Crime Report (UCR)

A

statistical reporting program run by the FBIs cj information services division. provides an annual summation of the incidence and rate of reported crimes throughout the united states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

actus reus

A

an act of violation of the law, also a guilty act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mens Rea

A

the state of mind that accompanies a criminal act, also a guilty mind

22
Q

Hate crime

A

criminal offense committed against a person, property or society that is motivated in whole or in part by the offenders bias against a race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, or ethnicity/national origin

23
Q

M’Naghten rule

A

rule determining insanity that asks whether the defendant knew what he or she was doing or whether the defendant knew that what he or she was doing was wrong

24
Q

Guilty but mentally ill (GBMI)

A

verdict equivalent to a finding of “guilty”, that establishes that the defendant, although mentally ill was in sufficient possession of his or her faculties to be morally blameworthy for his or her acts

25
Q

larceny-theft

A

unlawful taking or attempted taking, carrying, leading, or riding away of property from the possession of another.

26
Q

burglary

A

unlawful entry of a structure to commit a felony or a theft.

27
Q

arson

A

any willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn with or without intent to defraud, a dwelling house, public building, motor vehicle or aircraft

28
Q

assualt

A

unlawful attack by one person upon another

29
Q

statutory rape

A

no force is involved but the victim is younger than the age of consent

30
Q

miranda triggers

A

dual principles of custody and interrogation both of which are necessary before an advertisement of rights is required

31
Q

compelling interest

A

legal concept that provides a basis for suspicion less searches when public safety is at issue

32
Q

police discretion

A

the opportunity of law enforcement officers to exercise choice in their daily activities

33
Q

probable cause

A

set of facts and circumstances that would induce a reasonably intelligent and prudent person to believe that a particular other person has committed a specific crime

34
Q

reasonable suspicion

A

level of suspicion that would justify an officer in making further inquiry or in conducting further investigation

35
Q

good faith exception

A

exception to the exclusionary rule . law enforcement officers who conduct a search or who seize evidence on the basis of good faith and who later discover that a mistake was made mat still use the seized evidence in court

36
Q

plain view doctrine

A

ready visibility of objects that might be seized as evidence during a search by police in the absence of a search warrant

37
Q

landmark case

A

precedent setting court decision that produces substantial changes both in the understanding of the requirements of due process and in the practical day to day operations of the justice system

38
Q

emergency search

A

searched conducted without a warrant which is justified on the basis of some immediate and overriding need, such as public safety

39
Q

exclusionary rule

A

incriminating information must be seized according to constitutional specifications of due process or it will not be allowed as evidence in criminal trial

40
Q

fruit of poisonous tree doctrine

A

legal principle that excludes from introduction at trial any evidence later developed as a result of an illegal search

41
Q

Fourth Amendment

A

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no more it’s not issue, but upon probable cause , supported by oath or affirmation and particularly describing the place to be searched and the persons or things to be seized

42
Q

Fifth Amendment

A

No person shall be able to answer for a capital or otherwise infamous crime unless on a presentment or indictment of a grand jury except in cases arising in the land or naval forces or in the militia when the actual services in time of war or public danger, nor shall any person be subject for the same offense to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb nor shall be compelled in any criminal cases to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty or property without due process of law nor shall private property be taken for public use without compensation

43
Q

Sixth amendment

A

The accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the state and district where the crime should have been committed , which district shall have been previously ascertained by law to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation, to be confronted with the witness against him, to have compulsory process for obtaining witness in his favor, and have assistance of counsel for his defense

44
Q

Eighth amendment

A

Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel an unusual punishment inflicted

45
Q

14th amendment

A

Make due process binding on the states; that is, it requires individual states to respect the due process rights of US citizens who come under their jurisdiction

46
Q

Kansas City experiment

A

The first large-scale scientific study of law-enforcement practicing. Sponsored by the police foundation, it focused on the practices of preventive control.

47
Q

Ex post facto

A

Latin for “after-the-fact”. The constitution ex post facto laws which make acts committed before the laws in question were passed punishable as crimes

48
Q

Police community relations (PCR)

A

In the area police activity that recognize the need for the community and the police to work together effectively and is based on the notion that the police derive their legitimacy from the community they serve.

49
Q

Level of law-enforcement

A

Enforce the laws, apprehend offenders, prevent crime, preserve the peace and tranquility, provide the community and with needed enforcement-related services

50
Q

Durham rule

A

states a person is not criminally responsible for his or her behavior if a person’s legal actions were the result of some mental disease or defect

51
Q

Elements of a crime

A

The parts of a crime that the prosectuion must establish to obtain a conviction. If any one element of a crime cannot be established by the prosection, then a finding of not guilty must be entered as to that crime.