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NURS 609A Health Assessment > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the specificity of a test measure?

A) The proportion of true positives among all people tested
B) The ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease
C) The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negatives)
D) The proportion of false positives among all people who test negative

A

C

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2
Q

What is the definition of sensitivity in a diagnostic test?

A) The proportion of true positives among all people who test positive
B) The ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives)
C) The proportion of false negatives among all people tested
D) The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negatives)

A

B

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3
Q

What does the Negative Predictive Value (NPV) of a test indicate?

A) The proportion of true negatives among all people with a positive test result
B) The proportion of true negatives among all people with a negative test result
C) The proportion of false negatives among all people tested
D) The proportion of true positives among all people tested

A

B

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4
Q

What does the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test represent?

A) The proportion of true positives among all people with a negative test result
B) The proportion of true negatives among all people tested
C) The proportion of false positives among all people with a positive test result
D) The proportion of true positives among all people with a positive test result

A

D

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5
Q

What does external validity refer to in research?

A) The consistency of a test or measurement over time
B) The degree to which the results of a study can be generalized to other settings, populations, or times
C) The accuracy with which a test measures what it is intended to measure
D) The consistency of results across different researchers or raters

A

B

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6
Q

What does reliability mean in the context of research measurements?

A) The ability of a test to produce the same results under consistent conditions
B) The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure
C) The extent to which a study’s findings can be generalized to other contexts
D) The precision of a study’s findings when compared to similar studies

A

B

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7
Q

What does test-retest reliability assess?

A) The agreement between different researchers’ or raters’ scores
B) The extent to which a test produces similar results when administered at different times
C) The degree to which items on a test measure the same construct
D) The generalizability of the results to other populations

A

B

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8
Q

What does test-retest reliability assess?

A) The agreement between different researchers’ or raters’ scores
B) The extent to which a test produces similar results when administered at different times
C) The degree to which items on a test measure the same construct
D) The generalizability of the results to other populations

A

B

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9
Q

Internal consistency refers to:

A) The similarity of results produced by the same test administered multiple times
B) The consistency of results across items within a single test
C) The agreement between different researchers’ scores on the same test
D) The extent to which a test correlates with an external criterion

A

B

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10
Q

Question: What does interrater reliability measure?

A) The stability of a test over time
B) The correlation between test scores and an external standard
C) The consistency of scores assigned by different raters or observers
D) The generalizability of findings across different populations

A

C

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11
Q

Question: What is criterion validity?

A) The correlation between how well a screening tool or assessment technique predicts the outcome of another measure
B) The consistency of test results across time
C) The degree to which test items measure the same construct
D) The ability of a test to be generalized to other settings

A

A

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12
Q

What does construct validity refer to?

A) The concept of testing the screening tool or assessment technique against similar measures to determine whether an association exists between measures
B) The ability of a test to produce consistent results across time
C) The correlation between test scores and an external benchmark
D) The degree to which a test accurately reflects all aspects of the construct

A

A

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13
Q

What does content validity assess?

A) The extent to which test results can be replicated
B) The consistency of scores across multiple test administrations
C) The degree to which the screening tool adequately covers the entire domain or all facets of the content it is seeking to evaluate
D) The agreement between raters on the same test

A

C

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14
Q

What does the likelihood ratio (LR) of a diagnostic test indicate?

A) The probability that a person without the disease will test negative
B) The comparison of how likely the screening test is to detect the condition (true positive) compared with how likely the test is to be accurate when an individual does not have the condition (true negative)
C) How much a test result will change the odds of having a disease
D) The proportion of true negatives among all people with a negative test result

A

B

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15
Q

What does a USPSTF Grade A recommendation signify?

A) The service is not recommended and may cause harm
B) The service is strongly recommended because the benefits substantially outweigh the harms
C) The evidence is insufficient to assess the balance of benefits and harms
D) The service should only be offered or provided to selected patients based on individual circumstances

A

B

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16
Q

What is the meaning of a Grade B recommendation from the USPSTF?

A) The service is recommended with high certainty that the net benefit is moderate to substantial
B) There is insufficient evidence to assess the net benefit of the service
C) The service should be discouraged due to moderate or high certainty of no net benefit
D) The service is strongly recommended and is proven to have substantial net benefits

A

A

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17
Q

A Grade C recommendation from the USPSTF implies which of the following?

A) The service is not recommended for the general population
B) The service should not be used under any circumstances
C) The service may be considered for individual patients based on professional judgment and patient preferences with small benefit
D) The service is strongly recommended for everyone

A

C

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18
Q

If a preventive service receives a Grade D recommendation from the USPSTF, it means that:
A) The service is recommended for all patients
B) The service has uncertain benefits and harms
C) The service is recommended to avoid due to a lack of net benefit or potential harm
D) The service should be used selectively, depending on patient risk factors

A

C

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19
Q

What does a USPSTF Grade I statement indicate?
A) The service is recommended, but the benefits are small
B) The service is not recommended at all
C) There is insufficient evidence to assess the balance of benefits and harms of the service
D) The service has moderate benefits and should be selectively offered

A

C

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20
Q

What is the term for an individual who manifests a disorder?

A

Affected

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21
Q

What is the term for one version of a gene at a given location along a chromosome?

A

Allele

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22
Q

What is the term for relation in descent by a common ancestor?

A

Consanguinity

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23
Q

What is the term for a new spontaneous mutation (non-inherited), alteration in a gene resulting from a germ cell mutation present for the first time in the family member?

A

De novo mutations

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24
Q

What is the term for the range of clinical features observed in individuals with a particular disorder?

A

Expressivity or variable

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25
Q

What is the term for the functional and physical unit of heredity passed from parent to offspring?

A

Genes

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26
Q

What is the term for the study of heredity, the process in which a parent passes certain genes onto their children.

A

Genetics

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27
Q

What is the term for all the DNA contained in an organism or a cell, which includes both the chromosomes within the nucleus and the DNA in mitochondria?

A

Genome

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28
Q

What is the term for the study of the functions and interactions of all the genes in the genome?

A

Genomics

29
Q

What is the term for a permanent structural alteration in DNA.

A

Mutation

30
Q

What is the term for a graphic illustration of a FHH using standardized symbols?

A

Pedigree

31
Q

What is the term for the proportion of individuals with a mutation causing a particular disorder who exhibit clinical symptoms of that disorder?

A

Penetrance

32
Q

What is the term for observable traits or characteristics?

A

Phenotype

33
Q

What is the term for the affected individual by whom a family with a genetic disorder is ascertained?

A

Proband

34
Q

What is the first step in the process of risk assessment?

A

Identify potential threats or hazards by collecting and interpreting data on the individual and family. Can use acronym RAPID. Risk Assessment, Probability, Identification, Data collection.

35
Q

What is the second step in the process of risk assessment?

A

Obtaining risk probability or risk estimate.

36
Q

How many generations would you collect for a pedigree assessment?

A

Three

37
Q

What is the term for the field of medicine that defines how genes affect a person’s response to drugs?

A

Pharmacogenomics

38
Q

Which type of validity refers to the correlation between how well a screening tool or assessment technique predicts the outcome of another measure?

A. Construct validity
B. Criterion validity
C. External validity
D. Content validity

A

B.

39
Q

Which term refers to the likelihood that a screening test will correctly identify those without the condition for which the tool was designed?

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity

A

B

40
Q

What is the strongest level of evidence?

A. Randomized controlled trials
B. Controlled cohort studies
C. Qualitative studies
D. Systematic reviews

A

D

41
Q

According to the American Psychological Association (APA), high levels of financial stress are associated with an increased risk for which health conditions? **Select all that apply.

A. Ulcers
B. Heart attacks
C. Gout
D. Anxiety
E. Liver Disease

A

A, B, D

42
Q

Explain the 5 “Too & Two” red flags for genetic counseling.

A
  1. Too young
  2. Too different
  3. Two tumors
  4. Two generations or Two in the family
  5. Too many: >10 polyps
43
Q

If you document an abnormal finding, what must you also include?

A

A corresponding intervention.

44
Q

What area of the brain regulates body temperature?

A

hypothalamus

45
Q

Where does somatic pain originate? and how are they described?

A

musculoskeletal tissue. dull or sharp

46
Q

Where does visceral pain originate? and how are they described?

A

Internal organs. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis.

47
Q

Where does neuropathic pain originate? and how is it described?

A

damage to brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves. sharp, shooting, tingling, burning.

48
Q

What are included in the “thought process” component of the Focused Mental Status Exam?

A

flow of thoughts, logical/illogical

49
Q

What are included in the “thought content” component of the Focused Mental Status Exam?

A

ideas, concerns, and fears

50
Q

What time of day is the body temperature at it’s lowest and highest?

A

Lowest is early in the morning, and highest in the evening.

51
Q

What is the range of a “normal” BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

52
Q

What is the range of an “overweight” BMI?

A

25.0 - 29.9

53
Q

What is the range of an “obese” BMI

A

> 30.0

54
Q

According to the Joint Commission, the abbreviation Q.O.D should not be used in documentation due to risk of misinterpretation. What should the clinician write instead of Q.O.D?

A

every other day

55
Q

What type of patient visit is a sports participation physical?

A. Episodic
B. Follow-Up
C. Annual
D. Wellness

A

D.

56
Q

The nurse practitioner is taking the history of a patient who presented with a chief complaint of chest pain. What type of review of systems (ROS) will the nurse practitioner employ?

A. Complete ROS
B. Extended ROS
C. Problem-pertinent ROS

A

C. A problem-pertinent ROS includes a review of the system(s) directly related to the problem identified as the chief complaint (CC) and discussed in the history of the present illness. For a patient who presents with chest pain, the clinician will ask questions related to the cardiovascular system, such as the location of pain, duration, intensity, associated symptoms, and aggravating or relieving factors. The problem-pertinent ROS would include whether the patient has also had left arm, jaw, or neck pain; heart palpitations; or loss of consciousness.

An extended ROS includes a review of the system directly related to the CC in addition to a limited number (two to nine) of additional systems. For example, if a patient presents with history of chest pain, the clinician may extend ROS questions to ask about constitutional symptoms, respiratory status, and the peripheral vascular system in addition to the cardiovascular system.

A complete ROS includes a review of the system related to the CC or the presenting symptom and a review of a minimum of 10 other systems. The complete ROS is used more often in wellness or chronic disease management visits than episodic visits and is especially helpful for patients with complex medical histories or whose presenting problem is unusual or whose diagnosis is unclear.

57
Q

According to the Joint Commission, the abbreviation IU should not be used in documentation due to risk of misinterpretation. What should the clinician write instead of IU?

A

International unit

58
Q

In the example below, MATCH the clinical information from a patient visit to its relevant SOAP category.

  1. Foreign body sensation
  2. Apply compress to eye
  3. mucopurulent discharge
  4. conjunctivitis
A
  1. Foreign body sensation - Subjective
  2. Apply compress to eye - Plan
  3. mucopurulent discharge - Objective
  4. conjunctivitis - Assessment
59
Q

True or False: When documenting a patient visit, it is appropriate to describe not only what is seen but also what is not seen.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

60
Q

Place the elements of history taking in the order in which the nurse practitioner will collect the information.

A. Review of systems (ROS)
B. Family history (FH)
C. Chief concern (CC)
D. Past medical history (PMH)
E. Social history (SH)
F. Preventive health practices
G. History of present illness (HPI)

A
  1. C. Chief concern (CC)
  2. G. History of present illness (HPI)
  3. D. Past medical history (PMH)
  4. B. Family history (FH)
  5. E. Social history (SH)
  6. A. Review of systems (ROS)
  7. F. Preventive health practices
61
Q

What type of pain results from activation of the normally functioning nervous system?

A. Neuropathic pain
B. Nociceptive pain

A

B. Nociceptive pain results from activation of the normally functioning nervous system. Examples of nociceptive pain include somatic and visceral pain:

Somatic pain: This pain originates from musculoskeletal tissue and can be sharp or dull and is usually well localized (patient can point to where it hurts). Example is postoperative pain.

Visceral pain: This pain originates from the internal organs and is often poorly localized and accompanied by symptoms of autonomic nervous stimulation, such as nausea, vomiting, or diaphoresis. Example is distention and inflammation of abdominal organs, such as appendicitis.

Neuropathic pain occurs because of abnormal processing of the pain message from the central or peripheral nervous system. This pain results from damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves; it is pathologic, meaning that the disease is within the system.

62
Q

Which of the following are elements of the “thought content” assessment during a focused mental status exam? **Select all that apply.

A. Ideas
B. Fears
C. Flow of thoughts
D. Concerns

A

A, B, D. The thought content component of the focused mental status exam includes ideas, concerns, and fears (may include obsessions, hallucinations). Flow of thoughts is an element of the thought process component. Other components include appearance, behavior, speech, affect, and cognition.

63
Q

Place the components of a general survey in the order of completion.
A. Measurement of vital signs
B. Observation of appearance, behavior, and mobility
C. Focused assessment of mental status
D. Assessment of physiologic stability

A
  1. D. Assessment of physiologic stability
  2. B. Observation of appearance, behavior, and mobility
  3. C. Focused assessment of mental status
  4. A. Measurement of vital signs
64
Q

Fill in the blank: General survey assessments to determine physiologic stability can be remembered using the mnemonic ABCDE, which stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and ________.

A

Exposure.

65
Q

An adult with a BMI of 24.5 kg/m2 is in what BMI category?

A. Underweight
B. Normal
C. Overweight
D. Obesity

A

B.

66
Q

True or false: Body mass index accounts for increased muscle mass.

A.True
B.False

A

B.

67
Q

What assessment variations are seen in patients with obesity or morbid obesity? **Select all that apply.

A. Decreased heart sounds on auscultation
B. Decreased bone density
C. Increased pedal pulses
D. Diminished breath sounds in lower lobes on auscultation
E. Decreased arch of the midfoot

A

A, D, E

68
Q

At least how many days a week should older children (6–17 years) engage in muscle and bone strengthening activities?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

C.

NURS 609A Health Assessment (3 decks)

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