exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
- What is criminal homicide?
A
c) The killing of a human being by another human being when it is not justified
2
Q
- Which of the following is most commonly associated with homicide cases?
A
c) Homicides involving some relationship to the victim
3
Q
- Why are homicidal attacks by strangers relatively uncommon?
A
d) The majority of homicides involve people the victim knows
4
Q
- What psychological need does our fascination with murder and crime stories fulfill?
A
b) The need to break monotony and experience novelty
5
Q
- According to psychologists, what produces arousal and excitement, breaking monotony?
A
b) Novelty and surprise
6
Q
- What does curiosity help us identify?
A
a) Danger signals
7
Q
- Piaget’s concept of ‘schemas’ helps us understand the formation of:
A
c) Cognitive structures and empathy
8
Q
- What makes serial killers particularly fascinating to society, according to Dr. Scott Bonn?
A
c) Their incomprehensible brutality and seeming unnatural behavior
9
Q
- Which concept explains our tendency to fear things that we have seen or heard about, like airplane crashes or shark attacks?
A
b) Availability heuristics
10
Q
- Why do people often fear flying or swimming in the ocean despite low probabilities of these events happening?
A
b) They visualize catastrophic events, like crashes or shark attacks
11
Q
- How do media outlets like newspapers and magazines grab the attention of their audiences?
A
b) By offering controversial or surprising twists
12
Q
- What controversial claim was made about Meghan Markle in the media?
A
b) She was related to one of America’s most prominent serial killers, H.H. Holmes
13
Q
- Which theory suggests that we enjoy the crime genre because it offers clear distinctions between right and wrong, unlike complex issues like politics?
A
c) The just-world hypothesis
14
Q
- Why might serial killings be more appealing to people than other complex topics?
A
a) They are often gruesome but simple to understand
15
Q
- What drives our desire for fairness when viewing the consequences of serial killers’ actions?
A
b) Our inherent sense of justice and balance
16
Q
- Which group is often more interested in crime genres, particularly in terms of entertaining aggressive impulses?
A
d) Young men
17
Q
- Which characteristic of true crime content appeals to a wider audience, according to researchers?
A
a) High entertainment value and dramatic flair
18
Q
- What term refers to the method of blending entertainment and factual content, especially in the true-crime genre?
A
c) Sensationalism
19
Q
- Why have documentaries, especially true crime, become a major segment of the streaming industry?
A
b) They are always factual and impartial
20
Q
- What was the primary reason for the increased production of true crime documentaries during the pandemic?
A
b) The need for cost-effective content during lockdowns
21
Q
- Which of the following true-crime documentaries had significant success during the pandemic?
A
c) Making a Murderer
22
Q
- What is a significant ethical concern raised by true-crime documentaries?
A
c) The potential for misleading or exaggerated storytelling
23
Q
- What does the success of true crime documentaries in streaming platforms illustrate about audience preferences?
A
b) People are drawn to narratives that blend fact and drama
24
Q
- What is the primary advantage of documentaries over scripted content for streaming platforms?
A
b) They require fewer resources and lower budgets
25
26. What term is used to describe the strategy where streaming platforms produce more true crime content to retain subscribers?
b) Retention marketing
26
27. What did critics suggest about the true-crime documentary Sophie: A Murder in West Cork?
a) It was overly sensationalized
27
28. What is the main criticism of Netflix’s true-crime series Making a Murderer?
c) It provides misleading information and omits key details
28
29. Why do filmmakers sometimes take creative liberties in true-crime documentaries?
a) To ensure higher ratings and maintain audience engagement
29
30. According to Marc Smerling, what could be the biggest threat to the true-crime documentary genre?
a) Overexposure and audience fatigue
30
1. What are the three major issues discussed in developmental psychology?
A) Nature vs. Nurture, Continuity and Stages, Stability and Change
31
2. Which of the following best describes the concept of "Heritability"?
A) The proportion of variation among individuals in a population that we can attribute to genetic factors.
32
3. According to the study of Evolutionary Psychology, natural selection explains how:
A) Traits that improve an organism's chances of survival and reproduction are passed down through generations.
33
4. Why do females tend to be more selective than males in choosing sexual partners?
B) Women invest more in reproduction, so they are choosier about their mates.
34
5. Which of the following parenting styles is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem and social competence in children?
Authoritative
35
6. What is the term for the emotional bond between a child and their caregiver, often shown by distress during separation?
Attachment
36
7. In Piaget’s Sensorimotor Stage of development, children primarily learn through:
C) Active manipulation of objects and sensory experiences
37
8. In which stage of Piaget’s cognitive development theory does a child begin to develop the ability to perform mental operations like conservation?
C) Concrete Operational Stage
38
9. Lev Vygotsky’s theory emphasized the importance of which factor in cognitive development?
B) Social interactions and language
39
10. Which of the following is an example of "egocentrism" as described in Piaget’s Preoperational Stage?
B) A child believing that others can see and feel what they see and feel.
40
11. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development suggests that individuals move through a series of stages. Which level involves making moral decisions based on the approval or disapproval of others?
B) Conventional Level
41
12. According to Erikson, during which stage do children primarily face the crisis of “trust vs. mistrust”?
Infancy
42
13. Which of the following parenting styles is characterized by strict rules and high expectations without explanation?
Authoritarian
43
14. The concept of “Theory of Mind” refers to a child’s ability to:
B) Grasp the idea that other people have thoughts, feelings, and perspectives that differ from their own.
44
15. What does the term "habituation" refer to in infant development?
B) The gradual decline in response to repeated exposure to the same stimulus.
45
16. According to Belyaev’s study on fox domestication, which principle was most important in shaping the traits of domesticated foxes?
B) Natural selection based on favorable traits for survival
46
17. Which of the following best describes the term “attachment” in the context of social development?
B) A bond between a child and their caregiver that influences the child’s social and emotional development.
47
18. Which of the following statements about aggressive behavior is true?
A) Men are more likely to engage in relational aggression than women.
B) Women generally engage in more physical violence than men.
C) Men are more likely to commit violent crimes and engage in physical aggression.
D) Relational aggression is more dangerous than physical aggression.
C) Men are more likely to commit violent crimes and engage in physical aggression.
48
19. What does the “critical period” refer to in early development?
B) A period during which children are most susceptible to certain types of learning and development.
49
20. Which of the following describes an outcome commonly associated with neglectful parenting?
B) Children who tend to be antisocial and lack cognitive competence.
50
1. What is the Cumulative Risk (CR) Model?
b) A model that emphasizes the accumulation of risk factors in the absence of protective factors, leading to negative behavioral, emotional, and cognitive outcomes.
51
2. Which of the following is the best predictor of future violence in children?
a) Persistent bedwetting
b) Cruelty to animals
c) Academic performance
d) Impulsivity
b) Cruelty to animals
52
3. According to the Developmental Cascade (DC) Model, how do risk factors interact over time?
b) Risk factors interact and determine the trajectory of a person’s development, leading to further deficits.
53
4. What is the primary outcome of children growing up in poverty, according to research?
b) Greater likelihood of engaging in criminal behavior, including violence.
54
5. Peer rejection in early childhood can lead to:
b) Rejected children with aggressive tendencies are more likely to join deviant groups, like gangs.
55
6. What factor is a common consequence of poverty affecting parenting styles?
c) Coercive and harsh parenting methods due to stress and lack of resources.
56
7. How do peer rejection and aggression relate to delinquency in adolescence?
b) Rejected children with aggressive tendencies are more likely to join deviant groups, like gangs.
57
Which of the following is NOT considered a developmental risk factor?
a) Early childhood trauma or abuse
b) Secure attachment to caregivers
c) Parental involvement and monitoring
d) Exposure to violence in the home
b) Secure attachment to caregivers
58
9. What is the role of the "Triad of Behaviors" (cruelty to animals, firesetting, and bedwetting) in predicting criminal behavior?
c) Cruelty to animals is the strongest predictor of future violence, including serial offenses.
59
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of children with insecure attachment (e.g., anxious/ambivalent or avoidant)?
b) They experience difficulties with emotional regulation and social relationships.
60
11. What is the most important factor in determining whether a child raised in a risky environment will develop antisocial behavior?
b) The quality of parental attachment and emotional support
61
12. According to the Cumulative Risk Model, which of the following is an example of a protective factor?
b) A nurturing and involved caregiver
62
13. What is a common consequence of parental psychopathology (e.g., depression or substance abuse)?
b) Increased likelihood of the child engaging in delinquent behavior
63
14. What is a significant psychological risk factor linked to aggressive and criminal behavior in children?
b) ADHD, particularly with high levels of impulsivity and hyperactivity
64
15. What does Bowlby’s Attachment Theory suggest about early relationships with caregivers?
b) A secure attachment forms a foundation for healthy relationships and emotional development in later life.
65
16. What is the impact of sibling influences on delinquency?
a) Older siblings who engage in delinquent behavior can reinforce antisocial behaviors in younger siblings.
66
17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of children who are more likely to be rejected by peers?
a) Aggression
b) Difficulty making eye contact
c) Social competence
d) Speech impediments
c) Social competence
67
18. What role does observational learning (modeling) play in aggression?
b) Observing aggressive behavior can lead children to learn and reproduce those behaviors.
68
19. Which of the following is most likely to result in a secure attachment between a child and caregiver?
a) Ignoring the child’s emotional needs to encourage independence
b) Providing consistent care and responding to the child’s needs
c) Being excessively overprotective and controlling the child’s environment
d) Encouraging the child to form attachments to peers only
b) Providing consistent care and responding to the child’s needs
69
20. In terms of social environmental risk factors, which of the following is true?
c) Poverty can lead to increased stress, which negatively affects parenting and child development.
70
1. What is the primary difference between a psychopath and a sociopath?
Psychopaths are biologically predisposed, while sociopaths are shaped by environmental factors.
71
2. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)?
C) Exhibiting severe anxiety and depression
72
3. Which of the following is considered a primary psychopathy trait?
B) Excessive neuropsychological need for thrills and excitement
73
4. Which of the following best describes a "secondary psychopath"?
A) A person who engages in violent behavior due to severe emotional problems.
74
5. What is one of the key differences between psychopaths and sociopaths in terms of behavior?
A) Psychopaths tend to be methodical, while sociopaths are more impulsive.
75
6. What is a key neurological feature found in psychopaths?
B) Impaired functioning in the prefrontal cortex
76
7. Which of the following traits is commonly associated with psychopathy?
B) Chronic inability to form emotional bonds
77
8. What percentage of male inmates are diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)?
B) 50-80%
78
9. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a psychopathic personality, according to the Four-Factor Model?
A) Sensation-seeking and impulsivity
B) Deep emotional connections with others
C) Pathological lying and conning
D) Poor self-regulation and delinquency
B) Deep emotional connections with others
79
10. Which type of empathy do psychopaths usually lack?
B) Affective empathy
80
11. What is the most common environmental factor contributing to the development of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)?
B) Childhood physical abuse
81
12. Which of the following is a common characteristic of female psychopaths?
B) Rely on relational aggression and manipulation
82
13. Which of the following is true about the relationship between psychopathy and recidivism?
C) Psychopaths show high rates of recidivism, committing crimes after release.
83
14. Which of the following is a neurobiological factor associated with psychopathy?
B) Low levels of frontal lobe activity
84
15. What is the primary challenge in treating criminal psychopaths?
A) They are resistant to psychological treatment due to their manipulative tendencies.
85
16. Which of the following traits is considered a predictor of future violent behavior in children?
B) Persistent cruelty to animals
86
17. According to research, which of the following is most likely to be found in psychopaths' brains?
A) Overactive amygdala and underactive prefrontal cortex
87
18. Which of the following fictional characters is often portrayed as having psychopathic traits?
B) John Wick
88
19. Which of the following is a method used to explain psychopathy in children?
A) Excessive childhood neglect
89
20. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding psychopathy and genetics?
C) Heredity plays a role, but no single gene has been linked to psychopathy.
90
1. Which of the following cases raised concerns about intellectual disability leading to violence?
A) Andrea Yates
B) Pedro Hernandez
C) Jared Laughner
D) Eddie Ray Routh
B) Pedro Hernandez
91
2. What is the percentage of the U.S. population diagnosed with a serious mental illness?
C) 18%
92
3. What is the main goal of therapy?
B) To change abnormal behavior to normal behavior
93
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential features of therapy?
A) A series of contacts between the therapist and the sufferer
B) The sufferer seeks help from a trained professional
C) The professional must have a general understanding of therapy
D) The professional must be specifically trained in the field of therapy
C) The professional must have a general understanding of therapy
94
5. Which type of therapy focuses on changing distorted thinking through questioning?
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
95
6. Which therapy method is used to gradually expose a patient to a feared situation or object in a controlled environment?
C) Exposure Therapy
96
7. According to Thomas Szasz, what is the concept of mental illness?
C) A concept used to control individuals who act differently from the majority
97
8. The "Four D's" of mental disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Deviance
B) Depression
C) Dysfunction
D) Danger
B) Depression
98
9. Which of the following is the best description of 'Deviance' in mental disorders?
B) A behavior that deviates from cultural or societal norms
99
10. Which of the following disorders is characterized by intrusive, unwanted thoughts leading to repetitive behaviors?
C) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
100
11. Which of the following is a primary symptom of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
C) Intrusive memories or flashbacks
101
12. Which of the following is NOT a component of Bipolar Disorder?
D) Generalized Anxiety
102
13. What differentiates Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?
A) The presence of at least one manic episode in Bipolar I
103
14. Schizophrenia is primarily characterized by:
C) Episodes of psychosis
104
15. The myth that people with schizophrenia are dangerous is:
B) Partially true, as schizophrenia can lead to violent behavior in rare cases
105
16. Which of the following is NOT a factor associated with Substance Use Disorder (SUD)?
D) Development of new, healthier coping mechanisms
106
17. What is the primary reason that mental disorders are overrepresented in the criminal justice population?
B) Mental illness increases the likelihood of criminal behavior due to impaired decision-making
107
18. The "Duty to Warn" rule emerged from the case of:
B) Tatiana Tarasoff
108
19. Under the M’Naghten Rule, a defendant cannot be held responsible for their actions if:
A) They were unable to understand right from wrong due to a mental illness
109
20. What is the Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA)?
B) A law stating that defendants cannot be held responsible if they could not understand the wrongfulness of their actions
