Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

At what rib level is the top of the heart?

A

Between 2nd and 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what rib level is the base of the heart?

A

5th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two phases of the cardiac cycle?

A

Diastole and systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During which phase do the coronary arteries fill?

A

Diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated

A

Norepinephrine increases activity of the heart by increasing HR and force of contraction Coronary arteries dilate/ Peripheral arteries constrict = increasing peripheral vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens when the parasympathetic system is stimulated?

A

By way of the vagus nerve slows HR, decreases force of artial contraction, decreases speed of conduction through the AV node In extremities: vasodilation on bowel bladder, & genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac output

A

The amount of blood that leaves the ventricles per minute, L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal cardiac output at rest?

A

4 to 6 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What influences cardiac output

A

Heart rate and Stroke Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stroke volume

A

the volume of blood ejected w/ each heart contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 3 factors influence stroke volume?

A

Preload Contractility Afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Preload

A

amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contractility

A

the ability of the ventricle to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Afterload

A

the force the LV must generate during systole to overcome aortic pressure and open the aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is AKA Left ventricle-end diastolic volume

A

Preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During diastole….

A

The filling phase ventricles must be able to stretch to accommodate the blood entering the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During systole…

A

The contraction phase Ventricles must contract adequately to eject the SV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to muscle length during diastole?

A

it lengthens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would cause an increase in SV?

A

An increase in preload or contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would cause a decrease in SV?

A

An increase in afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal ejection fraction

A

67% + /- 8% Clinically used as an index of contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

(2x Diastolic) + Systolic / 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What MAP range is it ok to perform PT?

A

over 60 MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Myocardial oxygen demand

A

MVO2 is the energy cost to the myocardium (HR * SBP) aka rate pressure product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does cardiac output measure and what are the normal values?

A

HR & stroke volume 4-5L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does stroke volume measure and what are the normal values?

A

Amount of blood pumped from the heart in 1 contraction .5-1 L/beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does ejection fraction measure and what is the normal value?

A

The heart’s ability to contract 55%-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does cardiac index measure and what is the normal value?

A

Cardiac output in relation to a person’s body size 2.5-5 L/min/m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does central venous pressure measure and what are the normal values?

A

Pressure of blood inside of large vein- jugular, subclavian 0-8 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is normal HR value

A

60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measure and what are the normal values?

A

Pressure in the L ventricle at the end of the diastole, it indicates the health of the L ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the formula for rate pressure product?

A

HR x systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What should happen to the rate pressure product as aerobic fitness improves?

A

It should go down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the first arteries that branch off the aorta? What do they do?

A

Coronary arteries supply the heart w/ oxygen rich blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the functions of the myocardium?

A

To extract O2 and perform aerobic cardiac muscle functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What part of the nervous system simulates fight or flight? What hormones are released

A

Sympathetic Norepinephrine increases HR and force of contraction Beta adrenergic receptors in SA node Catecholamine from adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are hormonal responses of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Decreases HR, force of atrial contraction, speed of impulse through the AV node, peripheral vasodilation, vasodilation of bowel, bladder, and genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What medications can be used to mimic sympathetic hormonal conditions?

A

Adrenaline, dopamine, epinephrine- increases CO Atropine- increases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What medication can inhibit the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are beta blockers used for?

A

To manage hypertension, anti-ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are general signs and symptoms of cardiac conditions?

A

Atrial fib, ventricular fib, Tachycardia, palpitations Fatigue, Dyspnea Fever, Weakness Pallor or cyanosis Chest pain, Edema Unusual sweating, especially at night Nausea, vomiting, anorexia Anxiety, Headache Syncope Intermittent claudication Heart block, reduced ejection fraction PVCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Beta blockers effect

A

Diminised HR response to ex! Sensitive to cold, orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Calcium channel blocker effect

A

May have dizziness, headache, peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Diuretics effect

A

Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, hypotension, hydrate during activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nitrate agents effect

A

Dizziness, headache, peripheral edema, and orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Anticoagulants effect

A

Risk of bruising and bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Contraindications for exercise

A

Unstable angina Symptomatic heart failure Uncontrolled arrhythmias Moderate to severe aortic stenosis Uncontrolled diabetes Acute systemic illness or fever Uncontrolled tachycardia (Resting HR > 100) Resting systolic > = 200 Resting diastolic > = 110 Thrombophlepitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cardiac rehab for myocardial infraction (MI)

A

Phase I : inpatient (levels 1-6 always monitored) Phase II: outpatient, professionally monitored program Phase III: community based, patient monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Strength Training following a (MI)

A

Pt must be at least 5 weeks post MI and in cardiac exercise program for at least 3 weeks At least 8 weeks post CABG Recommendations Large muscle groups before small No val salva!, no sustained tight grips Keep RPE at 11 -13 Slow, controlled movements Low weight, high reps Stop with onset of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How often should post CABG patients perform cardiac rehab?

A

A few sessions throughout the day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Things to consider w/ exercise for Heart transplant patients

A

Leg cramps (may be due to immunosupressive meds) Decreased LE strength Obesity and osteo-porosis due to long term corticosteroid use May develop athlerosclerosis in donor heart in 1st year post op The heart is denervated! HR will not be good measure of cardiac health RPE and BP are best measures Cardiac Rehab protocols, but with strict BP and RPE restrictions! Will have sternal precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Readiness to have sex?

A

If you can climb a flight of stairs you can have sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

During normal exercise when does stroke volume decrease?

A

When the HR spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens to total peripheral resistance (TPR) during exercises

A

Decreases as a result of vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are normal systolic and diastolic BP changes as a result of exercise?

A

Systolic increases Diastolic stays the same or may increase slightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When do you stop a graded exercise test?

A

When a patient becomes symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

On the Borg RPE Scale (6-20) was level is considered aerobic?

A

12-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the goals for patients w/ Coronary artery disease?

A

Increase aerobic capacity Ability to perform ADLs, home management, community and work activities Physiological response to increased O2 demand is improved Strength, power, and endurance are improved Ability to recognize and manage a recurrence Reduce risk factors Wellness, healthy habits, prevention Foster decision making re: use of health care resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is used to determine the exercise prescription?

A

Results from graded exercise tolerance tests, then determine appropriate MET level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens as a result of deconditioning?

A

Decrease in muscle mass, strength, cardiovascular function, total blood volume, plasma volume, heart volume, orthostatic tolerance, exercise tolerance, bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a MET?

A

oxygen consumed (mL) per kg of body weight per minute 3.5mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Efficiency

A

Work output= force X distance Work input= net O2 consumption per unit of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What responses to exercises provide additional O2 to the muscle?

A

Increased blood flow More oxygen can be extracted from the blood Important because oxygen is everything – with more mitrochondria, more oxygen is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are normal responses to exercise after 10 minutes of brisk walking and stairclimbing?

A

Increases in HR, BP, respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What additional factors can affect ones response to exercise?

A

Temperature Humidity Altitude Menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Benefits of aerobic conditioning?

A

Benefits: improved oxygen uptake with performance of regular activity More efficient performance of exercise Improved cardioresporatory fitness Improved fitness Psychological benefits Health and wellness benefits: prevention of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do you establish a target heart rate (THR)?

A

Max HR (220-age) * % Training % must remain be adjusted to the lower ranges for older, sedentary patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Name forms of aerobic conditioning?

A

treadmill walking, stair climbing, running, bicycling, swimming, jumping rope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

6 min walk test protocol

A

Take patient BP and HR measure pre-test Lay out a course and have patient walk at a brisk pace for 6 minute Re-check BP and HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is respirator rate (RR)?

A

Number of breaths (inspiration & expiration cycle) per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What occurs during restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Fibrosis of the ventricles leading to diastolic dysfunction Walls of the ventricle become stiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What occurs during dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Stretching and thinning of the heart muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What occurs during hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

thickening of the walls of the Left ventricle

74
Q

Systolic dysfunction can be further classified as?

A

ischemic or nonischemic *Ischemic HF has a worse prognosis

75
Q

When is diastolic HF detected?

A

After all other HF symptoms have been excluded

76
Q

What are the classifications of the New York Hearth Association Classification of HF?

A

I- no symptoms w/ ordinary exertion II- symptoms w/ ordinary exertion III- symptoms w/ less than ordinary exertion IV- symptoms at rest

77
Q

Exercise intolerance characteristics among patients w/ heart failure?

A

Fatigue w/ very low levels of exertion ie- brushing teeth or walking to the bathroom May only achieve half the normal increase in cardiac output during exercise Abnormal pressures within the heart, reduced left ventricular EF, reduced cardiac output, and increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure contribute to exercise intolerance

78
Q

Angina Scale

A

1- Onset of angina, mild discomfort pt. is familiar with 2- Moderate/sever pain, uncomfortable but tolerable 3- Severe angina pain, pt. will stop exercising 4- Unbearable chest pain, most severe pain pt. has felt

79
Q

Dyspnea Index

A

0- Count to 15 w/o a breath 1- Takes 1 breath counting to 15 2- Takes 2 breaths counting to 15 3- Takes 3 breaths counting to 15

80
Q

BMI formula

A

Body weight in kg/(height in meters)2

81
Q

Name two medical tests for patient’s w/ heart failure?

A

Echocardiography and Heart Catheterization

82
Q

Echocardiography

A

provides info about the size of the heart chambers, the thickness of the heart walls, valve form and function, and other info

83
Q

Heart catheterization

A

can be used to measure pressures at various sites in the heart and blood vessels

84
Q

What are two disease specific measures that have been developed to assess quality of life in patients w/ HF?

A

Minnesota Living w/ HF questionnaire (LHFQ) and Kansas City Cardiomyopathy Questionnaire (KCCQ)

85
Q

What are the 3 most important factors affecting the risk of exercise in patients w/ HF?

A

Age Intensity of exercise Presence of ischemic heart disease

86
Q

Exercise program for patients with heart failure

A

Exercise mode: the exercise prescription will include some form of aerobic exercise Brisk walking can elicit an adequate training effect in many patients with heart failure Exercise frequency and duration: severely compromised patients may require a longer rest interval between exercise sessions, with gradual progression Exercise prescription in all patients always includes adequate warm-up and cool-down periods Exercise intensity: generally, patients with heart failure can tolerate an initial intensity ranging from 40% to 70% of peak Vo2 Exercise progression: patients with a low initial exercise capacity will generally make faster initial progress than those who start at a high functional capacity Isometric resistance exercise should be avoided in patients with heart failure because it increases afterload on the heart Moderate resistive training in combination with aerobic exercise may be safe in this population Interval training allows the muscles to work harder than they could with steady-state exercise without excessively stressing the cardiovascular system

87
Q

Six minute walk test

A

is a simple clinical tool that can be used by clinicians to assess submaximal exercise capacity; easily performed in hospital corridors or therapy gyms and does not require any special equipment other than a stopwatch

88
Q

TLC

A

Total lung capacity Vol. of air in the lungs at the end of maximum inspiration

89
Q

FVC

A

Forced Vital capacity Vol. of air forcefully exhaled from max inspiration to max expiration

90
Q

TV

A

Tidal volume Vol. of air inspired or expired per breath

91
Q

IRV

A

Inspiratory reserve volume Vol. of air from the end of tidal inspiration to max inspiration

92
Q

ERV

A

Expiratory reserve volume Vol. of air from end tidal expiration to max expiration

93
Q

Restrictive pulmonary disease

A

All volumes are less w/ the exception of RV it stays the same *lung tissue looses some of its elasticity ie- normal aging, and pleurisy

94
Q

Obstructive pulmonary disease

A

Inspired air gets trapped causing RV to be higher than it should be Patients have “barrel chest” appearance ie- COPD, Emphysema

95
Q

Goals of Pulmonary Rehab

A

Increase pt. understanding of disease process, exceptations, goals, and outcomes Increase cardiovascular endurance Increase strength, power, and endurance of peripheral and ventilatory muscles Improve ADLs and vocational task perf. Improve independent airway clearance Decrease work of breathing Improve decision making- meds, use of the health care system Enhanced self-management of symptoms and self-management of pulmonary disease

96
Q

Anterior chest Auscultation listening points

A

8 points (4L/ 4R) 1- B/t clavicle and 1st rib 2- b/t 3rd and 4th rib 3- Just above zyphoid process 4- 2 ribs below zyphoid process level and wider`

97
Q

Posterior chest Auscultation listening points

A

8 points (4L/ 4R) 1- Spine of the scap level 2- 2 ribs below the spine of the scap 3- 1 rib below tip of scapula 4-1 rib lower and wider

98
Q

Components of Pulmonary Rehab

A

Breathing retraining Diaphragmatic and lateral costal expansion Pursed lip and spirometer, PEP Positional stretching Respiratory muscle exercises / training Generalized exercise Aerobic 3 min or 6 min walk tests Airway clearance – Chest PT, flutter valves, acapella Splinted and supported cough

99
Q

RV

A

Residual Volume Vol. of air in the lungs after max expiration

100
Q

IC

A

Inspiratory capacity Vol. of air from tidal expiration to max inhalation

101
Q

FRC

A

Functional Residual Capacity Vol. of air in the lungs after a tidal expiration

102
Q

FEV1

A

Force Expiratory Volume in 1 sec Vol. of air moved in the 1st second of an FVC maneuver

103
Q

PEF

A

Peak Expiratory flow Peak flow reached during an FVC maneuver

104
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease

A

a group of diseases w/ differing etiologies that result in difficulty expanding the lungs and a reduction in lung volumes

105
Q

Lung restriction can arise from….

A
  1. Diseases of the alveolar parenchyma or pleura 2. Changes in chest wall 3. An alteration in the neuromuscular apparatus of the thorax
106
Q

What causes restrictive lung disease

A

Radiation therapy Inorganic dust inhalation of noxious gases Oxygen toxicity Asbestos exposure

107
Q

What physical changes result from a restrictive lung disease

A

Lung parenchyma becomes inflammed and alveoli and interstitium become thickened. This causes the airspaces to become fibrosed and more resistant to expansion. Consequently reducing lung volume

108
Q

Clinical presentation of Restrictive lung disease

A

Dyspena w/ activity and a nonproductive cough Rapid shallow breathing Limited chest expansion Inspiratory crackles especially in lower lung areas Presence of finger clubbing and cyanosis

109
Q

Results of chest radiograph of restrictive lung disease

A

Honeycombing and Traction Bronchiectasis- misshapen airways due to pulling by fibrotic tissue on the wall

110
Q

Pulmonary function test results

A

Reduction in VC, FRC, RV, and TLC

111
Q

Pursed- lip breathing

A

Breathing through puckered lips Slows breathing rate and extends exhalation time to make room for next inhalation Exhalation is actively pushed through a narrowed mouth

112
Q

Exercise Programs for Respiratory Conditions

A

Breathing exercises- Pursed lip, supported sitting, incentive spirometer Segmental breathing Manual Resisted ex to diaphragm, intercostals Cough / huff , cough + positional Feedback – rate and ratio Exercises for ADLs Functional activity Ambulation/gait training Bed mobility – prone, reverse trendellenberg Orthopaedic issues - muscle tightness/weakness Aerobic conditioning

113
Q

Documenting Pulmonary Rehab

A

Respiratory Rate Breathing Pattern (quality of movement!) Time to recover following exercise RPE Functional walk tests: 3 or 6 minute tests Report of dyspnea Dyspnea scale similar to Borg scale Chest PT Report specific segments drained Report on productive cough or huff Amount, color, odor

114
Q

Respiration

A

is the process of gas exchange between the alveolar air spaces and the blood, and ventilation is the movement of air in and out of the lungs

115
Q

Respiratory failure

A

caused by impairment of gas exchange between ambient air and circulating blood because of reduced intrapulmonary gas exchange or reduced movement of gases in and out of the lungs Can be caused by disorders of the airways, lungs, or the skeletal, muscular and neural components of the respiratory system

116
Q

What are the skeletal components of the respiratory system?

A

thoracic vertebrae, the sternum, and the ribs, which together make up the thorax

117
Q

Muscular components of the respiratory system

A

primary breathing muscle, the diaphragm, and the accessory muscles of ventilation

118
Q

Respiratory physiology

A

Most breathing is under involuntary control and, under normal resting conditions, breathing is primarily under chemical control Airways and pulmonary vessels are under a degree of autonomic control Breathing can also be voluntarily controlled via the motor cortex

119
Q

Ventilatory pump system

A

controls the volume of air moving in and out of the airways and the rate at which the air moves

120
Q

What are compromised lung volumes and capacities associated with?

A

Restrictive lung disease

121
Q

When flow rates are compromised this is often associated with…

A

Obstructive Pulmonary disease

122
Q

Arterial–alveolar oxygen difference

A

difference in O2 concentration between the arterial blood and the air within the alveoli

123
Q

Ventilation

A

refers to the movement of a volume of air from the atmosphere in and out of the airways

124
Q

Perfusion

A

of the lungs refers to the amount of blood flowing through the lungs

125
Q

Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

A

are measures of the partial pressure of O2 (Pao2), partial pressure of CO2 (Paco2), levels of bicarbonate (HCO3), and the pH of arterial blood

126
Q

Work of breathing (WOB)

A

is the amount of energy or O2 consumption needed by the respiratory muscles to produce enough ventilation and respiration to meet the metabolic demands of the body

127
Q

What must match to adequate gas and respiration to occur?

A

Ventilation and perfusion

128
Q

Airway resistance

A

is the force opposing air flow in the airways

129
Q

Elasticity

A

refers to the ability of the lungs and chest wall to recoil or deflate passively during exhalation

130
Q

Lung compliance

A

refers to the change in lung volume per unit of pressure change

131
Q

Surface tension

A

refers to the cohesive state that occurs at a liquid-gas interface or liquid-liquid interface and occurs in the lungs at the interface between the alveolar membrane and the airway

132
Q

Hypoventilation

A

refers to a state of decreased or inadequate ventilation Primary causes are central nervous system depression, neurological disease, or disorders of the respiratory muscles

133
Q

Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

A

results in impaired gas exchange in the affected areas of lungs and a decreased ability to maintain a steady state of O2 and CO2 concentrations

134
Q

Diffusion abnormalities

A

increases the overall WOB by interfering w/ gas exchange

135
Q

Hypoxic respiratory failure (Type I)

A

is primarily characterized by abnormally low Pao2 (partial pressure of oxygen) and a normal or close to normal Paco2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide)

136
Q

Hypercapnic respiratory failure (Type II)

A

is primarily characterized by an abnormally elevated Paco2 that may or may not be associated with hypoxia

137
Q

In what position is HR and BP checked in patient’s w/ respiratory failure

A

Resting, lying down, and in various body positions

138
Q

Patients on ventilators receiving more O2

A

are likely to have poorer O2 transport and a greater dependency on supplemental O2

139
Q

What type of information does Aucultation provide?

A

provides information about which parts of the lungs are being ventilated during breathing and about the location and presence of secretions in the lungs When normal breath sounds are heard in a different region, these sounds are considered abnormal

140
Q

How does one determine whether WOB is increased?

A

Palpation of increased accessory muscle activity during inspiration

141
Q

What does percussion check for?

A

Changes in lung density

142
Q

How is percussion performed?

A

Performed by tapping the finger of one hand against the middle finger of the other hand placed on the chest wall Sound produced is affected by the density of the underlying tissue; denser tissue sounds flat or dull and less dense tissue sounds hyperresonant or tympanic

143
Q

What are two important indicators of potential problems w/ respiration?

A

RPE and level of dyspnea

144
Q

What is the ultimate goal of PT for patients requiring prolonged mechanical ventilation

A

minimize loss of mobility, maximize independence, and facilitate weaning from ventilator support

145
Q

What 3 groups are at risk for airway clearance problems

A

Patients with disorders caused by chronic inhalation of particulate matter (organic or inorganic) Patients with infectious disorders Patients who have had operative procedures

146
Q

Goals of patient instruction

A

is to provide basic knowledge about their disease, its medical management, and daily techniques and activities to enhance their quality of life

147
Q

Direct interventions for patients w/ airway clearance dysfunction

A

Airway clearance techniques Cough Therapeutic Exercise Equipment

148
Q

Breathing strategies for airway clearance

A

Force expiratory techniques (FET) Active cycle of breathing technique (ACBT) Autogenic drainage (AD) Coughing and huffing

149
Q

Forced expiratory technique (FET)

A

employs a forced expiration or huff after a medium-sized breath

150
Q

Active cycle of breathing technique (ACBT)

A

uses several individual breathing strategies in sequential combination to accomplish the goals of mobilizing and evacuating bronchial secretions

151
Q

Autogenic drainage (AD)

A

requires the patient to know when bronchial secretions are present in the smaller, medium, or larger airways; patient then learns to breathe at low, medium, and high lung volumes to mobilize secretions in those airways

152
Q

Coughing and huffing

A

is an effective means of removing secretions and is critically important for the individual with airway clearance dysfunction

153
Q

When is it recommended to use huffing ?

A

Huffing has been recommended in lieu of coughing because it is thought to reduce the physical work of the activity but research has not shown huffing to be any more energy efficient than coughing

154
Q

Postural drainage manual techniques

A

Chest percussion, vibration, and shaking aka- chest physiotherapy, chest PT, postural drainage, or bronchial drainage

155
Q

Purpose of percussion and vibration techniques

A

Performed to loosen accumulated secretions Intended to enhance movement of secretions to the more proximal airways during positioning for gravity-assisted postural drainage

156
Q

How to perform percussion technique?

A

Percussion involves rhythmically clapping with a cupped hand for 2-5 minutes over the appropriate area of thorax being drained by gravity

157
Q

How to perform vibration technique?

A

involves placing one’s hands on the area previously percussed and having the patient perform several deep breaths using sustained maximal inspiration as in the ACBT maneuver

158
Q

Mechanical devices for airway clearance

A

The Flutter and the Acapella are vibratory positive expiratory pressure devices that add oscillation during the expiratory cycle of PEP breathing Percussors and vibrators have been shown to produce similar changes in patients with CF in both pulmonary function and secretion production as unassisted manual airway clearance techniques alone but with less effort

159
Q

Positive expiratory pressure device

A

breathing employs a device that tries to maintain airway patency by applying positive pressure during expiration

160
Q

Forward leaning posture

A

produces a significant increase in maximum inspiratory pressures, thereby relieving the sensation of dyspnea

161
Q

How do flexibility exercises help respiration?

A

Maintaining or improving thoracic and shoulder girdle flexibility enhances respiratory effort by increasing thoracic compliance

162
Q

Diaphragmatic breathing exercises

A

are intended to enhance diaphragmatic descent during inspiration and diaphragmatic ascent during expiration

163
Q

Purse-lip breathing

A

is suggested for improving ventilation and oxygenation and relieving respiratory symptoms in individuals with airway clearance dysfunction

164
Q

Segmental breathing

A

presumes that inspired air can be actively directed to a specific area of lung by emphasizing and increasing movement of the thorax overlying that lung area

165
Q

Sustained maximal breathing exercises

A

during which a maximal inspiration is sustained for about 3 seconds have also been associated with improved oxygenation

166
Q

Relaxation exercise techniques

A

are often administered to decrease unnecessary muscle contraction throughout the body

167
Q

Benefits of the strength training

A

improved muscle strength, endurance, function, and exercise tolerance and reduced dyspnea

168
Q

Functional training in self-care and home management, work, community, and leisure integration/reintegration

A

Bed mobility and transfers Self-care such as bathing, grooming, dressing Household activities and related chores Activity adaptation to conserve energy Injury prevention

169
Q

Oxygen catheters

A

may be inserted into the nasal passage or via a small surgical incision directly into the trachea, with a transtracheal device

170
Q

Things to document Pulmonary Rehab

A

Respiratory Rate Breathing Pattern (quality of movement!) Time to recover following exercise RPE Functional walk tests: 3 or 6 minute tests Report of dyspnea Dyspnea scale similar to Borg scale Chest PT Report specific segments drained Report on productive cough or huff Amount, color, odor

171
Q

What are the most common pediatric pulmonary diseases?

A

Cystic fibrosis and asthma

172
Q

What treatment methods are recommended for pediatric pulmonary patients?

A

Aerobic exercise, airway clearance, upper body strength and flexibility

173
Q

Reason for pulmonary issues in geriatric patients

A

Normal aging: lungs less compliant, age-related postural changes, normal muscle wasting in inspiratory and expiratory muscle. Lack of forceful cough Decrease in ability to take full, deep breath

174
Q

What are the four basic routes of intubation?

A

via a nasopharyngeal airway, an oropharyngeal airway, an endotracheal tube (ETT), or a tracheostomy

175
Q

What are the modes of ventilation?

A

Controlled ventilation, assisted ventilation, and assist control Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

176
Q

What are cadiovascular complications in respiratory patients

A

pulmonary hypertension, decreased cardiac output, hypotension, and cardiac dysrhythmias

177
Q

Weaning from mechanical ventilation

A

Weaning may be needed to allow the strength and endurance of the respiratory muscles to improve When weaning from mechanical ventilation, more energy will be needed for breathing, leaving less of a reserve for other activities

178
Q

Goals of positioning for clearance of secretions

A

Primary goals of proper positioning include the reduction of pulmonary complications and skin breakdown and promotion of optimal cardiovascular and pulmonary function Alternating right and left side lying is commonly used

179
Q

Functional exercise benefits in respiratory patients?

A

exercise may accelerate weaning, decrease hospital length of stay, and improve the sense of well-being in patients with respiratory failure receiving mechanical ventilation

180
Q

Inspiratory muscle training (IMT)

A

Type of exercise that involves using a device that provides resistance to inspiration These studies demonstrate that IMT can improve pulmonary function, increase MIP, and decrease wean time from mechanical ventilation

181
Q

Behavioral interventions

A

Prolonged mechanical ventilation can result in moderate to extreme psychological and emotional issues, including pain, fear, anxiety, lack of sleep, feeling tense, inability to speak or communicate, lack of control, nightmares, and loneliness

182
Q

Recap of Pulmonary rehab goals

A

Increase understanding of disease process, expectations, goals, and outcomes Increased cardiovascular endurance Increased strength, power and endurance (peripheral and ventilatory muscles) Improved performance of ADLs; avocational or vocational tasks Improved independence in airway clearance Decreased work of breathing Improved decision-making re: meds, used of health care system Enhanced self-management of symptoms and self-management of pulmonary disease