exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are antimicrobials used for?

A

To treat infectious diseases

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2
Q

What is the definition of an antibiotic?

A

A chemical produced by one microbe that can harm other microbes

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3
Q

What is an antimicrobial agent?

A

Any agent that can kill or suppress microorganisms

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4
Q

What does selective toxicity refer to?

A

Toxic to microbes but harmless to the host

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5
Q

What are the two commonly used classification systems for antimicrobial drugs?

A
  • Classification by susceptible organism
  • Classification by mechanism of action
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6
Q

What are the two types of spectrum in antibiotic classification?

A
  • Narrow spectrum
  • Broad spectrum
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7
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs?

A
  • Bactericidal: Directly lethal to bacteria
  • Bacteriostatic: Slows bacterial growth without causing cell death
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8
Q

What is acquired resistance to antimicrobial drugs?

A

When organisms develop resistance over time to one or more drugs

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9
Q

Name some organisms with microbial drug resistance.

A
  • Enterococcus faecium
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Enterobacter species
  • Klebsiella species
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Acinetobacter baumannii
  • Clostridium difficile
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10
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

A new infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection

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11
Q

What are some strategies to delay the emergence of drug resistance?

A
  • Promote adherence to appropriate prescribing guidelines
  • Reduce demand for antibiotics among healthy adults
  • Emphasize adherence to prescribed antibiotic regimens
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12
Q

What factors are considered in the selection of antibiotics?

A
  • Identify organism
  • Drug sensitivity
  • Host factors
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13
Q

What is empiric therapy?

A

Antibiotic therapy for patients before the causative organism is positively identified

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14
Q

What must be ensured about antibiotics regarding dosage and duration?

A

Antibiotic must be present at the site of infection for a sufficient length of time

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15
Q

What is prophylactic use of antimicrobials?

A

Agents given to prevent infection rather than to treat an established infection

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16
Q

What is a principal adverse effect of penicillins?

A

Allergic reaction

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17
Q

What structural feature do penicillins have?

A

A beta-lactam ring

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicillins?

A

Weakens the cell wall, causing bacteria to take up excessive water and rupture

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19
Q

What are broad-spectrum penicillins also known as?

A

Aminopenicillins

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20
Q

Name two broad-spectrum penicillins.

A
  • Ampicillin
  • Amoxicillin
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21
Q

What are beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Agents that extend antimicrobial spectrum when combined with penicillinase-sensitive antibiotics

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22
Q

What is the therapeutic use of vancomycin?

A

Severe infections only, including MRSA and Clostridium difficile

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23
Q

What are the adverse effects of vancomycin?

A
  • Ototoxicity
  • ‘Red man’ syndrome
  • Thrombophlebitis
  • Thrombocytopenia
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24
Q

What are tetracyclines used to treat?

A
  • Infectious disease
  • Acne
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Periodontal disease
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
  • Lyme disease
  • Anthrax
  • Helicobacter pylori
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25
Q

What is a significant adverse effect of tetracyclines?

A

Yellow discoloration of bones and teeth

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis

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27
Q

What are aminoglycosides primarily used for?

A

Aerobic gram-negative bacilli infections

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28
Q

What is a key side effect of fluoroquinolones?

A

Tendon rupture

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29
Q

What is the primary use of rifampin?

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

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30
Q

What color can rifampin cause bodily fluids to turn?

A

Bright red-orange

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31
Q

What are the adverse effects of metronidazole?

A
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Allergy
  • Superinfections
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32
Q

What is an infection?

A

Results when a pathogen invades tissues and begins growing within a host (human)

Pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa.

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33
Q

Define colonization in the context of infections.

A

Presence and growth of microorganisms within a host without tissue invasion or damage

This means that while microorganisms are present, they do not cause harm or disease.

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34
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

Disease that can be easily transmittable from one person to another

35
Q

What are symptomatic and asymptomatic conditions?

A
  • Symptomatic - if symptoms are present and seen
  • Asymptomatic – if symptoms aren’t seen
36
Q

List the components of the Chain of Infection.

A
  • Infectious agent
  • Reservoir
  • Portal of exit
  • Modes of transmission
  • Portal of entry
  • Susceptible host
37
Q

What is the role of normal floras in infection?

A

Normal floras can provide a defense against infection by occupying niches that pathogens might otherwise exploit.

38
Q

What defenses does the body have against infection?

A
  • Normal floras
  • Body system defenses
  • Inflammation
39
Q

What are the symptoms of infection?

A
  • Malaise
  • Enlarged lymph nodes
  • Nausea/Vomiting
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Heat
  • Pain
  • Tenderness
  • Fever
  • Increased WBCs
40
Q

What is a health care-associated infection (HAI)?

A

Infections that occur as a result of invasive procedures, antibiotic administration, multidrug-resistant organisms, and breaks in infection prevention and control activities

41
Q

Differentiate between transient and resident bacterial flora.

A
  • Transient: attached loosely on skin, removed with relative ease
  • Resident: found in the creases in skin, requires friction with brush to remove
42
Q

What factors influence infection prevention and control?

A
  • Age
  • Nutritional status
  • Stress
  • Disease process
  • Medications
43
Q

What is the normal white blood cell (WBC) count?

A

Normal value is 5,000 to 10,000/mm3

44
Q

What are neutrophils and their normal percentage?

A

Normal = 60%–70%. Increased in acute infections that produce pus.

45
Q

What is the nursing diagnosis for infection?

A
  • Risk for Infection
  • Impaired Nutritional Status: Deficient Food Intake
  • Impaired Oral Mucous Membrane
  • Social Isolation
  • Impaired Tissue Integrity
46
Q

What are common goals of care for infection control?

A
  • Preventing further exposure to infectious organisms
  • Controlling or reducing the extent of infection
  • Maintaining resistance to infection
  • Verbalizing understanding of infection prevention and control
47
Q

What is medical asepsis?

A

Clean technique to reduce the number of pathogens

48
Q

What is surgical asepsis?

A

Sterile technique to keep the area free from microorganisms

49
Q

Identify common infections that require airborne precautions.

A
  • Tuberculosis (TB)
  • Measles (Rubeola)
  • Varicella (Chickenpox)
  • Disseminated Herpes Zoster
  • COVID-19 (in certain cases)
50
Q

What is the purpose of droplet precautions?

A

To prevent the transmission of infectious agents spread through large respiratory droplets.

51
Q

List diseases that require droplet precautions.

A
  • Influenza
  • Pertussis
  • Mumps
  • Rubella
  • Meningococcal Meningitis
  • Diphtheria
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
52
Q

What are contact precautions?

A

Used to prevent the spread of infectious agents transmitted through direct or indirect contact.

53
Q

Identify diseases that require contact precautions.

A
  • Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
  • Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE)
  • Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Norovirus
  • Scabies
  • Lice
54
Q

What is a Protective Environment (PE)?

A

A specialized infection control strategy designed to protect immunocompromised patients from infections caused by environmental pathogens.

55
Q

Who requires a Protective Environment?

A
  • Patients with severe neutropenia
  • Hematopoietic stem cell transplants
  • Solid organ transplants
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency
  • High-dose chemotherapy or radiation therapy
56
Q

What are the principles of surgical asepsis?

A
  • Performing sterile procedures
  • Donning and removing caps, masks, and eyewear
  • Opening sterile packages
  • Preparing a sterile field
57
Q

What should be included in standard precautions?

A
  • Used in the care of all hospitalized patients
  • Apply to blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions
  • New additions include respiratory hygiene and safe injection practices
58
Q

What are the three types of transmission-based precautions?

A
  • Airborne
  • Droplet
  • Contact
59
Q

What factors impact the immune system?

A
  • Congenital abnormalities
  • Acquired health problems
  • Environmental factors
  • Age
  • Medical and surgical interventions
60
Q

What are the most common multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs)?

A
  • Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  • Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
  • Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus
61
Q

What is the significance of hand hygiene in infection control?

A

It is crucial for preventing the transmission of pathogens.

62
Q

Fill in the blank: Infection prevention and control includes _______.

A

[methods such as hand hygiene, disinfection, sterilization, and standard precautions]

63
Q

What does MRDO stand for?

A

Multidrug-resistant organism

MRDOs are microorganisms that have become resistant to certain antibiotics.

64
Q

Name three common MRDOs.

A
  • Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  • Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
  • Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus
65
Q

What is CA-MRSA?

A

Community-Associated Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

CA-MRSA causes infections in healthy, non-hospitalized people.

66
Q

List four health teaching strategies to prevent MRDO infections.

A
  • Perform frequent hand hygiene
  • Avoid close contact with people with infectious wounds
  • Avoid large crowds
  • Use good overall hygiene
67
Q

What problems can result from inadequate antimicrobial therapy?

A
  • Incorrect choice of drug
  • Inadequate dosing
  • Noncompliance/nonadherence
  • Bacteremia
  • Septic shock
68
Q

True or False: Septic shock is a result of inadequate blood flow to body tissues and organs.

69
Q

What are some assessment cues to recognize in patients with potential infections?

A
  • History: age, current illness, drug use
  • Physical assessment: travel history, signs and symptoms
  • Psychosocial assessment: stress
  • Laboratory assessment: culture and sensitivity, WBC count
70
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is a test to measure inflammation in the body.

A

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

71
Q

What are some management strategies for hyperthermia?

A
  • Eliminate underlying cause of fever
  • Destroy causative microorganism
  • Drug therapy with antimicrobials
  • Antipyretics: Tylenol, NSAIDs
  • External cooling: ice packs
  • Fluid administration
72
Q

What are expected outcomes for a client with an infection?

A
  • Body temperature within baseline
  • No complications such as dehydration and sepsis
  • Adherence to drug therapy regimen
73
Q

Name four types of Health Care Associated Infections (HAIs).

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Bacteremia
  • Urinary Tract Infection
  • Surgical Site Infections
74
Q

What is a common cause of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

A

Indwelling urinary catheters

Especially prevalent in older adults.

75
Q

What can trigger pneumonia?

A
  • Infectious organisms
  • Inhaling irritating organisms
76
Q

How many cases of pneumonia occur annually in the US?

A

2 to 5 million cases

This results in approximately 50,000 deaths per year.

77
Q

List some health promotion strategies for pneumonia prevention.

A
  • Vaccination
  • Avoid crowded places during flu season
  • Cough, turn, move, deep breathe
  • Clean respiratory equipment
  • Avoid pollutants
  • Stop smoking
  • Eat healthy diet
  • Drink 3L of water daily
78
Q

What are the symptoms of urinary tract infections?

A
  • Dysuria
  • Urgency
  • Frequency
  • Increased temperature
  • Confusion in older adults
79
Q

What is the main complication of surgical site infections?

A

Wound infections after surgery

Usually results from contamination during surgery or preoperative infection.

80
Q

What virus causes chickenpox and shingles?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

81
Q

What are some symptoms of gastroenteritis?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Vomiting
  • Self-limiting to ~3 days
82
Q

List prevention strategies for gastroenteritis.

A
  • Handwashing
  • Sanitize surfaces
  • Proper food and beverage preparation
83
Q

What is a common consequence of untreated bacteremia?