Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Ethics

A

“Conforming to accepted and professional standards of conduct”

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2
Q

Taking an NIH _____ _____ course is a federal requirement for graduate school!

A

Research Ethics

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3
Q

Violations of academic integrity

A

Copying, sharing, attempting to get an unfair advantage over others, stealing, lying, plagiarism, lack of attribution, tampering, non witness, false witness, falsifying, fudging, enhancing, etc.

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4
Q

Deliberate plagiarism

A

Rewriting from books or articles, copying and pasting from web pages and online sources to create patchwork writing, buying, downloading, or borrowing a paper.

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5
Q

Accidental Plagiarism

A

Not knowing when and how to cite, not knowing how to paraphrase or summarize, not knowing what common knowledge is, recycling an old paper

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6
Q

How do scientists mess up?

A

Honest errors of measuring, recording, interpreting, lack of review, overinterpretation/lack objectivity, pressure to produce, lack of responsibility, plagiarism, purposeful errors of fabrication, omission, falsification

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7
Q

How do we stay on the right track?

A

Double check and triple check data, objectivity and standards, mentoring, review by senior author, affirming authorship and contributions, checking of submitted verbs and figures

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8
Q

Consequences of violations

A

Loss of credibility, retract public work, loss of degree or job, barred from funding, jail and fines, damage field

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9
Q

Immunology

A

Study of the structures of the immune system

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10
Q

Immune system cells

A

Lymphocytes, killer T cells, helper T cells

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11
Q

Immune system organs

A

Thymus, lymph nodes, peyer’s patches (gut)

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12
Q

Immune system physical barriers

A

Skin, mucus, and keratin

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13
Q

Innate immune response

A

No prior contact required, includes inflammation

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14
Q

Adaptive immune response

A

Reacts to antigens, remembers an invader, highly specific to antigen, takes time to acquire

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15
Q

B cells

A

Secrete antibodies, mount the humoral immune response

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16
Q

T cells

A

Attack cells infected with bacteria or viruses. Cell-mediated immune response

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17
Q

Antigens

A

Not usually part of the host, large polysaccharides or proteins on the sura=faces of viruses or foreign cells.

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18
Q

Epitope

A

Specific region on antigen to which the antibody binds. Linear or conformational.

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19
Q

Antibodies

A

Secreted by B cells, recognize epitopes on antigens, binds to antigens to make them recognizable, leads to neutralization and/or destruction of the antigen

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20
Q

Antibody molecule structure

A

Y-shaped, with two antigen-binding sites, specific to the antigenic determinants that elicited its secretion. Also called immunoglobins

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21
Q

Effects of antibody binding

A

Inactivation of antigens by neutralization, agglutination of microbes, and precipitation of dissolved antigens (all enhance phagocytosis), or activation of complement system (leads to cell lysis)

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22
Q

Antibody applications: Purification

A

Mix cell “lysate or extract” with antibodies, use antibodies to purify molecules

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23
Q

Immunoprecipitation

A

Add specific anti-A antibodies to mixture of molecules, collect aggregate of A molecules and anti-A antibodies by centrifugation

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24
Q

SDS-Page

A

(Sodium-dodecyl sulfate – polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis), Proteins forced through gel by electric current. Move towards the positive end as proteins are negatively charged.

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25
Q

Western Blotting

A

Antigen A separated from other molecules by electrophoresis, incubation with labeled antibodies that bind to antigen A allows position of antigen to be determined. Sensitivity increased by using multiple layers of antibodies.

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26
Q

How are antibodies made?

A

Injecting an animal with antigen A over several weeks stimulates specific B cells large amounts of this. Many different B cells will be stimulated.

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27
Q

Polyclonal antibodies

A

When an antigen such as a protein is injected into an animal, a mixture of antibodies is produced an isolated. Each antibody in the mixture recognizes a different, specific epitope within the protein.

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28
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A

Identical antibodies to a specific epitope of protein. Produced by a clone originating from one cell. More specific, stronger data, more expensive.

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29
Q

ELISA

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay. Diagnostic tool for infectious diseases, track pathogens in animals, plants, etc.

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30
Q

ELISA applications

A

Detects GMOS, allergens, pregnancy, drugs

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31
Q

Primary antibodies

A

Bind directly to antigen in question.

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32
Q

Secondary antibodies

A

Bind to primary antibody, conjugated to a fluorochrome or enzyme for colorimetric or chemiluminescent detection. Must be made in a different animal from primary and be immunoreactive to the antibody it will bind to.
A second set of antibodies created to target the Fc fragment (constant region) of the primary antibody

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33
Q

Purpose of secondary antibodies

A

Provide an additional step for signal amplification, increasing overall sensitivity of assay

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34
Q

ELISA Reagents and materials

A

Solid support, blocking reagent, primary and secondary antibodies.

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35
Q

ELISA solid support

A

Microplate strips made of polystyrene that bind proteins via hydrophobic interactions

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36
Q

ELISA Blocking reagent

A

Used after binding of antigen. Prevents binding of antibodies to plate. Eliminates or reduced false positives, prevents non-specific binding.

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37
Q

ELISA Primary antibody

A

Rabbit polyclonal anti-gamma globulin

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38
Q

ELISA Secondary antibody

A

Goat anti-rabbit IgG. Coupled to horseradish peroxidase (HRP)

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39
Q

Horseradish Peroxidase

A

Catalyzes the oxidation of the chromogenic substrate 3,3’, 5.5’-tetramethylbenzene (TMB). Also requires presence of hydrogen peroxide.

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40
Q

ELISA False positive causes

A

Pipetting error, contamination, recent vaccination

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41
Q

ELISA False negative causes

A

Immunosuppression, testing too soon, denatured antigen or antibody

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42
Q

Immune response

A

The ability of an organism to both defend and recognize itself

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43
Q

Humoral response

A
  1. Lymphocytes originate from stem cells in bone marrow
  2. Lymphocyte stem cell matures into B-cell in the bone marrow
  3. When B-cells encounter antigens, they become B-plasma cells that secrete antibodies and confer immunity
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44
Q

Cell-mediated response

A
  1. Lymphocyte stem cell matures into a mature T-cell in the thymus and enters circulation
  2. T-cells have specific receptors that bind to antigens
  3. Attack infected host cells via binding followed by cell lysis
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45
Q

Three antibody regions

A

Constant, variable, and joining regions

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46
Q

constant region

A

conserved region

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47
Q

Variable region

A

Region confers specificity to the binding interaction with the antigen

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48
Q

Joining regions

A

Regions that connect the constant and variable regions

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49
Q

Enzyme substrate

A

Tetramethylbenzidine (TMB)

50
Q

Enzyme catalyst

A

Hydrogen peroxide

51
Q

What does HRP do in ELISA?

A

Cleaves TMB in presence of hydrogen peroxidase to create blue byproduct, allows for visual confirmation of results

52
Q

Triplicate samples

A

Another form of control, same results should be in all three wells. Checks for accuracy.

53
Q

Location of DNA in plant cells

A

Nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplast

54
Q

PCR mimics in vitro replication:

A
  1. DNA unwinds
  2. Exposes single stranded areas to be copied (ssDNA)
  3. Primer used to initiate replication
  4. DNA polymerase adds nucleotide base pairs (A, T, C, G) to make new complementary strand by using ssDNA as template
55
Q

PCR vs. DNA replication

A

Uses the same ingredients and methods of cellular DNA replications but uses temperature changes to complete the process

56
Q

PCR steps

A

Denaturation, Annealing, and Extension

57
Q

Denaturation

A

Heat melts double stranded DNA into ssDNA by breaking the H-bonds holding the base pairs together

58
Q

Annealing

A

Temperature’s lowered, primer sticks to DNA

59
Q

Primer design for PCR

A

Forward primer, amplified region, and reverse primer

60
Q

Extension

A

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides (A, T, C, G) to the attached primer to form a new complementary strand, using the ssDNA as a template. Extends in a 5’ –> 3’ direction

61
Q

Taq (Thermus aquaticus) polymerase

A

Polymerase isolated from a bacterium living in hot springs. Ideal because it’s a thermostable enzyme.

62
Q

Magnesium chloride

A

Taq polymerase cofactor

63
Q

Reaction Buffer

A

Maintains pH, contains salt

64
Q

End-point PCR

A

DNA must first be separated by gel electrophoresis. DNA staining and detection are done after PCR.

65
Q

Real-time PCR

A

Product is measured during the PCR. No electrophoresis required. Can be quantitative when compared to a standard curve.
Uses a fluorescent dye that binds to double stranded DNA or a fluorescent probe that’s specific to the target sequence

66
Q

Fluorescent detection

A

Requires no gel electrophoresis, higher throughput, more sensitive, faster than PCR

67
Q

GMOs

A

“An organism in which the genetic material has been altered in a way that doesn’t occur naturally by mating or natural recombination”

68
Q

How are GMOs made?

A
  1. Identify potentially beneficial gene
  2. Isolate and clone the gene
  3. Engineer the gene: Add promoter and terminator, add selectable marker
69
Q

Promotor we used

A

CaMV 35S (from Cauliflower mosaic virus), functions in every plant cell

70
Q

Terminator we used

A

NOS (Nopaline synthase). From soil bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens, recognized in most plants.

71
Q

Selectable marker we used

A

GFP or antibiotic resistance. Used to determine which cells contain the engineered gene.

72
Q

Current transgenic plants

A

Corn, alfalfa, soybeans, cotton, sugar beets, papaya, squash

73
Q

Pros of GMOs

A

Reduce the use of pesticides and herbicides, reduce stress to the land, improve nutritional value of food, allow previously unfarmable land to be used.

74
Q

Cons of GMOs

A

Time consuming and inefficient, expensive, superweeds and superbugs, allergic reactions and antibiotic resistance, not enough research, lack of government requirements for food labeling

75
Q

Instagene matrix

A

Chelates divalent ions (Mg 2+) necessary for DNA degrading enzymes (Ex: DNAses)

76
Q

Target DNA to detect GMO

A

CaMV promoter, Nos promoter

77
Q

Target DNA to check DNA extraction

A

Photosystem II gene

78
Q

GMO false positive reasons

A

Contamination

79
Q

GMO false negative reasons

A

Failed DNA extraction, incorrect primers, failed PCR

80
Q

Electrophoresis

A

Way to separate DNA molecules of different sizes

81
Q

How does Agarose work?

A

Provides a solid matrix with pores. Buffer solution with DNA goes through the pores, and DNA is separated as it tries to pass through.

82
Q

Agarose

A

Gelling component, polysaccharide polymer made from seaweed extract.

83
Q

Ogston Sieving

A

Regards the DNA molecule like a tangle of thread. Smaller molecules fit into more pores, travel faster.

84
Q

Reptation

A

Regards the long DNA molecule as a snake. The longer the DNA strand, the longer it takes because its route is more complicated.

85
Q

Typical agarose gel density

A

1%. The higher the gel percentage, the longer the run time necessary to separate fragments.

86
Q

DNA loading buffer

A

Added to sample to give it color and density. Contains colored dye, thickening agent, and EDTA.

87
Q

Colored dye

A

Tracks the progression of the samples down the gel. (Bromophenol Blue)

88
Q

Thickening agent

A

Samples need to be denser than water so they’ll sit in the wells. Sucrose and/or glycerol are added to provide weight.

89
Q

EDTA

A

Binds Mg+ and stops all subsequent enzyme reactions (nucleases)

90
Q

High voltage results

A

Faster, but too high and gel will melt.

91
Q

Low voltage results

A

Looks better (tight bands), but can take awhile.

92
Q

Ethidium Bromide

A

Binds to DNA and a UV light illuminates the dye. Carcinogenic.

93
Q

DNA ladders indicate _____

A

fragment size

94
Q

Factors affecting DNA migration

A

Size of DNA, DNA conformation (supercoiled vs. linear), ionic strength of running buffer, voltage applied to gel, concentration of gel, electroendosmosis

95
Q

Electroendosmosis

A

Charged molecules in agarose, impede migration of DNA. USe of ultrapure agarose with low sulfate and carboxylate content can reduce this.

96
Q

Other applications of DNA gel electrophoresis

A

Verify DNA extracts (ensure not contaminated with RNA)
Verify PCR products (Check for mis-amplification)
Sanger sequencing, genetic fingerprinting

97
Q

DNA Barcoding

A

Using DNA sequences to determine species. Species occur in same time and space

98
Q

Morphological species

A

Based on physical characteristics. Doesn’t always work (Mimicry, traits change with age, sexual dimorphism), not efficient because all species have to be stored for comparison

99
Q

Biological species

A

Based on who can mate with each other. Doesn’t always work because hybrids, extinct species can’t mate.

100
Q

Phylogenetic species

A

Based on evolutionary history.

101
Q

DNA polymorphism

A

Changes in genetic code

102
Q

DNA barcoding animal primer

A

Cytochrome c oxidase subunit 1. DNA source is mitochondrion

103
Q

___ interspecies variation, ___ intraspecies variation

104
Q

What primer is used to sequence in DNA barcoding?

105
Q

BLAST (Basic local alignment search tool)

A

One of the most commonly used bioinformatics software. Finds small sub-sequences of the query in the subject sequence.
Uses word to match with the database of subject and then uses heuristics to verify and extend match. Compares nucleotide or protein sequences to sequence databases and calculates the statistical significance of matches.

106
Q

Heuristic

A

A rule/method that helps you solve problems faster than you would if you did all the computing

107
Q

Bit score

A

Score based on alignment, length of sequence, and length of database. The bigger the number, the better, but a high score doesn’t always mean the query’s unique. Score of sequence similarity, not a score of sequence homology.

108
Q

E-value

A

Expected amount of random sequences that have equivalent sequence alignment. Calculated using the max bit score and the length of the query and database. Tells you relative strength of alignment. The lower the better.

109
Q

____ sequences have higher e-values because probability of finding that sequence is higher.

110
Q

Risk Group 1

A

Agents are not associated with disease in healthy adult humans

111
Q

Risk Group 2

A

Agents are associated with human disease which is rarely serious and for which preventative or therapeutic interventions are often available

112
Q

Risk Group 3

A

Agents are associated with serious or lethal human disease for which preventative or therapeutic interventions may be available

113
Q

Risk Group 4

A

Agents are likely to cause serious or lethal human disease for which preventative or therapeutic interventions are usually available

114
Q

Containment

A

Used in describing safe methods for managing infectious materials in the laboratory environment.

115
Q

Primary containment

A

The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure (Good microbiological technique, use of PPE and safety equipment)

116
Q

Secondary Containment

A

The protection of the environment external to the laboratory from exposure (facility design, operational practices)

117
Q

Biosafety level 1

A

Wash hands, protective clot, prohibit eating, drinking, and smoking. Policies for safe sharps handling, decontaminate work surfaces daily

118
Q

Biosafety Level 2 standard practices

A

Same as BSL-1 with emphasis of face/eye protection, gloves, mechanical pipetting, attention to sharps. Has hooded cabinets

119
Q

Biosafety Level 3

A

Secondary barriers plus anteroom, negative air flow, and autoclave within the lab

120
Q

Biosafety level 4

A

Positive pressure personnel suit with segregated air supply, UV room, multiple showers.

121
Q

Orange bags

A

Biohazard. Sterilized in autoclave, no sharps, Labeled and treated, then disposed of in regular trash.

122
Q

Red bags

A

Infectious waste. Secured in secure area with impervious flooring. Later labeled and incinerated in special facility.