Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most prominent tubercle in the neck?

A

chassaignac tubercle

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2
Q

Where is the chassaignac tubercle located?

A

the anteroir tubercle of the transverse process of the 6th cervical vertebra (correlated with the cricoid process) against which the carotid artery may be compressed by the finder (ie. carotid massage.)

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3
Q

Major agonists of the ANS

A

-Ach
-NE
-Epi
-DA
-ATP

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4
Q

Calcium plays a critical role in the regulation in the peripheral vessel diameter. Increase Ca2+ causes ____________ and reduced intracellular calcium leads to __________.

A

vasoconstriction
Vasodilation

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5
Q

G-protein CAMP and nitric oxide cGMp vessel effects

A

vasodilation

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6
Q

Phospholipase C vessel effects

A

vasoconstriction

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7
Q

increased cAMP and protein kinase A _______________ intracellular calcium.

A

increase

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8
Q

Protein Kinase A (PKA) affects excitation-contraction coupling by:

A

-inhibition of voltage gated Ca 2+ channels in the sarcolemma
-inhibition of Ca+ release from the SR
-reduced sensitivity of the myofilaments to Ca+2
-facilitation of Ca+2 reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum via SERCA2 pump

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9
Q

What determines how well the pump is primed?

A

preload

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10
Q

What is directly related to tension developed in the ventricles?

A

preload

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11
Q

Right ventricular end diastolic volume is the product of ________

A

systemic venous return

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12
Q

Left ventricular end diastolic volume is the product of

A

pulmonary circulation enters the left side of the heart after it has gone through the pulmonary circulation

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13
Q

preload can be measured by

A

CVP (RVEDP) and LAP or indirectly by PCWP (LVEDP)

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14
Q

Frank starling principle

A

increased myocardial fiber length (preload) improves contractility up to a point of ultimate decompensation

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15
Q

What is impedance to left ventricular outflow

A

afterload
-can be altered with drugs that dilate or constrict vascular beds-mostly via arterial vessels
-arterial vasodilators decrease resistance to ventricular contraction but can also decrease preload

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16
Q

Factors influencing contractility

A

-appropriate amounts of potassium, sodium and calcium
-sympathetic nervous system via Beta 1 receptor stimulation (increased contractility, HR, ventricular automaticity and myocardial O2 consumption)
-increased levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (caMP)
-preload and afterload

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17
Q

Cardac output

A

-volume of blood the heart ejects each minute
CO=SV x HR

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18
Q

normal cardiac output

A

4-8L/min

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19
Q

Cardiac index (CI)

A

adjusts the CO value for an individual body size
CI=CO divided by BSA (2.5–4.0 L/min)

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20
Q

3 primary factors that determine CO (SV):

A

-preload
-afterload
-contractility

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21
Q

What is myocardial oxygen supply determined by:

A

oxygen content of afterial blood
coronary perfusion

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22
Q

What is coronary perfusion influenced by?

A

heart rate

slower heart rate increased diastolic time thus allowing for increased coronary perfusion

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23
Q

what determines coronary perfusion pressure

A

diastolic pressure

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24
Q

coronary blood flow is regulated by

A

coronary vascular tone

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25
Q

myocardial oxygen demand is influenced by

A

-preload
-afterload
-inotrophy
-heart rate

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26
Q

myocardial oxygen demand is increased by an increase in ____ and in increase in _______.

A

preload and inotropy

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27
Q

myocardial oxygen demand is decreased by a

A

decrease in afterload
decrease in HR

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28
Q

_________ is the NT responsible for most adrenergic activity of the SNS.

A

norepi

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29
Q

the action of more is terminated by reuptake into the postganglionic nerve ending

A
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30
Q

Where are alpha 1 receptors located?

A

in smooth muscle throughout the body

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31
Q

most important CV effect upon alpha 1 stimulation is

A

vasoconstriction

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32
Q

Alpha 1

A

increased peripheral vascular resistance
increased arterial BP

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33
Q

where are alpha 2 receptors located chiefly on

A

the presynaptic nerve terminals

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34
Q

stimulation of alpha 2 receptors creates a ___________

A

negative feedback loop that inhibits further norepinephrine release. decreases vasoconstriction.

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35
Q

antagonism of alpha 2 receptors causes

A

enhanced release of NE from nerve endings

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36
Q

Beta 1 receptor stimulation

A

-increases heart rate, conduction and contractility
chronotropy, dromotropy (affects conduction speed in AV node) ,inotropy

stimulation activates adenylyl cyclase, which converts ATP to cAMP

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37
Q

beta 2 receptors are located on

A

post synaptic receptors in smooth muscle and gland cells

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38
Q

beta 2 receptor stimulation

A

relaxes smooth muscle, resulting in bronchodilation, vasodilitation and relaxation of the uterus. bladder and gut

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39
Q

Alpha non specific agonists

A

epinephrine
norepinephrine

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40
Q

alpha 1 agonist specific drugs

A

-phenylephrine
-methoxamine (Vasoxyl)

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41
Q

Alpha 2 selective agonist drugs

A

-clonidine
-dexmeditomidine

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42
Q

alpha non specific antagonist meds

A

phentolamine (regitine)
-phenoxybenzamine

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43
Q

alpha 1 antagonist selective meds

A

-prazosin (minipress)
-cardura
-hytrin

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44
Q

Alpha 2 antagonist selective

A

Yohimbine

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45
Q

endogenous catecholamines

A

-dopamine
-norepinephrine
-epinephrine

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46
Q

non endogenous (or synthetic sympathomimetic) catecholamines

A

-isoproterenol
-dobutamine

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47
Q

Beta 1 stimulation causes:

A

increase in contractility and HR which leads to increased cardiac output and MVO2 (demand)

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48
Q

beta 2 stimulation causes:

A

vasodilation in skeletal muscles and bronchial smooth muscle
-may decrease diastolic pressure

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49
Q

alpha 1 stimulation

A

increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures and systolic BP however stimulation of alpha 1 receptors in the skin, mucosa and hepatorenal vasculature causes vasoconstriction and decrease flow

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50
Q

what is the principle pharmacologic treatment for anaphylaxis and v fib

A

epinephrine

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51
Q

complications of epinephrine

A

-cerebral hemorrhage
-coronary ischemia
-ventricular arrhythmias

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52
Q

norepi receptor

A

direct alpha 1 stimulation resulting in vasoconstriction with increases SVR (both arterial and venous) may cause reflex bradycardia
-beta 1 stimulation increase myocardial contractility
-Beta 2 minimal to absent

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53
Q

Renal doses of dopamine predominate at

A

<2 mcg/kg/min

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54
Q

Beta 1 stimulation of dopamine at

A

2-10 mcg/kg/min resulting in increased myocardial contractility, HR and CO

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55
Q

Alpha 1 stimulation of dopamine at

A

10-20 mcg/kg/min resulting in increased PVR due to vasoconstriction

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56
Q

Dose of dopamine >20mcg/kg/min and higher result in

A

release of norepinephrine, because dopamine is an intermediate product in the enzymatic pathway leading to the production of norepinephrine, thus acts indirectly by releasing norepinephrine

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57
Q

high doses of dopamine can inhibit ______ and cause _________

A

insulin and cause hyperglycemia

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58
Q

What is a synthetic catecholamine with structural characteristics of dopamine and isoproteronol

A

dobutamine
selective Beta 1 agonist
increases cardiac contractility (inotropic effects)
-can increase myocardial oxygen demand
-increases cerebral blood flow
-decreases systemic vascular resistance (beta 2 agonist)

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59
Q

Dose of dobutamine

A

2-20mcg/kg/min

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60
Q

effects of isoproterenol

A

increased heart rate, myocardial contractility, systolic blood pressure
no alpha
-excessive tachycardia and decreased diastolic pressure and may decrease coronary flow
high incidence of cardiac dysrhythmia

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61
Q

examples of beta agonists

A

-albuterol
-terbutaline
ritodrine

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62
Q

beta agonist effects

A

-relax bronchioles and uterine smooth muscles
-used to treat bronchospasm
-in ob: used to stop uterine contraction

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63
Q

direct acting sympathomimetic

A

synthetic drugs that are used as vasopressors to reverse hypotension
-mimic effects of norepinephrine

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64
Q

indirect acting sympathomimetics

A

synthetic drugs that are used as vasopressures to reverse hypotension
-evoke release of endogenous norepinephrine

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65
Q

Ephedrine

A

-non-catecholamine
direct and indirect acting sympathomimetic
-CV effects similar to those of epinephrine although ephedrine is less potent with longer DOA
-increases BP by stimulating release of norepi
-increases cardiac contractility and heartrate secondary to beta-1 receptor stimulation
-bronchodilator

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66
Q

Ephedrine dose

A

2.5-10mg bolus

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67
Q

diluting epi

A

available 50mg/ml dilute with 9ml NS to created 5mg/ml in 10 ml syringe

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68
Q

Phenylephrine

A

non-catecholamine, direct acting (mimics effects of norpi), alpha 1 agonist
-primary effect is peripheral vasoconstriction which increases systemic vascular resistance and BP
-reflex bardy
-increases cerebral blood flow

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69
Q

iinfusion of phenylephrine

A

0.25-1mcg/kg/min

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70
Q

phenylephrine dilution

A

10mg/ml availability
10mg in 250ml=40 mcg/ml

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71
Q

primary uses of phenoxybenzamine

A

chronic medical control of patients with pheochromocytoma
-raynaud’s disease by reversing vasoconstriction in the hands

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72
Q

moa phenoxybenzamine

A

-non-selective alpha antagonist
blockage at alpha 1> alpha 2

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73
Q

phentolamine moa

A

competitive alpha antagonist: smooth muscle relaxation. which leads to peripheral vasodilation, decreased BP (alpha 1) and reflex tachycardia (alpha 2)
-used to treat extravasation of alpha agonist. 5-10mg locally infiltrated to prevent tissue necrosis

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74
Q

dose of phentolamine

A

1-5 mg bolus

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75
Q

Prazosin MOA

A

-alpha 1 receptor antagonist
-dilated both arterioles and veins
-decreases SVR And preload
-virtually no tachycardia secondary to lack of alpha two antagonistic

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76
Q

loading dose of dexmeditomidine

A

0.5-2mcg/kg over 10 minutes

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77
Q

infusion of dexmeditomidine

A

0.2-0.7mcg/kg/hr

78
Q

clonidine (catapress)

A

-central acting on alpha 2 agonist receptors located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
-decreases outflow of sympathetic nervous system bty reducing plasma catecholamine levels
-negative chronotropic effects
-decreased CO, SVR, BP
-sedative and analgesic effects decrease anesthesia requirements
-effective in suppressing the signs and symptoms of withdrawal from opioids
-the adverse effect is rebound HTN when abruptly d/c’d

79
Q

IV dose clonidine

A

1-3 mcg/kg

80
Q

Do beta blockers inhibit platelet aggregation?

81
Q

Decrease in heart rate produced by B blockers :

A

-prolongs diastole
-increases coronary blood flow to LV
-enhances coronary collateral perfusion to ischemic myocardium
-improves oxygen delivery to coronary microcirculation

also serves to reduce myocardial oxygen demand while increasing the supply

82
Q

Propanolol (inderal) receptor action

A

nonselective Beta 1 and beta 2 antagonist
prototypical B-blocker

83
Q

propanolol effects

A

decreases HR and cardiac output which deccreases myocardial oxygen requirements
-decreases myocardial contractility
-decreases spontaneous SA node firing; slows av conduction
-SVT

84
Q

uses of propanolol

A

SVT
A-fib
A-flutter

85
Q

dose of propanolol

A

1-3mg IV in 0.5 mg increments q 2 min

86
Q

metoprolol (lopressor) receptor action

A

selective beta 1 antagonist

87
Q

dose of metoprolol

A

15mg IV given 5 mg increments q 2-3 minutes
1/2 life 3-4 hours

88
Q

Atenolol (tenormin) receptor action

A

beta one selective antagonist

89
Q

dose of atenolol

A

mostly PO for HTN-long acting

5mg IV over 10 min

90
Q

esmolol (Brevibloc) receptor

A

selective beta 1 antagonist
ultra short acting

91
Q

dose of esmolol

A

10mg IVP

infusion load 250mcg/kg over 5 min f/b 25-50 mcg/kg/min

92
Q

labetolol actions

A

-lowers bp without reflexive increase in HR
-decreases PVR, HP, HR
CO slightly depressed or unchangeed

93
Q

labetolol dose

A

0.1-0.5mg/kg IV

94
Q

1/2 life labetolol

A

3- 8 hours

95
Q

which is a non-selective Beta blocker used in treatment of glaucoma

A

timolol (blocadren)
mostly used to derease IOP by decreasing formation of aqueous humor

96
Q

phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

inhibit PDE III (milrinone and amrinone) enzyme that breaks down caMP
increase levels of cAMP result in vasodilation, decreased PVR and promotes ventricular filling (preload)

97
Q

PDE inhibitors other action

A

alters intracellular Ca regulation to enhance myocardial contractility without affecting catecholamine release or activation of Beta 1 receptors
-pronounced arterial and venous vasodilation by blocking cGMP metabolism and facilitating actions of second messenger in vascular smooth muscle
-
contraindicated in tx of heart failure

98
Q

Vasopressin

A

-peptide hormone release from posterior pituitary
-regulates water reabsorption in the kidney and exerts potent hemodtynamic effects independent of adrenoceptis
-activation of subtype triggers second messengers to increase intracellular smooth muscle cell

99
Q

vasopressin uses

A

-intraop hypotension due to ACEIs and ARBs refractory to admin of catecholamines or sympathomimetic
-anaphylaxis
-vasoplegia: severe hypotension after prolonged CPB
-cardiac arrest from vfib, PEA asystole

100
Q

nitroglycerin

A

-relaxes vascular smooth muscle
-venous dilatation predominates over arterial which leads to decreased myocardial o2 demand
-decreases preload
-MOA similar to sodium nitroprusside (metabolism of NO)

101
Q

infusion of nitroglycerin

A

0.5-10mcg/kg/min

102
Q

Risk of sodium nitroprusside

A

vascular steal snydromes:
-coronary steal: shunts blood away from compromised coronary leading to worsening ischemia and infarction
cerebral steal

avoid ni patients with cerebral ischemia and increased ICP
-rebound HTN with sudden d/c

103
Q

nipride metabolism

A

-enters RBCs and receives an electron from iron of oxyhemoglobin (Fe2+)
-this electron transfer results in an unstable nitroprusside redical and methemoglobin (Fe3+)
-nitroprusside radicals decompose into cyanide ions
-cyanide ions bind to tissue cytochrome oxidanse which interferes with normal Oxygen utilization and prevents oxygen from being released by tissues
-risk factors include malnutrition, liver disease, CPB and hypothermia

104
Q

s/s of acute cyanide toxicity

A

metabolic acidosis
tachyphylaxis
increased mixed venous O2
cardiac dysrhythmias
-mechanically with 100% oxygen
-administer sodium thiosulfate 150mg/kg over 15 min
-thiosulfate converts cyanide to thiocyanate which is cleared by kidneys

105
Q

hydralazine effects

A

-decreases SVR
-decreases BP
-increases HR and CO
-relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle

106
Q

hydralazine dose

A

5-20mg IV
onset 15-20 min
duration 2-4 hours

107
Q

Calcium channel blocker tx

A

-HTN
-SVT
-coronary artery spasm
-angina
cerebral artery vasospasm

108
Q

how do CCB work?

A

decreases myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing afterload, contractility, HR and conduction through AV node
-small muscle relaxation and vasodilation

109
Q

what is the most potent CCB?

A

nifedipine (Procardia)

110
Q

nifedipine uses

A

-coronary vasospasm
-HTN
-angina

111
Q

nifedipine effects

A

-coronary and peripheral arterial vasodilation
-potential for hypotension and reflex tachycardia

112
Q

nicardipine (Cardene)

A

smooth muscle relaxation produces vasodilation of peripheral and coronary arteries
-minimal cardio depressant
-does not decrease the rate of the sinus node pacemaker or slow AV conduction

113
Q

nicardipine dose

A

1-4mcg/kg/min

114
Q

what is an ultra-short-acting dihydropyridine CCB with a plasma half-life of 2 min?

A

clevidipine

115
Q

which CCB is metabolized by plasma and tissue esterases?

A

clevidipine

116
Q

clevidipine uses

A

acute HTN in cardiac surgery
pheochromocytoma
acute intracerebral hemorrhage
spinal surgery

117
Q

which CCB’s primary use is to prevent cerebral artery vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage which can occur 4-14 days after event?

A

nimodipine

118
Q

Which CCB should you now use in WPW or other ventricular dysfunction conduction abnormalitiites since it inhibits the intrinsic conduction pathway?

119
Q

hypotensive episodes occur more frequently after anesthetic induction in patients receiving ARBs than other antiHTN and can be refractory to tx with ephedrine or phenylephrine

120
Q

Class IA Na channel blockers

A

Quinidine
procainamide
disopyramide

121
Q

class 1 B Na Channel blockers

A

Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Tocainide

122
Q

Class IC Na Channel blockers

A

Flecainide
propafenone
moricizine

123
Q

Class III K channel blockers (prolong repolarization)

A

amiodarone
bretylium
Sotolol (also Class II)

124
Q

Arterial BP

A

radial SBP> aortic
more distal site steeper anacrotic limb/higher SBP

125
Q

pulsus alternans

A

-alternating beats of larger and smaller pulse pressure
-signs of severe LV dysfunction

126
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

spontaneous respiration
decrease in SBP>10mmHg=P. Paradoxus
-inspiration normally decreases SBP secondary to pulmonary venous capacitance increase in venous return
common in tamponade or pericardial constriction

127
Q

causes of overdamping

A

kinks
air/clots
long tubing
hypotension/hypovolemia

128
Q

underdampening causes

A

hyperdynamic
HTN

129
Q

CVP contraindications

A

TV vegetation
anticoagulated patients
ipsilateral carotid endarterectomy

130
Q

Limintations of CVP

A

unhealthy hearts
-pulmonary HTN
-right or light heart failure
-tricuspid regurg
-positive pressure ventilation with PEEP >10cm H20

131
Q

CVP risks

A

-arrythmias
-infection
-clot formation
air embolism
-RA/RV perforamtion
-pneumo

132
Q

a wave

A

atrial contraction

133
Q

C wave

A

tending into RA during isovolumetric contraction

134
Q

V wave

A

atrial filling (during ventricular systole)

135
Q

x descent

A

atrial relaxation

136
Q

y decent

A

atrial emptying (passive)

137
Q

contraindications of PA cath

138
Q

giant V waves

A

secondary to severe MR

139
Q

indirect measure of LA pressure (preload)

A

PCWP

Perfect world PCWP=LVEDP=LVEDV

140
Q

distance from RIJ to RA, RV and PA

A

RA 20
RV 30
PA 45

141
Q

distance from SC to RA, RV and PA

A

RA 15
RV 25
PA 40

142
Q

distance from LIJ to RA, RV, PA

A

RA 25
RV 35
PA 50

143
Q

distance from fem to RA, RV, PA

A

RA 30
RV 40
PA 55

144
Q

dromotropic agent

A

affects the conduction speed (the magnitude of delay) in the AV node of the heart and influences the rate of electrical impulse propagation in the heart

145
Q

Does diltiazem have a negative dromotropic effect?

A

yes, its prolongation of AV node conduction is useful in treating a-fub and flutter and SVT.
-may have negative inotropic effects on cardiac muscle not the AV node.
Diltiazem would have negative chronotropic effect at the SA node

146
Q

dose of Atropine effect at 0.5-1.0mg

A

-increased HR
-dry mouth
-lack of sweating
-thirst
-mild pupillary dilation

147
Q

atropine dose 2-5mg effect

A

-tachycardia
-palpitations
-mydriasis
-cycloplegia
-restlessness
-confusion

148
Q

atropine dose >5mg

A

profound tachycardia
-mydriasis
-cycloplegia
-hot flushed skin
-fever
-hallucinations
-coma
-death

149
Q

dihydropyridine class of Ca channel blockers

A

-nifedipine
-nimodipine
-nicardipine
-clevidipine

150
Q

benzothiazepine Ca channel blockers

151
Q

phenylalkylamines

152
Q

Which Ca channel blockers have better control of HR?

A

verapamil and diltiazem are good for tachycardia, a-fib, or a-flutter

153
Q

Which Ca channel blcokers have better control of vascular tone?

A

nifedipine and nicardipine are vasodilators best used in the tx of HTN form elevated SVR
-nicardipine is useful as a coronary antispasmodic

154
Q

PDE5 inhibitors

A

SVT
Sildenafil
Vardenafil
Tadalafil

-increased levels of cGMP and target lungs and penis (think viagra)
-enhances nitric oxide mediated by its inhibition of cGMP breakdown
-induce smooth muscle relaxation an increase blood flow
-promote pulmonary vasodilation and decrease pulmonary artery pressure

155
Q

PDE 4 inhibitos

A

IRA
Ibudilast
Roflumilast
Apremilast

-increase levels of cAMP targeting airways, skin and immune system

-aiways smooth muscle relaxation with hyperreactive airways

156
Q

PDE3 inhibitors

A

Milrinone
Cilostazole

increased levels of cAMP and cGMP

-increased intropy and relaxation of vascular and airway smooth muscle
-inodilations
-promote vasodilation in peripheral vessels and tx intermittent claudication

157
Q

nonspecific phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

theophylLINE
methyxanthine

-increased levels of cAMP in the airways
tx asthma and COPD

158
Q

V1

A

CV (increased CVR)

159
Q

V2

A

kidneys, antidiuretic

160
Q

V3

A

pituitary gland and modulate autocoids

161
Q

What are the intrinsic (intraocular) muscles of the eye?

A

-cililary muscle
-sphincter pupillae (circular) muscle
-dilator pupillae (radial) muscle

all are smooth muscle

162
Q

contraction of which muscle of the iris causes mydriasis?

A

contraction of the dilator pupillae (radial) muscle
-sympatheti drive causes release of NE that acts on alpha-1 adrenoreceptors in the radial muscle

163
Q

contraction of which muscle of the iris causes miosis?

A

contraction of the sphincter pupillae (circular) muscle

parasympathetic fibers course through CN3 and travel to M3 cholinergic receptors on the sphincter (or constrictor) muscle or the iris

164
Q

if tyrosine supply is low, cells can generate tyrosine from ___________.

A

phenyclalanine

165
Q

tyrosine is converted to L-dopa by_______

A

tyrosine hydroxylase (rate limiting step)
tyrosin hydroxylase activity is subjected to feedback inhibition by dopamine and NE

166
Q

L-dopa is converted to dopamine by___________

A

L-amino acid decarboxylase

167
Q

dopamine is converted to norepi by _________

A

dopamine beta-hydroxylasenor

168
Q

norepinephrine is converted to epi by _______________

A

enzyme phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase in the cytoplasm of adrenergic cells

169
Q

nicotonic receptors are___________

A

ion channelsm

170
Q

muscarinic receptors are _____________

171
Q

layers of the pericardium

A
  1. fibrous portion: tough, loose-fitting, inelastic sac around the heart
  2. serous portion:
    a. pariestal layer: lining inside of the fibrous pericardium
    b. visceral layer (epicardium) adheres to outside of the heart

Pericardial space: lies between the parietal and visceral layers

172
Q

Epicardium

A

outler layer of the heart wall; serous pericardium

173
Q

myocardium

A

-thick, contractile, middle layer of specially constructed and arranged cardiac muscle cells
-if the myocardium is damaged this can cause a myocardial infarction

174
Q

endocardium

A

-the lining of the interior of the myocardial wall and covers the trabeculae carnage (this helps add force to inward contraction of the heart wall

175
Q

structural features

A

nucleus: single (sometimes double); near the center of the cell
striations: present
t tubules: larger diameter; form diads with the SR, regulate Ca ++ entry into sarcoplasm
Sarcoplasmic reticulum: less extensive than in skeletal muscle
cell junctions: intercalated disks (gap junctions and desmosomes)
contraction style: syncytium (mass) of fibers compress the heart chambers in slow, separate contractions (does not exhibit tetanus or fatigue); exhibits autorhythmicity

176
Q

transverse (“t”) tubules

A

deep invaginations. penetrate the myoplasm and facilitate rapid, synchronous transmission of cellular depolarization

177
Q

What is the contractile unit of the cardiac myocyte?

A

-contains myofilaments in parallel-cross striated bundles of thin (actin, tropomyosin, troponin complex) and thick (myosin and proteins) fiber
-connected in a series, have long and short axes and simultaneously shorten and thicken during contraction
-A-band contains thick and thin filaments
-I-band contains thin filaments only
-Z-line

178
Q

3 interdigitating spiral muscle layers

A

-deep sinospiral
-superficial sinospiral
-superficial bulbospiral

179
Q

Which layer of the ventricle reduces the LV diameter, and constricts the lumen?

A

mid-myocardium : circumferential layer

180
Q

Which ventricular muscle layers are perpendicular, oblique, and helical routes from the base to the apex

A

subendocardial and subepicardial layers

-shorten the longitudinal axis of the LV
-pulls the apex of the heart toward the base
-systolic “twisting” or “wringing” motion of the fibers

181
Q

Which ventricle accomodates volume overload more easily?

A

right ventricle

182
Q

low pressure right ventricle in mmHg

183
Q

o2 saturation of RV?

184
Q

atrioventricular valve

A

tricuspid
mitral

185
Q

semilunar valves

A

pulmonary valve
aortic valve

186
Q

What is the aortic valve located

A

right 2nd intercostal space

187
Q

pulmonic location

A

left 2nd intercostal space

188
Q

Erb’s point location

A

left 3rd intercostal space

189
Q

Mitral location

A

left 5th intercostal medial to midclavicular line

190
Q

palpable point of maximal impulse (PMI)

A

-point in the chest where impulse of LV is the strongest
-also apical impulse
-5th Intercostal space intercostal space
-midclavicular

191
Q

PMI lateral or below 6th ICS can mean what?

A

ventricular enlargement