Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Above; at a higher level

A

superior

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2
Q

below; at a lower level

A

inferior

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3
Q

toward the front or anterior surface of the body

A

anterior/ventral

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4
Q

toward the back or posterior surface of the body

A

posterior/dorsal

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5
Q

toward the midsagittal plane

A

medial

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6
Q

away from the midsagittal plane

A

lateral

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7
Q

toward a reference point or source within the body

A

proximal

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8
Q

away from a reference point or source within the body

A

distal

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9
Q

near the body surface

A

superficial

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10
Q

farther into the body and away from the surface

A

deep

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11
Q

toward the head

A

cranial/cephalic

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12
Q

toward the feet

A

caudal

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13
Q

toward the nose

A

rostral

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14
Q

on the same side

A

ipsilateral

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15
Q

contralateral

A

on the opposite side

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16
Q

thenar

A

the fleshy part of the hand at the base of the thumb

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17
Q

volar

A

pertaining to the palm of the hand or flexor surface of the wrist or the sole of the foot

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18
Q

palmar

A

the front of palm of the hand

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19
Q

plantar

A

the sole of the foot

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20
Q

ante brachial

A

forearm

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21
Q

antecubital

A

front of elbow

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22
Q

axillary

A

armpit

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23
Q

brachial

A

upper arm

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24
Q

buccal

A

cheek

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25
Q

carpal

A

wrist

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26
Q

cephalic

A

head

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27
Q

cervical

A

neck

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28
Q

costal

A

ribs

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29
Q

crural

A

leg

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30
Q

cubital

A

posterior surface of elbow area of the arm

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31
Q

cutaneous

A

skin

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32
Q

femoral

A

thigh, upper portion of leg

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33
Q

ophthalmic

A

eye

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34
Q

otic

A

ear

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35
Q

Pedal

A

foot

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36
Q

Perineal

A

Perineum

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37
Q

plantar

A

sole of foot

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38
Q

popliteal

A

back of knee

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39
Q

sacral

A

sacrum

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40
Q

sural

A

calf

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41
Q

tarsal

A

ankle

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42
Q

2.5 cm below jugular notch

A

aortic arch

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43
Q

L4-L5

A

aortic bifurcation

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44
Q

T4-T5, sternal angle

A

Carina

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45
Q

Upper border of thyroid cartilage

A

carotid bifurcation

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46
Q

4 cm above transpyloric plane

A

celiac trunk

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47
Q

suprasellar cistern

A

Circle of Willis

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48
Q

Upper margin of sacroiliac joint

A

common iliac vein bifurcation

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49
Q

T12-L1, L2

A

conus medullaris

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50
Q

5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line

A

Heart–apex

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51
Q

Level of 2nd and 3rd costal cartilages behind sternum

A

Heart– base

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52
Q

4 cm above bifurcation of abdominal aorta

A

inferior mesenteric artery

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53
Q

L5

A

Inferior vena cava

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54
Q

Posterior to pancreatic neck

A

portal vein

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55
Q

anterior to L1, inferior to superior mesenteric artery

A

renal arteries

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56
Q

2 cm above transpyloric plane

A

superior mesenteric artery

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57
Q

Thyroid cartilage

A

Thyroid gland

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58
Q

Midway between superior and inferior border of thyroid cartilage

A

vocal cords

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59
Q

What are the two main body cavities?

A

Dorsal and Ventral

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60
Q

located posteriorly and includes the cranial and spinal cavity

A

dorsal cavity

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61
Q

What is the largest cavity?

A

Ventral cavity

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62
Q

The cavity further divided into 2 lateral pleural cavities and a single mediastinum cavity

A

Thoracic cavity

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63
Q

This cavity divides into abdominal and pelvic cavities

A

abdominopelvic cavity

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64
Q

Organs of the dorsal cavity:

A

Brain, spinal cord, vertebra

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65
Q

Organs of the ventral cavity:

A

thymus, heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus, pericardium, lungs, pleural membranes

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66
Q

Organs of the abdominopelvic cavity:

A

peritoneum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, stomach, intestines, kidneys, ureters, blood vessels, rectum, urinary bladder, male and female reproductive system

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67
Q

What are the superior and inferior borders of the abdominal cavity?

A

superior: diaphragm

inferior: pelvic inlet

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68
Q

What are the quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

A

Right upper q, right lower q, left upper q, left lower q

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69
Q

What organs in the right upper quadrant?

A

right lobe of liver

gallbladder

right kidney

portion of the stomach

small and large intestine

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70
Q

What are the organs in the left upper quadrant?

A

left lobe of liver

stomach

tail of pancreas

left kidney

spleen

portion of large intestine

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71
Q

What are the organs of the right lower quadrant?

A

Cecum

appendix

portions of the small intestine

right ureter

right ovary

right spermatic cord

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72
Q

What are the organs of the left lower quadrant?

A

most of the small intestine

portions of large intestine

left ureter

left ovary

left spermatic cord

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73
Q

What are the two transverse planes that create the 9 regions of the abdomen?

A

transpyloric

transtubercular

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74
Q

What landmarks are used for the 2 sagittal planes of the 9 regions of the abdomen?

A

from midpoint of clavicle to midinguinal

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75
Q

What are the landmarks of the transpyloric plane?

A

midway between xiphisterna joint and the umbilicus and passes through the inferior border of L1

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76
Q

What are the landmarks of the transtubercular plane?

A

passes through the tubercles on the iliac crest at L5

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77
Q

What are the 9 regions from right to left and top to bottom?

A

right hypochondrium

epigastrium

left hypochondrium

right lateral

umbilical

left lateral

right inguinal

hypogastrium

left inguinal

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78
Q

MRI uses a strong magnetic field in combination with what?

A

nonionizing radio frequency (RF)

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79
Q

What does the CT number or the Hounsfield unit represent?

A

the attenuation properties and/or densities of each tissue

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80
Q

What is the HU of water?

A

Value of 0

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81
Q

A CT greater than 0 represent tissue denser than water and appears in ________ shades of ______ to _______.

A

lighter;
gray to white

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82
Q

A CT less than 0 represents tissue less dense than water and will appear in ______ shades of ______ to ______.

A

darker;

gray to black

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83
Q

What does the gray scale represent in MRI?

A

tissue relaxation properties of T1, T2, and proton density

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84
Q

What is windowing?

A

altering the appearance of digital images to include more or less shade of gray to optimize visualization of specific tissues or lesions

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85
Q

What is the window width?

A

parameter that allows for the adjustment of the gray scale

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86
Q

What is window level?

A

sets the density of the image

center of the gray scale

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87
Q

What does MPR stand for?

A

multiplayer reformation

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88
Q

What is MPR?

A

postprocessing techniques can be applied to 2D images to provide 3D information

a digital stack is created from 2D images and it is generated into a cube of information

any image that is reconstructed through the cube results in sagittal, coronal, axial, or oblique image

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89
Q

what does CPR stand for?

A

Curved Planar Reformation

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90
Q

What is CPR?

A

images are obtained along an arbitrary curve projection through the data cube

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91
Q

What is Ray tracing?

A

principle in which imaginary rays are sent from the camera’s viewpoint

The data rotates on this arbitrary axis and the ray is passed through the data

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92
Q

The skull has approximately ___ bones: ___ cranial and _____ facial bones.

A

22

8

14

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93
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones?

A

parietal R and L

ethmoid

frontal

sphenoid

occipital

temporal R and L

94
Q

What are sutures?

A

joints held together by connective tissue

95
Q

What suture lies between the frontal bone and the right and left parietal bones? It begins at bregma and ends at the temporal bone

A

coronal suture

96
Q

What suture lies between the 2 parietal bones and runs from the bregma to the lambda?

A

sagittal suture

97
Q

What suture is located in the posterior portion of the skull and lies between the parietal and occipital bones?

A

Lambdoidal suture

98
Q

What suture has one on each side of the skull near the ear and lies between the parietal and temporal bone?

A

squamosal suture

99
Q

What is the anterior fossa composed of?

A

frontal bone

ethmoid bone

lesser wing of the sphenoid bone

100
Q

What is the middle cranial fossa composed of?

A

body of the sphenoid bone

temporal bones

101
Q

What does the middle cranial fossa house?

A

pituitary gland

hypothalamus

temporal lobes of the brain

102
Q

What is the posterior cranial fossa composed of?

A

occipital bone

temporal bone

103
Q

What does the posterior cranial fossa house?

A

cerebellum

brainstem

104
Q

What does the anterior fossa house?

A

the frontal lobe of the brain

105
Q

What is another name for the anterior fossa?

A

Frontal cranial fossa

106
Q

What is another name for the middle cranial fossa?

A

Temporal fossa

107
Q

What is another name for the posterior cranial fossa?

A

infratentorial fossa

108
Q

What bones does the parietal bone articulate with?

A

frontal

occipital

temporal

sphenoid

109
Q

What is the vertex of the skull?

A

the highest point of the cranium

superior point between the right and left parietal bones

110
Q

What is the central prominent bulge on the outer surface of the parietal bones?

A

The parietal eminences

111
Q

How is cranial width determined?

A

by measuring the distance between the 2 parietal eminences

112
Q

What is the vertical portion of the frontal bone known as?

A

squamous portion

113
Q

What does the vertical portion of the frontal bone form and house?

A

forehead and anterior vault

frontal sinuses

114
Q

What does the horizontal portion of the frontal bone form?

A

the orbital plate (roof over each orbit)

115
Q

Which portion of the frontal bone forms the majority of the anterior cranial fossa?

A

the horizontal portion

116
Q

What is the smallest cranial bone?

A

ethmoid bone

117
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone situated?

A

in the anterior cranial fossa

118
Q

What are the 4 portions of the ethmoid bone?

A

horizontal portion

vertical portion

right lateral mass

left lateral mass

119
Q

What is the horizontal portion of the ethmoid bone?

A

The cribriform plate

120
Q

What structure fits into the ethmoid notch of the frontal bone and contains many foramina for the passage of olfactory nerve and the crest Galli (bony projection stemming from the midline of the cribriform plates and projects superiorly to act as an attachment for the fall cerebri, which is connective tissues that anchors the brain to the anterior cranial fossa?

A

horizontal portion of the ethmoid bone

121
Q

What is the vertical portion of the ethmoid bone?

A

the perpendicular plate

122
Q

What projects inferiorly from the cribiform plate to form a portion of the bony nasal septum?

A

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

123
Q

What is the Lamina papyracea apart of?

A

the lateral masses of the ethmoid bone

124
Q

What is the lamina papyracea?

A

the portion on the lateral mass of the ethmoid bone that is a thin walled orbital plate that create a portion of the medial orbit

125
Q

What are ethmoid sinuses?

A

Ethmoid air cells

126
Q

What is the largest ethmoid sinus?

A

The ethmoid Bulla

127
Q

What are the names of the two projections from the lateral masses of the ethmoid bone?

A

superior and middle nasal conchae

uncinate process

128
Q

What is the infundibulum?

A

The narrow groove between the uncinate process and the ethmoid bulla

129
Q

What is the most important landmark for the paranasal sinuses?

A

the infundibulum

130
Q

What bone extends completely across the floor of the middle cranial fossa?

A

The sphenoid bone

131
Q

What is the only bone that articulates with all the other cranial bones and is considered the keystone of the cranial bones?

A

The sphenoid bone

132
Q

What bone forms the majority of the base of the skull and articulates with the occipital, temporal, parietal, frontal, and ethmoid bones?

A

sphenoid bone

133
Q

What are the main parts of the sphenoid bone?

A

Body

lesser wing

greater wing

134
Q

Where is the sella turcica located?

A

in the body of the sphenoid bone

135
Q

What does the sella turcica hold?

A

The hypophysis

136
Q

What is the anterior portion of the sella turcica?

A

tubercular sellae

137
Q

What is the posterior portion of the sella turcica?

A

dorsal sellae

138
Q

What sinuses are located directly below the sella turcica?

A

sphenoid sinuses

139
Q

Where is the optic canal located?

A

in the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone

140
Q

What does the optic canal do?

A

provide passage for the optic nerves

141
Q

What is the name of the structure that is a triangular shaped opening located between the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid bone that allow the transmission of oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, and ophthalmic division of the cranial nerves?

A

Superior orbital fissure

142
Q

What are the 3 paired foramina of the sphenoid bone?

A

rotundum

ovale

spinosum

143
Q

What bone forms the posterior cranial fossa and the inferoposterior portion of the cranium?

A

occipital bone

144
Q

What is the foramen magnum?

A

Large oval aperture on the inferior portion of the occipital bone

145
Q

Where is the foramen magnum located?

A

at the junction of the brainstem and spinal cord

146
Q

What are the four portions of the occipital bone?

A

2 lateral occipital condyles

1 basilar portion

squamous portion

147
Q

What structure projects inferiorly to articulate with the first cervical vertebra (atlas)?

A

occipital condyles

148
Q

What structure is located at the base of the occipital condyles and anterolateral to the foramen magnum?

A

Hypoglossal canals

149
Q

What forms the anterior main of the foramen magnum and sloped superiorly and anteriorly to meet with the dorsal sella of the sphenoid bone to form the clivus?

A

basilar portion of the occipital bone

150
Q

What curves posterosuperiorly from the foramen magnum to articulate with the parietal and temporal bones?

A

the squamous portion of the occipital bone

151
Q

What bone forms the sides and base of the cranium and together with the sphenoid bones create the middle cranial fossa?

A

temporal bones

152
Q

What are the four portions of the temporal bones?

A

Squamous portion

tympanic portion

mastoid portion

petrous portion

153
Q

Where is the zygomatic process located?

A

on the squamous portion of the temporal bone

154
Q

Where is the tympanic portion of the temporal bone located?

A

below the squamous portion

155
Q

What portion of the temporal bone forms the majority of the auditory meatus?

A

tympanic portion of the temporal bone

156
Q

Where is the mastoid portion of the temporal bone?

A

posterior to the tympanic portion

157
Q

Where is the mastoid process located?

A

on the mastoid portion of the temporal bone

158
Q

What portion of the temporal bone is pyramidal in shape and situated at an angle between the sphenoid and occipital bones?

A

The petrous portion of the temporal bone

159
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

160
Q

What are all the facial bones?

A

2 maxillary bones

2 zygomatic bones

2 nasal bones

2 lacrimal bones

2 palatine bones

2 inferior conchae

one vomer

one mandible

161
Q

What is the largest immovable facial bone?

A

maxillary bones

162
Q

What bone creates the prominence of the cheek?

A

zygomatic bone

163
Q

What is the largest facial bone?

A

mandible

164
Q

What are the two portions of the mandible?

A

body and ramus (vertical portion)

165
Q

What are the functions of the nasal cavities?

A

filters airborne particles and warms+humidifies air that goes into the lungs

166
Q

What is the brain composed of?

A

2 cerebral hempispheres

and

2 cerebellar hemispheres

167
Q

What three things provide protection for the brain?

A

cranial bones

cerebrospinal fluid

meninges

168
Q

What are the meninges?

A

protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

169
Q

What is the Dura Mater?

A

(tough mother)

outermost double layered membrane (strongest one)

it is continuous with the periosteum

170
Q

What is the arachnoid mater?

A

Middle meningeal layer that follows the contours of the dura mater

171
Q

What is the Pia mater?

A

(tender mother)

highly vascular innermost layer
adheres to the contours of the brain

172
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

separation between the Pia mater and the arachnoid mater

contains CSF that circulates around the brain and spinal cord

provides protection to the CNS

173
Q

What does the Fall Cerebri do?

A

Separate the cerebral hemispheres

174
Q

What does the Tentorium cerebelli do?

A

Forms a partition between the cerebrum and the cerebellum

(tent like appearance)

175
Q

What are the ventricle names?

A

Right and left ventricles and 3rd and 4th ventricles

176
Q

What are ventricles?

A

cavities that form a communication network with each other, the center canal of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space

177
Q

What are the ventricles filled with?

A

CSF

178
Q

What are the functions of CSF?

A

providing buoyancy,

protection

chemical stability

prevention of brain ischemia

179
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

the network of blood vessels and nerve cells located within the ventricular system

180
Q

What structure produces CSF?

A

The choroid plexus

181
Q

The choroid plexus is lines with __________ cells, which are responsible for secreting about half a liter of CSF into the ventricles each day.

A

ependymal

182
Q

Where are the lateral ventricles located?

A

below the corpus callous and extend from front to back

183
Q

Each lateral ventricle opens into the _____ ventricle

A

third

184
Q

How doe the lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle via the _________ foramen.

A

interventricular

185
Q

The 4th ventricle is connected to the _______ ventricle.

A

3rd

186
Q

Where is the 4th ventricle located?

A

between the cerebellum and inferior brainstem

187
Q

What are cerebral folds called?

A

gyri

188
Q

Gyri are separated by shallow grooves called ______ and deep grooves called ________.

A

sulci

fissures

189
Q

What are the two main fissures of the cerebrum?

A

longitudinal fissure

lateral fissure

190
Q

What is the main sulcus that can be identified on CT and MRI imaging?

A

Central Sulcus

191
Q

What does the central sulcus do?

A

divides the pre central gyrus of the frontal lobe and postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe

192
Q

What is the function of the pre central gyrus?

A

motor funciton

193
Q

What is the function of the postcentral gyrus?

A

sensory perception

194
Q

Why are gyri important to identify?

A

Because of their functions

195
Q

What gyri are important for imaging identification?

A

pre central gyrus

postcentral gyrus

cingulate gyrus

para-hippocampal gyrus

superior temporal gyrus

196
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

The largest and densest bundle of white matter fibers within the cerebrum

197
Q

What forms the roof of the lateral ventricles and connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres?

A

corpus callosum

198
Q

What are the 4 parts of the corpus callosum?

A

rostrum

genu

body

splenium

199
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

Frontal

Parietal

Occipital

Temporal

200
Q

Where is the Broca’s area located?

A

in the frontal lobe

201
Q

What is the function of the Broca’s area?

A

speech production

202
Q

What are the functions of the parietal lobe?

A

perception of temperature, touch, pressure, vibration, pain, and taste

involved in writing and in some aspects of reading

203
Q

What are the functions of the occipital lobe?

A

conscious perception of visual stimuli, auditory, and olfactory stimuli

204
Q

What are the functions of the temporal lobe?

A

memory processing and dominance for language

205
Q

What are the major components of the diencephalon?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

206
Q

What is the function of the diencephalon?

A

Functions as a relay station for sensory information and acts as the interactive site between the CNS and endocrine system

207
Q

What does the hypothalamus consist of?

A

optic chiasm

maxillary bodies

infundibulum

208
Q

How many hormones are produced by the pituitary gland?

A

6

209
Q

What are the 3 major sections of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

pons

medulla oblongata

210
Q

What is the smallest portion of the brainstem?

A

the midbrain

211
Q

What structure extends from the pons to the foramen magnum and continues as the spinal cord?

A

medulla oblongata

212
Q

What is the name of the structure on each side of the medulla oblongata?

A

olive

213
Q

All the cranial nerves arise from the brainstem except:

A

1 and 2

214
Q

Cranial nerve palsy can be a presenting sign of:

A

metastatic disease to the base of the skull

215
Q

Only
One
Of
The
Two
Athletes
Felt
Very
Good
Victorious
And
Healthy

A

olfactory
optic
oculomotor
trochlear
trigeminal
abducens
facial
vestibulochochlear
glossopharyngeal
vagus
accessory
hypoglossal

216
Q

What is the midline structure that connects the 2 cerebellar hemispheres

A

vermis

217
Q

Why is MRI an important diagnostic tool for CNS tumors?

A

ability to show chemical changes that occur within the brain

218
Q

Once a patient has received and completed treatment, __________ will provide an evaluation of
tumor response or recurrence and is sensitive enough to detect tumors <1cm in size

A

MRI

219
Q

What is an advantage MRI has over CT for brain tumors?

A

MRI does not require iodine contrast, which lowers risk of reaction

220
Q

What is the contrast used in MRI?

A

gadolinium (nonidodine based IV agent)

221
Q

What is the purpose of Gadolinium?

A

Helps differentiate between edema and tumor and can detect seeding

222
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 3/3 of the spinal cord?

A

47 Gy

223
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 3/3 of the brain?

A

45 Gy

224
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 3/3 of the optic chiasm?

A

50 Gy

225
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 3/3 of the optic nerve?

A

50 Gy

226
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 2/3 of the spinal cord?

A

50 Gy

227
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 2/3 of the brain?

A

50 Gy

228
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 2/3 of the optic nerve?

A

N/A

229
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 2/3 of the optic chiasm?

A

N/A

230
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 1/3 of the spinal cord?

A

50 Gy

231
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for 1/3 of the brain?

A

60 Gy