Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

List examples of nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Tenofovir is the only one

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2
Q

List examples of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Nevirapine

Efavirenz

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3
Q

List examples of protease inhibitors

A
Lopinavir, Ritonavir (Kaletra combo) 
Tipranavir
Darunavir (with COBI)
Atazanavir (with COBI)
(Looks really do alter tips)
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4
Q

Which of the HIV drugs are the newest and cleanest?

A

Integrase inhibitors (raltegavir, dolutegravir)

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5
Q

Which HIV drug is injectable, and which class does it belong to?

A

Enfuveritide- receptor antagonist inhibitor (CD4 receptor blocker)

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6
Q

Which receptor antagonist inhibitor is rarely used, and why?

A

Maraviroc (an R5 receptor blocker) is used as a last ditch effort due to potential for X4 selection)

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7
Q

What is boosting? list examples of boosters

A

Boosting is adding a drug with CP450 inhibition to allow fewer doses per day
Examples include Cobicistat and Ritonavir

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8
Q

Which booster is safer and why?

A

Cobicistat is safer because Ritonavir (a protease inhibitor) may contribute to resistance

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9
Q

What is TAF?

A

Son of Tenofivir (the only nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor) that accumulates intracellularly, is more potent, and has fewer adverse affects (no nephrotoxicity)

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10
Q

List examples of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A
Zidovudine (AZT)
Lamivudine 
Emtricitabine
Abacavir
Truvada (2 in combo)
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11
Q

Which three HIV drugs also cover Hep B?

A

Lamivudine
Emtricitabine
Tenofovir (and TAF)

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12
Q

Which HIV drug cross interacts with antacids?

A

Atazanavir (with COBI)-a protease inhibitor- loves acid (avoid tums, PPIs, H2RAs)

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13
Q

Which class of HIV drugs often make good CP450s? Name a common side effect

A

Protease inhibitors, but they often cause metabolic disorders (increased lipid levels)

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14
Q

What is the drug of choice for PREP?

A

Truvada (an NRTI)

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15
Q

Which HIV drug should be avoided in patients with mental health issues?

A

Efavirenz (an NNRTI) causes nightmares

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16
Q

Which HIV drug is often associated with rash?

A

Nevirapine (an NNRTI)

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17
Q

Name the two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that are essentially the same drug with different dosing

A

Lamivudine

Emtricitabine

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18
Q

Which HIV drug often causes anaphylaxis and may require blood testing to determine sensitivity?

A

Abacavir

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19
Q

List examples of receptor antagonist inhibitors

A

Enfuveritide

Maraviroc

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20
Q

List examples of Integrase inhibitors

A

Raltegavir

Dolutegravir

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21
Q

List examples of STRs

A
Atripla 
Genvoya
Complera 
Stribild 
Triumeq 
(All good couples stay together)
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22
Q

Which HIV drug turns patients yellow due to increased bilirubin?

A

Atazanavir

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23
Q

Which HIV medication causes nephrotoxicity?

A

Tenofovir

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24
Q

Which substances are not bound by charcoal?

A

Cyanide, organic solvents, alcohols, lithium, minerals, iron (COAL MI..)

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25
To whom should ipecac never be given?
Children under six months, patients who are seizing or comatose, patients who ingested corrosive substances (Draino) (Relatively contraindicated in severe bradycardia, pregnancy, and hydrocarbon ingestion)
26
When is use of gastric lavage appropriate?
If carried out within one hour of toxin ingestion | use saline in children to avoid hyponatremia risk
27
When are cathartics contraindicated?
In ingestion of corrosives
28
List two cathartics
Magnesium with saline, sorbitol
29
Name an indication for use of polyethylene glycol
Whole bowel irrigation to purge entire gut of patients presenting late (more than four hours post exposure) or with ingestion per rectum of foreign bodies
30
When is peritoneal dialysis used?
Used to remove small, unbound, hydrophilic substances (alcohol) Especially in patients with renal failure
31
List an advantage and a disadvantage of hemofiltration over hemodialysis
Can filter toxins with larger molecular weight, but also removes platelets causing thrombocytopenia
32
Name the antidote for narcotic overdose
Narcan
33
Name the antidote for antipsychotic dyskinesia
Diphenhydramine
34
Name the antidote for iron overdose
Desferroxamine
35
Name the antidote for heavy-metal overdose
Dimercaprol (BAL)
36
Name the antidote for acetaminophen overdose
NAC
37
Name the antidote for insulin and beta blocker overdose
Glucagon
38
Name antidote for nitrate overdose
Methylene blue
39
Name the antidote for nerve gas and insecticide overdose
Pralidoxime
40
Name the antidote for cyanide overdose
Sodium thiosulfate
41
Name the antidote for ethylene glycol overdose
Ethanol
42
Name the antidote for benzo overdose
Flumazenil
43
What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
Supplemental high flow 100% oxygen, in hyperbaric chamber if severe
44
What is the antidote for rhabdomyolysis?
Bicarb
45
Which neurotransmitter is cocaine most similar to?
Epinephrine
46
What medication should be used in cocaine induced hypertensive emergency?
Labetalol
47
Which medication accounts for 36% of drug ingestion deaths?
TCAs
48
List two drugs that are structurally and chemically related to TCAs
Cyclobenzaprine and carbamazepine
49
What does the mnemonic TCA stand for?
Tonic clonic seizures, cardiac (tachycardia and conduction disturbances), anti-cholinergic
50
How can bicarb reduce acute toxicity in TCA poisoning?
Increased plasma protein binding of TCA, and stabilize fast sodium channels
51
What EKG changes are seen in TCA overdose?
Wide QRS complex
52
List the classic triad of opioid intoxication
Miosis, respiratory depression, depressed level of consciousness
53
Describe the dosing of naloxone continuous infusion
Initial hourly dose of two thirds amount needed to reverse respiratory depression
54
What is the goal of treating beta blocker overdose, and what is the drug of choice?
Goal is to reverse bradycardia and increase inotropy | Glucagon increases inotropy, atropine may be needed to reverse bradycardia
55
What drug can be given to calm patients who are violent, anxious, psychotic?
Halidol
56
What is the greatest danger of ingesting hydrocarbons, and what is the treatment?
Greatest danger is toxicity from aspiration and possible pneumonia (give clindamycin) No treatment required
57
Describe symptoms of a PCP intoxication
Blank stare, facial grimacing, abnormal posturing, regular respiratory pattern, visual hallucinations, self-induced injury
58
Describe the toxicity of organophosphate (insecticides)
Highly cholinergic (irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
59
List the parasympathetic, nicotinic, and CNS effects of organophosphates
Parasympathetic – SLUDGE Nicotinic – muscle weakness CNS – confusion, slurred speech, respiratory depression
60
What is 2-PAM?
Pralidoxime – cholinesterase reactivating agent with great effect at nicotinic sites used in organophosphate poisoning
61
Name the drugs used in lethal injection
Thiopental (barbiturate), paralytic, potassium chloride
62
When can benzodiazepines become dangerously toxic?
When combined with alcohol or other CNS depressant
63
What should be used in suspected but not confirmed benzodiazepine overdose?
Activated charcoal (avoid emesis and only use flumazenil in pure benzo overdose)
64
What is Fomiepizole and when is it used?
4-MP blocks affects of alcohol dehydrogenase without causing inebriation (given in alcohol overdose as ethanol alternative)
65
Explain the metabolism of ethanol, methanol, and ethylene glycol
Ethanol metabolized into acetaldehyde then to carbon dioxide and water Methanol metabolized into formaldehyde then to formic acid Ethylene glycol metabolized into glycoaldehyde then to glycolic acid and calcium ox crystals First by alcohol dehydrogenase, then by aldehyde dehydrogenase
66
What intoxication is suggested by presence of calcium oxalate crystals?
Ethylene glycol
67
What intoxication is suggested by sweet fruity order on the breath?
Isopropyl alcohol, which metabolizes to acetone
68
What should be administered in ethanol overdose?
Thiamine, glucose, and naloxone
69
How does NAC work in acetaminophen toxicity?
Replenishes glutathione which converts toxic intermediate into safe metabolite
70
When do LFTs peak in APAP toxicity?
Hour 72- when health begins to deteriorated
71
How long after acetaminophen ingestion is NAC effective?
Ideally 12, maybe up to 24 hours
72
How long after ingestion can acetaminophen levels be checked?
Four hours – then apply Rumack Matthew nomogram
73
What is Acetadote?
IV NAC administered with D5W
74
What does constitutes chronic use of steroids?
20 mg of prednisone for 14 days
75
What is the typical steroid stress dose?
50-100 mg IV of hydrocortisone, (20 mg PO if minor procedure)
76
What is the steroid of choice in thyroid storm?
Dexamethasone
77
Which steroid hormone is highly bound to cortisol binding globulin?
Hydrocortisone
78
List adverse affects of prednisone
Osteopenia, hypokalemia, weight gain, depression and psychosis, hyperglycemia, peptic ulcers (decreased gastric mucus production)
79
Which vaccines are live?
MMR, intranasal flu, varicella and zoster
80
How do you tell Demargination versus left shift in steroid use?
Left shift (due to infection) will produce bands
81
What is the drug of choice for Addison's disease?
Fludrocortisone
82
Why doesn't Medrol dose pack cause HPA suppression?
Six total days of therapy is too short duration for HPA suppression
83
Are steroid safe in pregnancy?
Maintain lowest possible doses and avoid fluoridated agents (TFDB)
84
Name the fluoridated steroids
Triamcinolone, fludrocortisone, dexamethasone, betamethasone