Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the pressure or resistance that ventricles must overcome to eject blood through the semilunar valves and into the peripheral blood vessels

A

afterload

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2
Q

pulse located at the left fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line (in the mitral area)

A

apical impulse, aka PMI

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3
Q

Sensory receptors in the arch of the aorta and at the origin of the internal carotid arteries that are stimulated when the arterial walls are stretched by an increased blood pressure.

A

baroreceptors

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4
Q

the force of blood exerted against the vessel walls

A

blood pressure

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5
Q

swishing sound that may occur from turbulent blood flow in narrowed or atherosclerotic arteries

A

bruit

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6
Q

most definitive, but most invasive test in the dx of heart disease; involves passing a small catheter into the heart and injecting contrast medium

A

cardiac catheterization

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7
Q

A calculation of cardiac output requirements to account for differences in body size; determined by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area.

A

cardiac index

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8
Q

volume of blood ejected by the heart each minute

A

cardiac output (CO)

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9
Q

serum lipid that includes high-density lipoproteins and low-density lipoproteins

A

cholesterol

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10
Q

phase of cardiac cycle that consists of relaxation and filling of the atria and ventricles; normally 2/3 of cardiac cycle

A

diastole

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11
Q

amount of pressure or force against the arterial walls during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle

A

diastolic blood pressure

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12
Q

uses ultrasound waves to assess cardiac structure and mobility (esp. the valves)

A

echocardiography

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13
Q

An invasive procedure during which programmed electrical stimulation of the heart is used to cause and evaluate dysrhythmias and conduction abnormalities to permit accurate diagnosis and treatment.

A

electrophysiologic study (EPS)

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14
Q

test that assesses cardiovascular response to an increased workload

A

exercise electrocardiography aka exercise tolerance or stress test

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15
Q

part of the total cholesterol value that should be more than 45 mm/dL for men and more than 55 mg/dL for women

A

high-density lipoproteins (HDLs); good cholesterol

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16
Q

a serum marker of inflammation and a common and critical component of the development of atherosclerosis

A

highly sensitive C-reactive protein (hsCRP)

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17
Q

an amino acid that is produced when proteins break down; elevated values may be a risk factor for the development of cardiovascular disease

A

homocysteine

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18
Q

part of total cholesterol value that should be less than 130 mg/dL

A

low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) aka bad cholesterol

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19
Q

arterial blood pressure that is necessary (between 60 and 70 mm Hg) to maintain perfusion of major body organs such as kidneys and the brain

A

mean arterial pressure (MAP)

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20
Q

abnormal heart sound that reflects turbulent blood flow through normal or abnormal valves

A

murmur

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21
Q

the heart muscle

A

myocardium

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22
Q

decrease in BP that occurs the first few seconds to minutes after changing from sitting or lying position to standing position

A

orthostatic hypotension aka postural hypotension

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23
Q

of packs of cigarettes per day multiplied by # of years the patient has smoked; used to record a patient’s smoking hx

A

pack-years

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24
Q

feeling of fluttering in the chest, an unpleasant awareness of the heartbeat, or an irregular heartbeat

A

palpitations

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25
Q

An exaggerated decrease in systolic pressure by more than 10 mm Hg during the inspiratory phase of the respiratory cycle; also known as paradoxical pulse and pulsus paradoxus.

A

paradoxical blood pressure

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26
Q

an abnormal sound that originates from the pericardial sac that occurs with the movements of the heart during the cardiac cycle

A

pericardial friction rub

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27
Q

the degree of mycocardial fiber stretch at the end of diastole and just before contraction

A

preload

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28
Q

difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures

A

pulse pressure

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29
Q

the use of radionuclide techniques in cardiovascular assessment

A

radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging (rMPI)

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30
Q

amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle during each contraction

A

stroke volume (SV)

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31
Q

phase of the cardiac cycle that consists of the contraction and emptying of the atria and ventricles

A

systole

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32
Q

the amount of pressure or force generated by the left ventricle to distribute blood into the aorta with each contraction of the heart

A

systolic blood pressure

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33
Q

a form of echocardiography performed through the esophagus that examines cardiac structure and function

A

transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)

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34
Q

serum lipid profile that includes the measurement of cholesterol and lipoproteins

A

triglycerides

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35
Q

myocardial muscle protein released into the bloodstream with injury to myocardial muscle

A

troponin

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36
Q

amount pumped by each heartbeat

A

60 mL, or 5 mL/min

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37
Q

part of cardiac cycle during which coronary artery blood flows to the myocardium

A

diastole

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38
Q

provides a route for blood to travel from the heart to nourish the various tissues of the body

A

vascular system

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39
Q

carries cellular waste to the excretory organs

A

vascular system

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40
Q

allows lymphatic flow to drain tissue back into circulation

A

vascular system

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41
Q

returns blood back to the heart for recirculation

A

vascular system

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42
Q

-autonomic nervous system
-kidneys
-endocrine system

A

mechanisms that mediate and regulate BP

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43
Q

excites or inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity in response to impulses from chemoreceptors and baroreceptors

A

how the autonomic nervous system mediates and regulates BP

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44
Q

sense a change in blood flow and activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism (RAS)

A

how kidneys mediate/regulate BP

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45
Q

releases various hormones to stimulate sympathetic nervous system at tissue level

A

how endocrine system mediates/regulates BP

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46
Q

completes the circulation of blood by returning blood from the capillaries to the right side of the heart

A

venous system

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47
Q

inflammation or alteration of the pericardium (the membranous sac that encloses the heart); may be fibrous, hemorrhagic, purulent, or neoplastic

A

acute pericarditis

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48
Q

flow of blood from the aorta back into the left ventricle during diastole; occurs when the valve leaflets do not close properly during diastole and the annulus (valve ring that attaches to the leaflets) is dilated or deformed

A

aortic regurgitation

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49
Q

narrowing of the aortic valve orifice and obstruction of left ventricular outflow during systole

A

aortic stenosis

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50
Q

in patients with some types of heart failure, the use of permanent pacemaker alone or in combination with an implantable cardioverter/defibrillator (ICD) to provide biventricular pacing

A

cardiac resynchronization therapy

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51
Q

compression of the myocardium by fluid that has accumulated around the heart; compresses the atria and the ventricles, preventing them from filling adequately and reducing cardiac output

A

cardiac tamponade

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52
Q

enlargement of the heart

A

cardiomegaly

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53
Q

heart failure that occurs when the left ventricle is unable to relax adequately during diastole, preventing the ventricle from filling adequately to ensure adequate cardiac output

A

diastolic heart failure

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54
Q

inability of the heart to pump effectively due to enlargement (dilation) and weakening of ventricles

A

dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)

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55
Q

% of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction

A

ejection fraction (EF)

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56
Q

breathlessness or difficulty breathing that develops during activity or exertion

A

exertional dypsnea

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57
Q

general term for inadequatepumping of blood throughout the body by the heart, causing insufficient perfusion of body tissues with vital nutrients and O2

A

heart failure (HF)

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58
Q

inability of the heart to pump blood effectively due to thickening (hypertrophy) of the heart muscle

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

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59
Q

a microbial infection involving the endocardium

A

infective endocarditis

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60
Q

inability of the mitral valve to close completely during systole, allowing the backflow of blood into the left atrium when the ventricle contracts

A

mitral regurgitation

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61
Q

Thickening of the mitral valve due to fibrosis and calcification. The valve leaflets fuse and become stiff, and the valve opening narrows, which prevents normal blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.

A

mitral stenosis

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62
Q

dysfunction of the mitral valve that occurs because the valvular leaflets enlarge and prolapse into the left atrium during systole

A

mitral valve prolapse

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63
Q

enlargement of the cardiac muscle

A

myocardial hypertrophy

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64
Q

accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space

A

pericardial effusion

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65
Q

withdrawal of pericardial fluid through a catheter inserted into the pericardial space to relieve the pressure on the heart

A

pericardiocentesis

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66
Q

pinpoint red or purple spots on the mucous membrane, palate, conjunctivae. or skin caused by bleeding within the dermal or submucosal layers

A

petechiae

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67
Q

type of pulse in which weak pulse alternates with a strong pulse despite a regular rhythm; seen in pts. w/ severely depressed cardiac fx

A

pulsus alternans

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68
Q

inability of the heart to pump effectively due to restrictive filling of the ventricles

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

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69
Q

sensitivity response that develops after an upper respiratory tract infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci that can damage heart valves

A

rheumatic carditis

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70
Q

third heart sound; an early diastolic filling sound that indicates an increase in left ventricular pressure and may be heard on auscultation in pts. w/ HF

A

S3 gallop

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71
Q

black, longitudinal line or small red streak on the distal third of the nail bed; seen in pts. with infective endocarditis

A

splinter hemorrhage

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72
Q

HF that results from the heart being unable to contract forcefully enough during systole to eject adequate amounts of blood into circulation

A

systolic heart failure

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73
Q

mechanical pump that is surgically inserted and has an external power source that supports the fx of the ventricles and heart

A

ventricular assist device (VAD)

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74
Q

sudden blockage of an artery, typically in the lower extremity, in patient with chronic peripheral arterial disease

A

acute arterial occlusion

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75
Q

permanent localized dilation of an artery that enlarges the artery to at least two times its normal diameter

A

aneurysm

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76
Q

measurement of arterial insufficiency based on ratio of ankle systolic blood pressure to brachial systolic BP

A

ankle-brachial index (ABI)

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77
Q

surgical procedure most commonly used to increase arterial blood flow in the affected limb of a pt with PAD

A

arterial revascularization

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78
Q

painful ulcers caused by diminished blood flow through an artery that develop on the toes (often the great toe), between the toes, or on the upper aspect of the foot)

A

arterial ulcers

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79
Q

thickening or hardening of the arterial wall, often associated with aging

A

arteriosclerosis

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80
Q

surgical opening into an artery

A

arteriotomy

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81
Q

an invasive nonsurgical technique in which a high-speed, rotating metal bur uses fine abrasive bits to debulk the inside of the artery while minimizing damage to the vessel

A

atherectomy

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82
Q

a type of arteriosclerosis that involves the formation of plaque within the arterial wall; the leading contributor to coronary artery and cerebrovascular disease

A

atherosclerosis

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83
Q

belonging to the person, ie. when a person’s artery is moved from one part of the body to another instead of using someone else’s

A

autogenous

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84
Q

circulation that provides blood to an area with altered perfusion through smaller vessels that develop and compensate for occluded vessels

A

collateral circulation

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85
Q

blood clot that forms in one or more of the deep veins in the body, usually the legs

A

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

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86
Q

blood clot or other object (like air bubbles, fatty deposits) that is carried in the bloodstream and lodges in another area

A

embolus

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87
Q

the repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm using a stent made of flexible material

A

endovascular stent graft

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88
Q

potentially devastating immune-mediated adverse drug reaction caused by the emergence of antibodies that activate platelets in the presence of heparin

A

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

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89
Q

elevation of serum lipid levels in the blood

A

hyperlipidemia

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90
Q

severe elevation in BP (>180/120) that can damage organs such as kidneys or heart

A

hypertensive crisis

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91
Q

type of vascular filter inserted by a surgeon percutaneously into the inferior vena cava; indicated for DVT or PE when anticoagulation tx is contraindicated

A

inferior vena cava filtration

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92
Q

obstructions in the distal end of the aorta and the common, internal, and external iliac arteries that result in pain or discomfort in the lower back, buttocks, or thighs

A

inflow disease

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93
Q

characteristic leg pain experienced by patients with chronic peripheral arterial disease

A

intermittent claudication

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94
Q

decrease in BP (20 mm Hg systolic or 10 mm Hg diastolic) that occurs when a pt changes position from lying to sitting or standing

A

orthostatic hypotension

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95
Q

obstruction in the femoral, popliteal, and tibial arteries and below the superficial femoral artery (SFA) that cause burning or cramping in the calves, ankles, feet, and toes

A

outflow disease

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96
Q

disorders that change the natural flow of blood through the arteries and veins of the peripheral circulation, causing decreased perfusion to body tissues

A

peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

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97
Q

inflammation of a vein, which can predispose pts to thrombosis

A

phlebitis

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98
Q

the most common type of HTN, not caused by an existing health problem

A

primary hypertension

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99
Q

dusky red discoloration of the skin

A

rubor

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100
Q

HTN related to a specific disease or mediation

A

secondary HTN

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101
Q

in pts with venous insufficiency, changes in skin pigmentation along the ankles; may extend up calves

A

stasis dermatitis

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102
Q

associated with long-term venous insufficiency; ulcer formed as a result of edema or minor injury to the limb; typically occurs over malleolus

A

stasis ulcers

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103
Q

vascular lesions with red center and radiating branches; commonly referred to as spider veins or spider angiomas

A

telangiectasias

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104
Q

surgical procedure used to remove deep thrombosis, or blood clots that have formed in the deep veins

A

thrombectomy

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105
Q

thrombus that is associated with inflammation

A

thrombophlebitis

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106
Q

blood clot believed to result from an endothelial injury, venous stasis, or hypercoagulation

A

thrombus

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107
Q

distended, protruding veins that appear darkened and tortous

A

varicose veins

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108
Q

alteration of venous efficiency by thrombosis or defective valves; caused by prolonged venous HTN, which stretches the veins and damages the valves, resulting in further venous HTN, edema, and eventually venous stasis ulcers, swelling, and cellulitis

A

venous insufficiency

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109
Q

term that refers to both DVT and PE; obstruction by a thrombus

A

venous thromboembolism (VTE)

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110
Q

describes the three factors that contribute to thrombosis:
-stasis of blood flow
-endothelial injury
-hypercoagulability

A

Virchow triad

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111
Q

Valve opening narrows, preventing normal blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

A

mitral stenosis

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112
Q

Caused by rheumatic fever, rheumatic carditis (causes valve thickening by fibrosis and calcification)

A

mitral stenosis

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113
Q

S&S: asymptomatic (mild), pulmonary congestion, right-sided HF

A

mitral stenosis

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114
Q

Incomplete closure of the valve, which allows the backflow of blood into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts

A

mitral regurgitation (insufficiency)

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115
Q

Causes by mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis, myocardial infarction (MI), connective tissue diseases such as Marfan syndrome, and dilated cardiomyopathy

A

mitral regurgitation (insufficiency)

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116
Q

S&S: fatigue, weakness, right-sided HF (JVD, liver enlarges, pitting edema)

A

mitral regurgitation (insufficiency)

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117
Q

Valvular leaflets enlarge and prolapse into the left atrium during systole

A

mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

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118
Q

S&S: asymptomatic, atypical chest pain, dysrhythmias

A

mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

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119
Q

Caused by Marfan syndrome and other congenital cardiac defects

A

mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

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120
Q

Aortic valve orifice narrows and obstructs left ventricular outflow during systole

A

aortic stenosis

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121
Q

Most common cardiac valve dysfunction in the US and is often considered a disease of “wear and tear”

A

aortic stenosis

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122
Q

Caused by congenital bicuspid/unicuspid aortic valves; atherosclerosis

A

aortic stenosis

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123
Q

S&S: dyspnea, angina, and syncope occurring on exertion; fatigue, debilitation, and peripheral cyanosis; a narrow pulse pressure is noted when the BP is measured; a diamond-shaped, systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur

A

aortic stenosis

124
Q

Aortic valve leaflets do not close properly during diastole; and the annulus (the valve ring that attaches to the leaflets) may be dilated, loose, or deformed

A

aortic regurgitation (insufficiency)

125
Q

Caused by nonrheumatic conditions such as infective endocarditis, congenital anatomic aortic valvular abnormalities, hypertension, and Marfan syndrome

A

aortic regurgitation (insufficiency)

126
Q

S&S: asymptomatic; exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; palpitations; nocturnal angina and diaphoresis; bounding arterial pulse; a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur

A

aortic regurgitation (insufficiency)

127
Q

valve that is rarely affected by disease

A

tricuspid valve

128
Q

Results from structural abnormalities of any part of the tricuspid valve

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

129
Q

Complications: pulmonary HTN, HF, death, cardiac cirrhosis, ascites, thrombus, embolus

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

130
Q

Complications of operative interventions: heart block, thrombosis of prosthetic valve, infection, arrhythmias

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

131
Q

Diagnostics: echo, CT, MRI, cardiac stress test

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

132
Q

S&S: HF symptoms and thrombus

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

133
Q

Nursing interventions: HF, anticoagulant, and post-operative care plans; focused cardiovascular and pulmonary assessment

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

134
Q

Surgery: for severe TR; usually during L sided valve surgery

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

135
Q

Medications: furosemide, antiarrhythmics, digoxin, ACE-I, anticoagulants

A

tricuspid regurgitation/insufficiency

136
Q

Pulmonic valve separates the R ventricle form the pulmonary artery

A

pulmonic valve disease

137
Q

Etiology: 7-10% of congenital heart disease; females>males; rare later in life

A

pulmonic valve disease

138
Q

S2 is heard

A

pulmonic valve disease

139
Q

more likely to have significant reductions in cardiac output after surgery

A

pts with heart valve replacement

140
Q

S&S: fevers w chills, night sweats, malaise, and fatigue; anorexia, weight loss; new cardiac murmur; development of heart failure; evidence of systemic embolization; petechiae; splinter hemorrhages; nodular lesions on palms of hands and soles of feet; hemorrhagic lesions on the retina; ; + blood cultures

A

infective endocarditis

141
Q

Occurs primarily in patients w injection drug use and those who have had valve replacements, systemic alterations in immunity, or have structural cardiac defects

A

infective endocarditis

142
Q

Ports of entry: oral cavity, skin rashes/lesions/abscesses, infections, surgery/ invasive procedures

A

infective endocarditis

143
Q

Diagnostics: blood cultures, new regurgitant murmur, and evidence of endocardial involvement by ECHO

A

infective endocarditis

144
Q

Interventions: Antibiotics, rest with balanced activity, supportive therapy for HF; surgery

A

infective endocarditis

145
Q

Definition: inflammation of the myocardium (heart muscle is swollen and thick)

A

myocarditis

146
Q

Caused by: infective organism; drugs or chemicals

A

myocarditis

147
Q

S&S: chest pain, SOB, arrhythmias, swelling, flu-like symptoms

A

myocarditis

148
Q

Complications: heart failure, heart attack, stroke, arrhythmias

A

myocarditis

149
Q

Diagnostics: blood test, CXR, ECG, ECHO, MRI

A

myocarditis

150
Q

Interventions: ACE inhibitor, beta blockers, diuretics, corticosteroids; pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD); heart transplant

A

myocarditis

151
Q

Definition: inflammation or alteration of the pericardium
Problem may be: fibrous, serous, hemorrhagic, purulent, or neoplastic

A

pericarditis

152
Q

Commonly associated w: infective organisms; post-MI syndrome; post-pericardiotomy syndrome; acute exacerbations of systemic connective tissue disease

A

pericarditis

153
Q

S&S: substernal precordial pain radiates to the L side of neck, shoulder, or back; pain aggravated by breathing (mainly on inspiration), coughing, and swallowing; pain is worse in supine position; may hear a pericardial friction rub when positioned at the LL sternal border (scratchy, high-pitched sound); elevated WBC, fever; new ST elevation in all ECG leads or PR-segment depression; new or worsening pericardial effusion

A

pericarditis

154
Q

Diagnostics: physical, echocardiography or CT scan

A

pericarditis

155
Q

Monitor for pericardial effusion which puts the patient at risk for cardiac tamponade

A

pericarditis

156
Q

interventions
-pain management
-Treat cause of pericarditis
-If bacterial: antibiotics and pericardial drainage
-If chronic caused by malignant disease: radiation/chemotherapy
-If uremic: hemodialysis
-If chronic constrictive pericarditis: pericardiectomy

A

pericarditis

157
Q

Definition: excessive fluid within the pericardial cavity which causes a sudden decrease in cardiac output; A MEDICAL EMERGENCY!

A

cardiac tamponade

158
Q

Caused by: fluid accumulation in the pericardium and causes a sudden decrease in cardiac output

A

cardiac tamponade

159
Q

can occur with pericarditis, as well as other conditions such as ventricular wall rupture from acute MI, cancer, and aortic dissection, and as a complication from invasive cardiac procedures

A

cardiac tamponade

160
Q

S&S: jugular venous distention; paradoxical pulse, or pulsus paradoxus; tachycardia; muffled heart sounds; hypotension

A

cardiac tamponade

161
Q

Diagnostics: echocardiogram, xray; hemodynamic monitoring

A

cardiac tamponade

162
Q

Interventions:
-Increase fluid volume administration
-Pericardiocentesis
-If recurrent, then surgical pericardial window, which involves removing a portion of the pericardium to permit excessive pericardial fluid to drain into the pleural space
-In severe cases, pericardiectomy

A

cardiac tamponade

163
Q

Definition: A subacute or chronic disease of cardiac muscle

A

cardiomyopathy

164
Q

4 categories:
-dilated __________________
-hypertrophic ________________
-restrictive _________________
-arrythmogenic right ventricular ___________________

A

cardiomyopathy

165
Q

interventions:
-Drug therapies:
-Use of diuretics, vasodilating agents, and cardiac glycosides to increase CO
-Antidysrhythmic drugs or implantable cardiac defibrillators may be used to control life-threatening dysrhythmias
-Beta blockers: to block inappropriate sympathetic stimulation and tachycardia
-Negative inotropic agents such as beta-adrenergic blocking agents (carvedilol) and calcium antagonists (verapamil): to decrease the outflow obstruction that accompanies exercise; decrease heart rate resulting in less angina, dyspnea, and syncope

A

cardiomyopathy

166
Q

interventions:
-surgical: ablation, heart transplant

A

cardiomyopathy

167
Q

Definition: a permanent localized dilation of an artery which enlarges the artery to at least twice its normal diameter

168
Q

Forms when the middle layer of the artery is weakened producing a stretching effect in the inner later and outer layers of the artery

169
Q

Risk for: arterial rupture!

170
Q

Causes: atherosclerosis (most common); HTN; hyperlipidemia; and cigarette smoking; age, gender, and family history also play a role

171
Q

type of aneurysm: gnawing pain w abdominal, flank, or back pain; pulsation in upper abdomen; if ruptures, sudden severe back pain

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA):

172
Q

type of aneurysm not as common and frequently misdiagnosed; back pain, SOB, difficulty swallowing; various locations: descending, ascending, and transverse sections of the aorta

A

thoracic aneurysm (TAA)

173
Q

type of aneurysm: differ in that they are formed when blood accumulates in the wall of an artery; sudden tear in the aortic intima and blood enters aortic wall; lethal

A

dissecting aneurysm

174
Q

assessment:
-Assess for abdominal/flank/back pain
-Auscultate for a bruit over the mass but do NOT palpate it as it may rupture!
-Rupturing AAA are at risk for hypovolemic shock (hypotension, diaphoresis, decreased LOC, oliguira, loss of pulses distal to the rupture, and dysrhythmias; abdominal distension

A

AAA aneurysm

175
Q

Assess for back pain; SOB, hoarseness, difficulty swallowing

A

TAA aneurysm

176
Q

Sharp, ripping, tearing, stabbing pain chest, back, neck, throat, jaw, or teeth; diaphoresis, n/v, faintness, HTN unless complicated by cardiac tamponade/rupture

A

dissecting aneurysm

177
Q

Diagnostics: CT with CONTRAST is the standard tool for assessing size and location of an abdominal or thoracic aneurysm OR Ultrasonography

178
Q

differences between angina and MI occurance

A

MI- occurs without cause, usually in AM
angina- brought on by stess/exertion (or rest in vasospastic

179
Q

differences between angina and MI relief

A

angina: relieved by rest or nitroglycerin
MI: relieved by opiods only

180
Q

differences between angina and MI: associated sx

A

angina: few if any associated sx
MI:
-n/v
-diaphoresis
-dyspnea
-feelings of fear/anxiety
-dysrhythmias
-fatigue
-palpitations
-epigastric distress
-anxiety
-dizziness
-shortness of breath
-disorientation/confusion

181
Q

differences between angina and MI: duration

A

angina: less than 15 minutes
MI: 30+ minutes

182
Q

NSTEMI and STEMI

A

two kinds of MI: ST segment elevation MI and non ST segment elevation

183
Q

-EKG changes: ST depression and T-wave inversion, which indicates MI
-Labs: Troponin levels elevate over 3-12 hours
Causes: coronary vasospasm, spontaneous dissection, sluggish blood flow due to narrowing of th coronary artery

184
Q

-EKG changes: ST elevation in two contiguous leads on a 12-lead ECG, which indicates MI/necrosis
-Labs: elevated troponin
-Attributed to rupture of the fibrous atherosclerotic plaque leading to platelet aggregation and thrombus formation at the site of the rupture
-the thrombus causes an abrupt 100% occlusion to the coronary artery
-medical emergency
-requires immediate revascularization of the blocked coronary artery

185
Q

-chest pain: onset? location? radiation? intensity? duration? precipitating and relieving factors?

A

things to ask if MI suspected

186
Q

indigestion, pain between the shoulders, aching jaw, choking sensation occurring with exertion, unusual fatigue, SOB, dizziness, palpitations, generalized anxiety or weakness, flu-like sx

A

signs of cardiac ischemia in females

187
Q

nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, dizziness, weakness, palpitations, SOB

A

signs of MI

188
Q

nursing interventions for MI (10)

A

-Pt. hx and assessment
-vital signs
-12-lead ECG
-troponin levels
-provide pain relief meds and aspirin as prescribed
-administer supplemental O2 greater than 90%
-remain calm, stay with pt.
-assess vital signs including pain 5 minutes after meds given
-re-medicate with prescribed drugs if VS stable and check pt. every 5 minutes
-notify HSP if VS deteriorate

189
Q

MI tx (8)

A

MONA TASS

Morphine
O2
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin

Thrombolytics
Anticoagulants
Stool Softeners
Sedatives

190
Q

why stool softeners given to treat MI

A

prevent straining during BMs

191
Q

why sedatives given to treat MI

A

limit size of infarction and give rest to pt. (usually valium)

192
Q

-nitro
-isosorbides

193
Q

-ASA (aspirin, an NSAID)
-Clopidogrel
-vorapaxar

A

antiplatelets

194
Q

-carvedilol
-metoprolol

A

beta blockers

195
Q

use of metoprolol

A

used to control HR in AFIB

196
Q

SE to watch for with beta blocker

A

SOB, wheezing caused by bronchoconstriction

197
Q

tPA, alteplase

A

thrombolytic/fibrinolytic therapy

198
Q

why you should assess for wheezing or SOB

A

beta2-blocking effects in the lungs can cause bronchoconstriction

199
Q

NTG tablet admin instructions

A

-hold under the tongue and drink 5mL of water if necessary to allow to dissolve
-tablets can be taken every 5 minutes for pain, up to 3 tablets

200
Q

NTG spray admin instructions

A

-pain relief should begin within 1 to 2 minutes and should be clearly evident in 3 to 5 minutes
-after 5 minutes, recheck pt. pain and VS (if BP is less than 100mm Hg systolic or 25 mm Hg diastolic lower than previous reading, lower head of bed and notify HCP)

201
Q

NTG transdermal admin instructions

A

-apply patch to a clean, dry, hairless area; rotate application sites
-remove before defibrillation
-remove patch after 12-14 hours/day

202
Q

invasive but nonsurgical technique that is the treatment of choice (for most pts. with STEMI) to reopen the clotted coronary artery and restor perfusion

A

percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

203
Q

surgical procedure in which occluded arteries are bypassed with the pt’s own venous or arterial blood vessels or synthetic grafts

A

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

204
Q

clot retrieval, coronary angioplasty, and stent placement

205
Q

goal is to perform ________ within 90 minutes of an acute STEMI

206
Q

when is it important to monitor acute closure of the vessel (causes chest pain and potential ST elevation on 12-lead ECG), bleeding from the insertion (sheath) site, and reaction to contrast medium used in angiography. also monitor for and document hypotension, hypokalemia, and dysrhythmias

207
Q

pts who undergo _____ are required to take Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAPT) consisting of aspirin and a platelet inhibitor

208
Q

long-term nitrate and beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor or ARB is added for patients who have had primary angioplasty after an MI

209
Q

potassium supplement may be added

210
Q

criteria for __________:
-angina with greater than 50% occlusion of the left main coronary artery that cannot be stented
-unstable angina with severe two-vessel disease, moderate three-vessel disease, or small-vessel disease in which stents could not be introduced
-ischemia w/HF
-acute MI with cardiogenic shock
-signs of ischemia or impending MI after angiography or PCI
-valvular disease
-coronary vessels unsuitable for PCI

211
Q

saphenous vein grafts and internal mammary artery graft

A

methods of CABG

212
Q

-dysrhythmias
-fluid and electrolyte imbalane
-hypotension
-hypothermia/hypotension
-bleeding
-cardiac tamponade
-decreased level of consciousness
anginal pain

A

complications of CABG

213
Q

a variety of monitoring techniques designed to provide quantitative information about vascular capacity, blood volume, pump effectiveness, and tissue perfusion

A

hemodynamic monitoring

214
Q

-noninvasive ________ (ex. BP cuff reading)

A

hemodynamic monitoring

215
Q

invasive:
-intra-arterial BP monitoring
-central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring
-Pulmonary artery catheter aka Swan-Ganz catheter

A

Hemodynamic monitoring

216
Q

catheter is placed into the radial artery to obtain repeated arterial samples, monitor various hemodynamic pressures continuously, and infuse chemotherapy agents or fibrinolytics

A

arterial monitoring

217
Q

high CVP

A

fluid build up from ineffective pumping

218
Q

between 60 and 70 mmHg

A

MAP necessary to maintain perfusion to major body organs such as kidneys and brains

219
Q

low CVP

A

likely bleeding

220
Q

indicator of fluid volume status; normal _____ is 2 to 5 mmHG

A

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

221
Q

indicator of fluid volume status; normal CVP is _____ - _____ mmHG

222
Q

indicative of myocardial contractile dysfunction and/or fluid retention

223
Q

volume depetion or decreased venous tone

224
Q

[SBP+(2 x DBP)]/3 =
SBP is systolic BP
DBP is diastolic BP

225
Q

medical intervention with the aim of relieving pain and decreasing myocardial O2 requirements through the reduction of preload and afterload

A

vasoactive therapy

226
Q

may be attempted cautiously with diuretics or nitroglycerin (monitor systolic BP continuously because may result in further decline of BP)

A

preload reduction

227
Q

to enhance ventricular preload…

A

give sufficient fluids to increase right atrial pressure to 20 mmHg

228
Q

The nurse is providing community education regarding myocardial infarction. What teaching will the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A. Denial is common reaction to chest pain.
B. A myocardial infarction can occur in minutes.
C. Exercise at least 20 minutes three to four times per week.
D. Age is a significant risk factor in the development of CAD.
E. Women are more likely to experience atypical chest pain.
F. Atherosclerosis is a primary factor in the development of CAD.

229
Q

A client who is 9 days post–coronary artery bypass graft presents to a follow-up appointment. Which client statement requires nursing action?
A. “My chest hurts when I sneeze or cough.”
B. “If I get tired when I walk, then I stop and rest for a bit.”
C. “I have a bandage on my sternum to collect the drainage.”
D. “I haven’t had my normal appetite since the surgery.”

230
Q

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client who recently experienced a STEMI. Which client statement indicates understanding of nitroglycerin use?
A. “The nitroglycerin should tingle when I put it in my mouth.”
B. “I will keep nitroglycerin in the glove compartment of my car.”
C. “Since the pills are small, they won’t be hard to swallow.”
D. “The nitroglycerin should relieve the pain immediately.”

231
Q

The nurse assesses a client who had a coronary artery bypass graft yesterday. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to suspect cardiac tamponade?
A. Incisional pain with decreased urine output
B. Muffled heart sounds with the presence of JVD
C. Sternal wound drainage with nausea
D. Increased blood pressure and decreased heart rate

232
Q

which is worse, STEMI or NSTEMI

233
Q

sequence of cardiac conduction

A

-sa node
-av node
-bundle of His
-left and right bundle branches
-Purkinje fibers

234
Q

represents atrial polarization

235
Q

represents the time required for the impulse to through the AV node, where it is delayed, and through the bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fiber network, just before ventricular polarization

A

PR segment

236
Q

represents the time required for atrial polarization as well as impulse travel through the conduction system and Purkinje fiber network, inclusive of the P wave and PR segment. It is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the end of the PR segment

A

PR interval

237
Q

represents ventricular depolarization and is measured from the beginning of the Q (or R) wave to the end of the S wave

A

QRS complex

238
Q

represents the junction where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins

239
Q

represents early ventricular repolarization

A

ST segment

240
Q

represents ventricular repolarization

241
Q

represents late ventricular polarization

242
Q

represents the total time required for ventricular depolarization and repolarization and is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

A

QT interval

243
Q

first step of ECG interpretation

A

rhythm: P to P and R to R, is it a regular or irregular rhythm

244
Q

2nd step to ECG interpretation

A

HR:
-6 second on a ten 6-sec strip= 1 minute, count Ps or Rs and multiply by 10
-1500 method: count number of small boxes in between two consecutive R waves and divide by 1500

245
Q

3rd step to ECG interpretation

A

P wave: does a QRS follow each P wave

246
Q

4th step to ECG interpretation

A

PR interval: measuring all constantly and 0.12 - 0.20 seconds

247
Q

5th step to ECG interpretation

A

QRS: measuring end of PR to S and 0.06 to 0.10 seconds

248
Q

6th step to ECG interpretation

A

T wave: evaluate and ask “are they round, smooth, and upright?”

249
Q

7th step to ECG interpretation

A

QT interval
-measuring beginning of QRS to the end of T and < 0.40 -0.46 seconds
-varies with HR, gnder, age, and medications
-QTc > 500: if prolonged, then at risk for Torsades to Pointes

250
Q

automaticity, excitability, conductivity, and contractility

A

electrophysiologic properties of cardiac conduction system

251
Q

the pacemaker, fires automatically

252
Q

stimulation, systole

A

depolarization

253
Q

relaxation, diastole

A

repolarization

254
Q

atrium contracts

255
Q

ventricle contracts

A

QRS complex

256
Q

SE that Haldol, zofran, some antibiotics may cause

A

prolonged QT interval

257
Q

time required for atrial and ventricular repolarization

A

QT interval

258
Q

QT interval normal range

259
Q

caused by prolonged QT interval

A

torsades de pointes

260
Q

electrolytes associated with QT interval

A

Magnesium,

261
Q

how long strip should be to be interpreted

262
Q

P wave criteria

A

one before each QRS complex

263
Q

PR interval criteria

A

0.12 to 0.20 seconds and constant

264
Q

QRS complex criteria

A

0.06 to 0.10 or 0.08 to 0.12 seconds and constant

265
Q

R to R

A

space between R peaks; regular if consistent

266
Q

prolonged QT

A

at risk for Torsades de Pointes

267
Q

two sinus dysrhythmias

A

sinus bradycardia (<60 bpm)
sinus tachycardia (>100 bpm)

268
Q

S/S: syncope, dizzy, weak, confused, hypotension, diaphoresis, SOB, CP

A

S/S of sinus bradycardia

269
Q

atropine; temporary pacing for patients who are symptomatic and do not respond to atropine of for pts. with asystole

A

interventions for sinus bradycardia

270
Q

physical activity, anxiety, pain, stress, fever, anemia, hypoxemia, hyperthyroidism, epinephrine, atropine, caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, cocaine, aminophylline, thyroid meds, dehydration, hypovolemia, MI, infection, HF

A

sinus tachycardia

271
Q

S/S: increased pulse rate, decreased urinary output, decreased BP, dry skin, dry mucous membranes

A

sinus tachycardia

272
Q

intervention for sinus tachycardia

A

find underlying cause and monitor VS

273
Q

most common atrial dysrhythmias (4)

A

-premature atrial complexes/contractions (PAC)
-supraventricular tachycardia
-atrial fibrillation
-atrial flutter

274
Q

occurs when atrial tissue becomes irritable

A

premature atrial complex/contraction (PAC)

275
Q

premature P wave

A

premature atrial complex/contraction (PAC)

276
Q

caused by stress, fatigue, anxiety, inflammation, infection, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol, drugs (epinephrine, sympathomimetics, amphetamines, digoxin, or anesthetic agents)

A

premature atrial complex/contraction (PAC)

277
Q

may result from myocardial ischemia, hypermetabolic states, electrolyte imbalance, atrial stretch

A

premature atrial complex/contraction (PAC)

278
Q

if occurs frequently, may lead to more serious atrial tachydysrhythmias

A

premature atrial complex/contraction (PAC)

279
Q

fast heart beat above the ventricles; an atrial issue

A

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

280
Q

rapid stimulation of atrial tissue at a rate of 100 to 280 bpm in adults

A

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

281
Q

assess for palpitations, chest pain, weakness, SOB, nervousness, anxiety, hypotension, syncope

A

pt w/ a sustained rapid ventricular response

282
Q

can result in angina, HF, cardiogenic shock

A

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

283
Q

preferred tx for this is radiofrequency catheter ablation

A

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

284
Q

other tx: vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva maneuvers), adenosine followed by NS bolus

A

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

285
Q

most common dysrhythmia

A

Atrial fibrillation (AF or Afib)

286
Q

sawtooth on ECG

A

atrial flutter

287
Q

Vfib or pulseless Vtach

A

defibrillate

288
Q

if R is far from P

A

then you have a first degree

289
Q

longer, longer, longer, drop!

A

then you have a Wenckebach

290
Q

if some Ps don’t get through,

A

then you have Mobitz II

291
Q

If Ps and Qs don’t agree

A

then you have 3rd degree

292
Q

T-wave inversion

A

pulmonary embolism (verify with CT scan)
or
pulmonary edema

293
Q

pt. has chest pain and trouble breathing

A

suspect pulmonary embolism or pulmonary edema

294
Q

med for afib

A

beta blocker and anticoagulant

295
Q

complications of afib

A

stroke, PE

296
Q

cause of PVC

A

low magnesium, low potassium, infection

297
Q

complications of v tach

A

heart failure

298
Q

med for v tach

A

amiodarone

299
Q

stable v tach tx

A

electro cardioversion

300
Q

v fib tx

A

defibrillation

301
Q

PEA stands for

A

Pulseless Electrical Activity

302
Q

PEA causes

A

advanced HF, severe MI, severe untreated PE, high potassium related to acidosis

303
Q

PEA immediate intervention

304
Q

d-dimer tests for

A

blood clot (finds a product of blood clot breakdown)

305
Q

confirm ecg reading on at least how many leads

306
Q

APE To Man

A

Aortic valve
Pulmonic valve
Erb’s Point

Tricuspid Valve
o

Mitral valve
a
n