Exam 1 Flashcards
What effect does sample size have on your sampling distribution? In other words, how does sample size effect sampling error?
As your sample size gets bigger, your distribution gets narrower. You focus more on the actual effect and have less error in your results.
How do the amount of predictor variables affect type I error?
More predictor variables can lead to more redundancy and therefore more Type 1 error
What are the limitations to null hypothesis significance testing?
1) flawed logic. We want to know the probability of our data given the null hypothesis, but we actually get the probability of the null hypothesis given our data. In order to calculate what we’re hoping for, we would need to use Baysian statistics.
2) Correlations are rarely actually zero.
3) Impedes our ability to move forward as a field because we keep comparing to zero rather than to previous findings.
4) Turns a decision continuum into a dichotomous decision.
5) .05 is arbitrary
6) Problem with how we use significance testing–we often confuse statistical significance with practical significance.
What are advantages to null hypothesis significance testing?
1) good at penalizing design weakness
2) objective measurement makes it easy to interpret your results
3) objectivity makes it hard for people to discount results they don’t like
4) Widely accepted measure of success
What are alternative approaches to significance testing?
1) confidence intervals
2) effect sizes
3) meta-analysis
What does a confidence interval give us that a significance test does not?
1) more if a continuum than dichotomous, so you get more information than just yes/no
2) you see the variability in results. The confidence interval may not include zero so it may be significant, but if it’s very large then we might not be that confident in it.
3) confidence interval is focused on the effect size
What are Cohen’s arguments to using NHST as long as it’s alongside other things?
Add info here
Why does Cummings say we should give up on NHST altogether?
NHST is fatally flawed because it leads to non-publication of non-significant findings and overall makes research untrustworthy. We need “new statistics” (estimation based on effect sizes, confidence intervals, and m-a). If our goal is building a cumulative qualitative discipline, there is no room for NHST.
What are examples of effect sizes?
Raw mean differences
Cohen’s d
Pearson’s r
Partial eta squared (proportion of variance in y a given predictor accounts for)
R squared (proportion of variance accounted for in your regression equation)
What are Baguley’s two main arguments against standardized effect sizes?
1) what SD is used in the denominator can have implications for comparability.
2) standardization is bad at accounting for different versions of the same measurement instrument, individuals scoring particularly high or low on a variable, and different study designs. Since any of these changes would impact sampling variance, they would also impact standardized effect sizes.
What are the advantages to unstandardized effect sizes?
1) puts things in the unit of measurement of your study (more interpretable to people outside field of original unit of measurement is meaningful)
2) easier to calculate, therefore less prone to error
3) less influenced by unreliability, range restriction, and study design
What are the advantages to standardized effect sizes?
1) different advantages of interpretability
2) allows us to more easily compare across studies that use different measures
Why do we want to know the confidence intervals around effect sizes?
Gives us some information about the VARIABILITY. If the confidence interval for a small effect size is large, there’s a possibility that the effect size is bigger than the effect size itself makes it seem.
The Facebook study’s d was .02 and the confidence interval was .012-.03. What does this tell us?
We can be very confident that the effect size is very small.
If we have a d of .6 and the 95% confidence interval is .20-1.00, how do we interpret this?
The d is a fairly size able effect, but we can’t be very confident in it. The true effect size could be pretty small (.2) or very large (1.00)
What are the criticisms of Cohen’s d guidelines (eg Meyer et al., 2001)
His guidelines (.1 small, .3 medium, .5 large) sets the bar too high and is not in line with what actually gets published. Look at a lot of medical correlations–important things often have “small” correlations!
Boscow et al. also argue that benchmarks should be field specific. This has some feasibility issues, though.
Chris suggests there may be a balance somewhere.
What are the advantages to interpreting correlations with BESD?
It’s simple to calculate and can be really useful in communicating findings to community partners and the public.
What are disadvantages to interpreting correlations with BESD?
It makes a number of assumptions that may limit its scientific use, such as:
1) assuming variance in the two groups is similar
2) the formula assumes a 50% base success rate
3) assumes you have truly dichotomous variables, whereas in reality sometimes take continuous variables and artificially dichotomize them.
When any of these things happen, BESD becomes less accurate.
What factors matter for the standard error of a correlation?
The correlation and the sample size.
How do you interpret a 95% confidence interval for a correlation?
We can be 95% confident that a correlation from a population with an effect size (correlation) of zero would fall with in this range.
So if the correlation we’ve found is outside of this confidence interval, we can be pretty sure that there is an effect.
It’s backward like this because correlations are centered around 0.
What is a Fisher Z transformation for?
Allows us to compare a correlation to a value other than 0.
Why shouldn’t you calculate a pearson’s r (or a point-biserial correlation) when you’re working with a dichotomous variable?
You’re violating the assumption that the distribution of the two variables will be the same. The Pearson r only has a maximum of of 1 when this assumption is met, so if it’s not (as in the case of a dichotomous variable) the correlation will be attenuated.
What type of correlation do you want to calculate if you have a dichotomous variable?
A BiSerial correlation (not Pearson’s r and not point-BiSerial)
What kind of correlation do you calculate if both of your variables are dichotomous?
The best solution is a tetrachoric correlation, because it assumes underlying continuous variables.
Another option is the phi coefficient, but the limitation is that the correlation will be attenuated if if the proportion of people in each group is not the same (aka the variation is not the same)
What effect does unreliability have on correlations?
Attenuates them. For a regression, unreliability in X will lower the regression weight, but unreliability in Y has no effect on your regression weight.