exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what leads to infection?

A
  • poor hand hygiene
  • not cleaning injuries
  • sleep deprivation
  • mask
  • travel
  • sanitation
  • genetics
  • war/conflict
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2
Q

what makes something infectious?

A
  • has to be invasive
  • pathogenic
  • virulent-> scale of symptom severity
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3
Q

infection

A

the entry and development or multiplication of an infectious agent in the body of a man or animals

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4
Q

several levels of infection

A
  • colonization
  • subclinical or inapparent infection
  • latent infection
  • a manifestation of clinical infection
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5
Q

colonization

A

doesn’t have to be sick to be a carrier

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6
Q

subclinical

A

may have tingling

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7
Q

contamination

A

the presence of an infectious agent on a body surface, on or in clothes, bedding, toys, surgical instruments, or dressings, or other substances including water and food.

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8
Q

infestation

A
  • the lodgement, development, and reproduction of arthropods on the surface of the body or in the clothing
  • e.g. lice, itch mites.
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9
Q

public health

A
  • when it works, nothing happens
  • when it doesn’t work, public health is blamed
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10
Q

surveillance

A

what is the problem?
- identify a problem and surveillance system

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11
Q

risk factor identification

A

what is the cause?
- why is this a problem?
- what are they reading?
- who are they talking to?

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12
Q

intervention

A

what works?
- what worked in the past?
- how did people get vaccinated before?
- correlation vs causation

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13
Q

implementation

A

how do you do it?
- how are you going to do it?
- are you gonna make an event?
- what will the cost be

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14
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of distribution and determinants of health-related states and events in populations, and the application of this study to control health problems
- it is an integral component of public health

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15
Q

chain of infection in order

A
  • pathogenic microorganisms
  • reservoir
  • means of escape
  • mode of transmission
  • means of entry
  • host susceptibility
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16
Q

pathogenic microorganism

A

the infectious agent (microbe)

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17
Q

reservoir

A

people, water, animals, or where it lives

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18
Q

means of escape

A

how it gets out
(nose, mouth)

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19
Q

mode of transmission

A
  • airborne
  • waterborne
  • insect borne
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20
Q

means of entry

A

how does it get into the next person

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21
Q

host susceptibility

A
  • vaccination status
  • age
  • location
  • genetics
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22
Q

what is the purposes in public health

A
  • discover the agent
  • determine the relative importance of illness, disabilities , and death
  • identify those segments of the population that have the greatest risk from specific causes of illness health
  • evaluate the effectiveness of health programs and services in improving population health
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23
Q

frequency

A

number of events
- cases

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24
Q

pattern

A
  • occurrence of events by time, place, and person
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25
Q

host

A
  • demographic characteristics
  • biological characters
  • socioeconomic characteristics
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26
Q

Agent

A
  • biological agents
  • physical agents
  • chemical agents
  • nutrient agents
  • mechanical agents
  • social agents
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27
Q

environment

A
  • physical environment
  • biological environment
  • social environment
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28
Q

component causes

A

the individual factor that contributes to cause disease on a causal pie

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29
Q

sufficient cause

A

a complete causal pie
- a disease may have more than one sufficient cause

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30
Q

necessary cause

A

appears in every causal pie, because without it, the disease will not occur

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31
Q

evaluation

A

determining, as systematically and objectively as possible, the relevance, effectiveness, efficiency, and impact of activities with respect to established goals

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32
Q

linkages

A

bring many groups together to achieve the common goal
- how are you going to get young and old people on the same page

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33
Q

policy development

A
  • uniquely qualified position to recommend appropriate interventions
  • dealing with political views to get funding for campaigns and more
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34
Q

suspected

A

any febrile illness accompanied by rash

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35
Q

probable

A
  • a case that meets the clinical case definition
  • has non contributory or no serological or virological testing
  • not epidemiologically linked to a confirmed case
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36
Q

confirmed

A

a case that is laboratory confirmed or that meets the clinical case definition

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37
Q

soft case definition

A

sensitive case definition is one that is “loose” in the hope of capturing most or all of the true cases

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38
Q

specific case definition

A

include only persons who were confirmed to have been infected with that organism

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39
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases in a given time period expressed as percent infected per year or number per person time of observation

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40
Q

prevalence

A

number of cases at a given time expressed as a percent at a given time

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41
Q

rate

A
  • the number of cases divided by the size of the population per unit of time
  • number of cases occurring during a specific period ( always dependent on the size of the population during that period)
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42
Q

epidemic or outbreak

A

disease occurrence among a population that is in excess of what is expected in a given time and place

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43
Q

cluster

A

group of cases is a specific time and place that might be more than expected (measles)

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44
Q

pandemic

A

a disease or condition that spreads across regions (has to spread across borders)

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45
Q

incubation period

A

contagious but doesn’t know it yet

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46
Q

latency

A

non- replicating

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47
Q

subclinical

A

carrier status

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48
Q

clinical

A

has recognizable symptoms and signs

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49
Q

infectivity

A

of how many people you can get sick

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50
Q

pathogenicity

A

causes disease

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51
Q

virulence

A

ability of a virus/bacteria to cause damage to host making them sick

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52
Q

carriers

A

person who mutated a gene that causes disease but has mild to no symptoms

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53
Q

common source outbreak

A

when a group of people are exposed to the same infectious agent/toxin

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54
Q

propagated epidemic

A

consistent and grows

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55
Q

what are the types of epidemic study?

A
  • descriptive
  • analytical
  • experimental
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56
Q

descriptive

A

describe individuals who were infected (who, what, when, where, why)

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57
Q

analytical

A
  • cause and effect
  • how to improve past
  • answers a question
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58
Q

morbidity

A

the number of people sick

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59
Q

mortality

A

number of people dead

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60
Q

contagious disease

A

one transmitted through contact

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61
Q

communicable disease

A

transmissible by direct contact with an affected individual or the individuals discharges or by indirect means (by vectors)

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62
Q

direct transmission

A
  • person to person transmission of infectious agents through contact
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63
Q

indirect transmission

A
  • include both vehicle borne and vector borne contact
  • indirect transmission can come from fomites or from vectors
64
Q

vector

A

any agent that carries and transmits an infectious pathogen into another living organism
- can be biological or mechanical

65
Q

vector of infection

A

an insect or any living carrier that transports an infectious agent from an infected individual or its wastes to a susceptible individual or its food or immediate surroundings.
- both biological and mechanical transmissions are encountered

66
Q

zoonosis

A

an infection that is transmissible under natural conditions form vertebrate animals to man

67
Q

epizootic

A

an outbreak of disease in an animal population

68
Q

enzootic

A

an endemic occurring in animals

69
Q

emerging

A

newly identified & previously unknown infectious agents that cause public health problems either locally or internationally

70
Q

re-emerging

A

infectious agents that have been known for some time, had fallen to such low levels that they were no longer considered public health problems & are now showing upward trends in incidence or prevalence worldwide

71
Q

what factors contribute to emergence

A
  • host
  • human behavior
  • environment
  • social
72
Q

poverty

A

malnutrition
- severe infectious disease cycle

73
Q

what are the causes of antimicrobial drug resistance?

A
  • wrong prescribing practices
  • non-adherence by patients
  • counterfeit drugs
  • use of anti-infective drugs in animals & plants
74
Q

consequences of antimicrobial drug resistance

A
  • prolonged hospital admissions
  • higher death rates from infections
  • require more expensive, more toxic drugs
  • higher cost health care
75
Q

prokaryotic cell

A
  • lack of nucleus and other membrane closed structures
  • single celled
76
Q

prokaryotic cell domains

A
  • archea
  • no disease causing organisms
  • thermophiles
  • extremophiles
  • bacteria
77
Q

eukaryotic cells

A
  • contains a nucleus and other membrane bound structures
  • plorgatnellemals , fungi, protists
78
Q

prokaryotic cells

A
  • relatively small (.5-2um in diameter)
  • large surface volume (3:1 membrane:cytoplasm)
  • metabolism will be on its membrane since there are no organelles
79
Q

coccus (cocci)

A

sphere shaped

80
Q

bacillus (bacilli)

A

rod shaped

81
Q

Spirochete

A

tight spiral w/ flagella wrapped around it
- has corkscrew movements

82
Q

vibrio

A

comma shaped

83
Q

spirillum

A

looser spiral

84
Q

pleomorphism

A
  • stars
  • rosetta
  • squares
85
Q

dipole

A
  • 1-> 2
  • diplo shaped
  • diplococcus
  • divided in one plane
86
Q

tetrads

A
  • 1->4
  • strepto
  • chains
  • streptococcus
  • divided into two planes
87
Q

sarcinae

A
  • 1->4
  • staphylo
  • clusters
  • staphylococcus
  • divided in three planes
88
Q

bacillus

A
  • 1->2
  • divided in one plane end to end making chains
89
Q

peptidoglycan

A
  • peptide/sugars
  • in all cell walls
  • maintain shape
  • prevents the cell from lysis
90
Q

thick peptidoglycan includes what?

A
  • lysine
  • bridge
91
Q

thin peptidoglycan includes what?

A
  • no bridge
  • DAP
92
Q

how does water get through peptidoglycan?

93
Q

peptidoglycan components

A
  • sugar backbone
  • tetra-peptide cross-linkers
  • pentaglycine bridge
  • thick-GPB
    -thin-GNB
94
Q

gram negative cell walls outer membrane

A
  • fluid mosaic model
  • LPS components
  • potent stimulator of fever (contains O antigen)
  • phospholipid bilayer
95
Q

gram negative cell walls peptidoglycan

A
  • DAP-type
  • thin
  • no bridge
96
Q

gram negative cell walls periplasmic space

A
  • where toxins can be stored
  • digestive enzymes
  • protein pumps
  • bacterial toxins
97
Q

gram positive cell walls peptidoglycan (thick)

A
  • lys-type
  • has lipotechoic acid & techie acid
  • fever to 100-102
  • has periplasm (semisolid & helps distribute weight)
98
Q

Acid fast cell walls

A
  • 60% lipids
  • has to be dissolved with acid
99
Q

Prokaryotic plasma membrane

A
  • selectively permeable
  • passive diffusion
  • osmosis
100
Q

Aerobic

A

uses oxygen

101
Q

anaerobic

A

uses something other than oxygen

102
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

can switch between aerobic & anaerobic

103
Q

micro aerophiles

A
  • use oxygen 2-10% atmospheric water & packaging
104
Q

desiccation

105
Q

formation of endospores

A
  • resistant to heat, desiccation, and chemicals
  • special structures are problematic
  • bacillus, clostridium can make endospores
106
Q

organelles of eukaryotic cell

A
  • nucleus
  • mitochondria
  • ER
  • golgi
  • vacuoles
    -glycocalyx
  • cytoskeleton
107
Q

cilia, flagella, & glycocalyx

A
  1. motility
  2. 9+2 paring
  3. slime layer
  4. capsule
108
Q

fungi

A

thick inner layer
- chitin
- cellulose
thin outer layer
- mixed glycans

109
Q

algae

A
  • cellulose
  • pectin
  • mannans
  • minerals
110
Q

cell membrane

A
  • has cholesterols
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • selectively permeable (osmosis & diffusion)
111
Q

cilia

112
Q

flagella

A

runs and tumbles (can generate straight or has to spin to change direction)

113
Q

glycocalyx

A

tight or loose

114
Q

tight glycocalyx

A
  • dry proteins & sugars that lack waters
  • “egg shell” fragile but protective
115
Q

loose glycocalyx

A
  • more wet
  • causes sliding
  • creates biofilms (like plaque)
116
Q

what does the nucleus include?

A
  • nuclear pore
  • nuclear envelope
  • nucleolus
  • chromosomes
  • histones
117
Q

mechanical vectors

A

“Ubers” that transport parasites

118
Q

hyperparatism

A

parasite that has a parasite

119
Q

biological vectors

A

-organisms that transmits disease

120
Q

accidental parasites

A

parasites that are parasitizing something other than their host

121
Q

definitive host

A

host in which the parasite replicates

122
Q

intermediate host

A

any other life cycle stage
- tend to vary different biologically

123
Q

encystment

A

membranous incasing that protects the parasite

124
Q

immunological challenges

A

changing outer layer coat makes it so that the immune system is confused

125
Q

host cell invasion

A

evolved to get away from us
- can be in you for 25 years

126
Q

nutritional deprivation

A

deprive host of nutritions ( bloating , hairloss)

127
Q

direct trauma/ obstruction

A

hooks onto the internal tube of the body causing trauma by perforation. causes obstruction by stopping functions
- lay about 200,000 eggs/day

128
Q

inflammatory/ immunological reactions

A

constantly causing inflammation/pain

129
Q

mycology

A

study of fungi

130
Q

thallus

A

body of fungus

131
Q

mycelium

A

in the food source

132
Q

hyphus

A

make up the thallus

133
Q

ectoplasm

A
  • rough/viscus cytoplasm
134
Q

what happens when ectoplasm is lacking water?

A

it will create a protein called a cyst

135
Q

what happens when ectoplasm has too much water?

A

it will become a trophozoite
- metabolically active
- direct

136
Q

protozoa

A

unicellular, eukaryotic organisms

137
Q

trypansoma

A

transferred by insect

138
Q

mastigophoran

A

enlarges the heart
- infects humans

139
Q

leishmania

A

causes immune response issues

140
Q

ciliophora

A

most are harmless

141
Q

apicomplex

A
  • most medically important
  • most complex
142
Q

platyhelminths

A

-flatworms
- size (1mm-30mm)
- except tapeworms are 6-25ft
- no tubular digestive tract
- absorb nutrients through skin
- have both male and female parts
- flukes & tapeworms

143
Q

nematodes

A
  • heart worm
  • size (1mm-2mm)
  • has tubes (digestive tract)
  • has males population and female population
  • intestinal/ circulatory parasites
  • parasitic adult/larvae forms
144
Q

flukes

A
  • class of parasitic flatworms
  • tissue flukes
  • blood flukes
  • life cycle with multiple hosts
145
Q

tapeworms

A
  • class of parasitic flatworms
  • scolex
  • proglottids
  • generalized life cycle involved intermediate and definitive hosts
146
Q

arthropods as vectors

A
  • arachnid
  • insects
  • crustaceans
147
Q

virus

A
  • can infect overtype of cell
  • obligate intracellular parasites
  • cannot multiply unless invade a specific host cell and instruct its genetic and metabolic machinery to make/ release new viruses
148
Q

nucleic acids

A
  • DNA or RNA
  • known as the “core”
  • found in the center
149
Q

capsid

A

capsomeres

150
Q

DNA

A
  • includes double stranded and single stranded
151
Q

double-stranded DNA

A

can be linear or circulate
(5’->3’ or 3’->5’)

152
Q

single stranded DNA

A
  • 5’ -> 3’= positive and can replicate
  • 3’ -> 5’= negative and has to be degraded to go through replication
153
Q

RNA

A

-more problematic
- includes mRNA, RNA, and retroviruses

154
Q

what does naked mean?

A

no phospholipid bilayer

155
Q

envelope meaning

A

phospholipid bilayer
- spikes
- 13 of 20 animal virus families

156
Q

prions

A
  • infectious proteins
  • changes from alpha helices to beta pleated sheets
157
Q

what can prions do?

A

prions can build up like plaque in the axon of a neuron, causing a blockage of signals (can cause many problems)