Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When cut in cross section and viewed with a transmission electron microscope (TEM), basement membranes have a characteristic 3 layered structure. Name these layers and describe the appearance of the image.

A
  • the top layer is called the lamina lucida
  • the middle layer is called the lamina densa
  • the bottom layer is called the lamina fibroreticularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a glycocalyx?

A

a (microscopically) visible accumulation of sugars on the membrane proteins, lipids, polysaccharide chains etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is rRNA produced?

A

the nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the rough ER do?

A

synthesize proteins that are destined to become granules or be exported out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of the cell membrane?

A

act as a boundary to define compartments and regulate the flow of molecules in and out of compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does a cell membrane appear on a TEM?

A

two electron dense lines bordering a less dense central zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the ribosome? What is it made of?

A
  • to synthesize proteins (translate mRNA into an AA sequence)
  • rRNA and protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What occurs in the golgi apparatus?

A
  • sugars are added to create glycoproteins
  • granules form and may be released into the extracellular space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A
  • contain hydrolytic enzymes to break down target molecules
  • extracellular molecules can be targeted via endocytosis (pino or phagocytosis)
  • intracellular molecules can be segregated via autophagy (contained within a vesicle) and then fused with the lysosome to degrade the molecules without degrading the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do we differentiate between unfused and fused lysosomes?

A
  • unfused lysosomes are called primary lysosomes
  • fused lysosomes are called secondary lysosomes and may contain partially digested material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the smooth ER do?

A
  • phospholipid and cholesterol synthesis
  • detoxification of drugs (in the liver)
  • the smooth ER is well developed in steroid secreting cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the mitochondria do?

A

produce ATP via oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the two molecules that are used to store excess glucose and excess lipids, respectively.

A

glycogen, triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Using a microscope, you see a cell containing a droplet of glycogen and a droplet of triglycerides. Are these droplets surrounded by a membrane?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a microtubule made of?

A

the protein tubulin, forming a hollow tube 25nm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what locations can microtubules be found?

A

sperm tail, cilia, mitotic spindle, nerve cell axons, polarized cells, centriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are microfilaments made of?

A

polymers of the protein actin, 7nm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name some functions of microfilaments

A
  • generating movement (as in muscle cells)
  • providing structure (as in the microvilli of the intestinal epithelial cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an intermediate filament made of?

A

there are many types that vary in composition, but are typically 10nm in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name some functions of intermediate filaments

A

formation of a stable intracellular network, often linking to adjacent cells via intercellular junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why are intermediate filaments important?

A

they can help identify cell types (only appearing in one or two cell types) and indicate disease states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an epithelial tissue?

A

a collection of adherent cells with little intercellular material, generally covering an external or internal surface of the body (epithelial cells in these conditions will have a free surface). The active cells (parenchyma) of endocrine/exocrine glands are also considered epithelial tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some functions of epithelial tissues? (6)

A
  1. protection and segregation of luminal space
  2. regulate surface transport
  3. absorption
  4. secretion
  5. sensation (rarely)
  6. production of eggs or sperm (rarely)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

simple/stratified/pseudostratified epithelium

A
  • simple - epithelium having only a single layer of cells
  • stratified - epithelium having multiple layers
  • pseudostratified - epithelium having a single layer, but not every cell reaches the free surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

squamous/cuboidal/columnar epithelium

A
  • squamous - epithelial cells that are flat, with a nucleus that bulges out, width greater than height
  • cuboidal - epithelial cells that are roughly spherical or cube shaped, width equal to height
  • columnar - epithelial cells that are taller than they are wide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ciliated epithelium posses…

A

cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

keratinized/nonkeratinized epithelium

A
  • keratinized - superficial cells of this type of epithelium die and become tough and hard. No nucleus is visible in these deceased cells
  • nonkeratinized - superficial cells are still alive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a serosal surface?

A

the surface of a body cavity, covered by epithelium. Serosal surfaces include the pericardial surface (heart) pleural surface (lungs) and peritoneal surface (abdominal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe simple squamous epithelium. What are some examples and subtypes (2)?

A

simple squamous epithelium is a single layer of very thin cells with bulging nuclei. Simple squamous epithelium lines the blood cells (called ENDOTHELIUM) and the serosal surfaces (called MESOTHELIUM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelium. What are some examples?

A

Cells may appear as cubes/squares or spheres/circles. Nuclei are located in the middle of the cells. Examples include certain kidney tubules and the parenchyma of the liver. These tissues are associated with secretion and absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium is most often associated with…

A

secretion and absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name some examples of simple columnar epithelium. What other cell type can also often be seen in simple columnar epithelium?

A

internal lining of intestines, immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Name some examples.

A

all cells are resting on the basement membrane but not all reach the free apical surface. Examples include the lining of the trachea, epididymis and the olfactory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium. Name some examples.

A

keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium will have a layer of keratinized cells with no nuclei at the free surface. One example of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium is the epidermis (skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium. Name some examples.

A

nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium does not have a superficial layer of dead cells. Cells will have nuclei even on the free surface. This type of epithelium is found on moist surfaces such as the esophagus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name some examples of stratified cuboidal epithelium.

A

ducts of some glands, the cells of immature ovarian follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name an example of stratified columnar epithelium

A

only found in certain glandular ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why is transitional epithelium special? Where is it found? How can it be distinguished from other types of epithelium?

A

Transitional epithelial cells change shape. It lines urinary passages like the bladder which distend and relax. As the bladder distends, the number of cell layers appears to decrease. The most superficial cells are rounded, giving the edge a scalloped appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The presence of keratins (cytokeratins) can indicate that a cell is or has originated from a(n)…

A

epithelial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why do we describe epithelial cells as polarized?

A

there is an apical surface (near free surface) and basolateral surface (near membrane), that is, epithelial cells have an “up” and “down”. These surfaces have different functions and compositions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name some apical specializations that epithelial cells can have as well as their primary components. (3)

A
  1. microvili - a fingerlike projection of the plasma membrane, held erect by actin microfilaments.
  2. cilia - larger than a microvilus, cilia are held upright via microtubules.
  3. stereocilia - very long microvili found ONLY in luminal epithelium of the epididymis and sensory cells of the ear. Composed of actin microfilaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Name one function of microvili

A

increasing surface area for absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name one function of cilia

A

cilia can beat to move fluid across the surface of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All epithelial cells must have at least ONE surface….

A

contacting the basement membrane or basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a tight junction?

A

Tight junctions (zonula occludens) hold cells together “tightly”. The purpose of tight junctions is to keep liquid from escaping between cells, allowing a layer of cells (for instance, those lining an organ) to act as an impermeable barrier. For example, the tight junctions between the epithelial cells lining your bladder prevent urine from leaking out into the extracellular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a desmosome?

A

Desmosomes hold cells together via disc shaped plaques. They anchor sites for intermediate filaments, which invade the plaques. the cytoskeleton of all the cells in an epithelial sheet are connected, reinforcing it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a hemidesmosome?

A

hemidesmosomes are found at the base of the cell and are linked to the BM (basement membrane). Intermediate filaments are anchored to the BM, increasing structural integrity. hemidesmosomes attach to a matrix, unlike desmosomes, which attach two cells together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a gap junction?

A

gap junctions transfer ions/small molecules between cells. communication between cells is the most common function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

a gland that secrete molecules through a duct to a site of action (sweat glands, mammary glands, etc)
- note the simplest exocrine glands may not have ducts, think the goblet cells that secrete mucus
- the epithelial cells often line the ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

glands that secrete molecules into the surrounding tissue or bloodstream (they never secrete direct to blood, the product must diffuse into the bloodstream from surrounding cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

any molecule secreted by an endocrine gland is called a ….

A

hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

complex secretory glands have one or more clusters of secretory cells called a _____ _______ that employ _____ ______ to carry secreted material to the site of action

A

secretory unit, excretory ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

compound glands have…. ducts, compared to simple glands which have…. ducts

A

complex, branched duct systems, simple unbranched duct systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

acini (singular, acinus)

A

secretory units that are roughly spherical and have small lumens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

alveoli (singular, alveolus, referring to a gland)

A

a secretory unit that has a large lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pancreatic secretory units are always called _____

A

acini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

aside from acini and alveoli some glands may have….

A

tubular secretory units or lumens that are too small to see even with a light microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Myoepithelial cells

A

think myo=muscle. these cells surround secretory units and ducts and have some properties like epithelial cells and some like muscle cells. these cells contract to move secreted materials out of the gland along the ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Exocrine glands mostly fall into two categories based on their types of secretions

A

serous and mucous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mucous glands primarily secrete…

A

mucus (a thick mixture of glycoproteins and polysaccharide rich molecules like proteoglycans)
- mucus is typically secreted in the digestive tract, respiratory tract etc.
- mucus secreting cells stain poorly with H&E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

serous glands primarily secrete…

A

protein rich secretions that are watery and typically produced from eosinophilic like cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

exocrine glands that resist classification can be called

A

mixed sero-mucus gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a mucous membrane? Name one special name we use for mucous membranes.

A

line spaces that open to the exterior of the body (GI tract, reproductive tract, etc)
- may contain glands (do NOT confuse it with the gland!!)
-when a mucous membrane has stratified squamous epithelium it is called a cutaneous mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

serous membranes

A

line serosal cavities
- the epithelium of a serous membrane is called MESOTHELIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is mesothelium?

A

the epithelium that lines a serosal cavity as part of a serous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or false? Mucous membranes can never contain glands, but serous membranes do.

A

False, serous membranes do not contain glands while mucous membranes do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

bright field microscopy

A

specimens are stained with dyes, then are visualized when light passes through them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

phase contrast microscopy/differential interference contrast microscopy

A

unstained specimens are viewed. living cells are often observed. objects are made visible due to the intrinsic optical properties of the object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how does electron microscopy work?

A

a beam of electrons interacts with the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

TEM

A

transmission electron microscopy - the beam passes through the specimen which is sliced very thinly and stained with heavy metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

SEM

A

scanning electron microscopy - the beam does not penetrate the specimen. and image of the surface is produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How are tissues prepared for light microscopy/tem?

A
  1. fixing - treating with a chemical to preserve the original structure of a tissue (crosslinking proteins with formaldehyde or glutaraldehyde), (denaturing proteins with acetic acid and ethanol)
  2. embedding - dried out tissue is imbedded in a firm medium (paraffin wax for light, plastic for TEM) so it can be sliced thinly without destroying it
  3. sectioning - slicing tissue into thin slices on a microtome and mounting it on a slide. The paraffin is dissolved away
  4. staining - TEM specimens are stained with heavy metals, light specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

eosin

A

acidic dye that binds to basic proteins, staining them pink or red
- stain intensity is correlated with protein content
- structures that stain heavily with eosin are called eosinophilic or acidophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

hematoxylin

A

basic dye that stains acidic substances like nucleic acids.
- stains blue or purple
- materials that stain heavily with hematoxylin is basophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

histochemical techniques

A

a way to detect biological molecules by performing chemical reactions directly on the session
- acid phosphatase can be detected by reacting it to form a brown product which can be visualized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

fluorescence microscopy

A

tagging structures with fluorescent probes that glow under UV, then observing under microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

immunocytochemistry

A

tagging structures with antibodies with fluorescent dyes attached, then observing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

adipo- means

A

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

chondro- means

A

cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

entero- means

A

intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

gastro- means

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

histo- mean

A

tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

kerato- means

A

‘horny tissue’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

leuko- means

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

musculo- or myo- means

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

osteo- means

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

pneumo- means

A

lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

reticul- means

A

branched net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

trich- means

A

hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

-blast means

A

immature form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

-clast means

A

destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

-crine means

A

secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

-cyte means

A

mature cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

-ferous means

A

carrying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

-phil means

A

having an affinity for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

-thelium means

A

cell layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

a- means

A

absence of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

endo- means

A

within, inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

epi- means

A

on, upon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

hypo- means

A

under

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

meso- means

A

middle, intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

meta- means

A

change, next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

peri- means

A

around, near

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

cribosa means

A

having many perforations

105
Q

fascicle means

106
Q

lamina means

A

sheetlike layer or plate

107
Q

lamella means

A

thin sheet or layer, diminutive of lamina

108
Q

papilla means

A

cone shaped projection

109
Q

parietal means

A

related to the wall of a cavity

110
Q

septum means

A

wall or partition

111
Q

sinus means

112
Q

trabecula means

A

bundle of fibers or piece of spongy bone

113
Q

tunica means

A

enclosing layer

114
Q

What is a tissue?

A

A group of cells and their associated intercellular material that works together to perform specific functions

115
Q

epithelial tissue…

A

largely cellular, with very little intercellular materials, covers or lines external or internal surfaces of the body

116
Q

connective tissue…

A

fills the spaces between other tissues, providing support, strength, elasticity, or incompressibility depending on the nature of the matrix. in most cases there is a large amount of matrix
- this includes blood and lymph

117
Q

Muscle tissue…

A

has well developed contractile properties, gives motility to organs and the organism, regulates blood flown

118
Q

nervous tissue…

A

characterized by capacity to respond to a stimulus, to conduct an action potential and to initiate activity, permits interaction of the organism with the environment and integration of various bodily functions

119
Q

physiology

A

the study of things moving, functions

120
Q

anatomy/histology

A

form and structure

121
Q

stress vs strain

A

stress is the force upon an object, strain is the deformation the object undergoes when subject to the force

122
Q

flow

A

a form of strain that occurs when pressure is put on a liquid or gas, expressed as a rate (mL/hr)

123
Q

osmotic/oncotic force

A

occurs when the solvent moves, not the solute (ie the movement of water)

124
Q

Ohm’s law

A

V=IR, the amount of movement is proportional to the magnitude of the force and inversely proportional to the resistance (THIS WILL BE ON THE TEST)
- if you know two variables, you can estimate the third one

125
Q

What are some general characteristics of epithelium (4)

A
  1. cells packed tightly together with little intercellular material/matrix
  2. cells have one free apical surface
  3. cells are supported by underlying connective tissue and are separated from it via basal or basement membrane
  4. epithelial sheet is avascular
126
Q

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium is often found in…

A

the respiratory tract, epididymis, and olfactory epithelium

127
Q

transitional epithelium is only found in…

A

the bladder

128
Q

glandular epithelium

A

any epithelial cell or group of cell that is specialized for secretion

129
Q

Holocrine secretions

A

occur when the cell is ripping itself apart to release the product, often losing cytoplasm

130
Q

merocrine secretions

A

small vesicles fuse with the membrane to release product into the lumen

131
Q

apocrine secretions

A

vesicles that fuse with the membrane to release product are larger than in merocrine secretions

132
Q

True or false, the stomach is lined with goblet cells

A

False, the stomach is lined with mucus secreting cells but they are NOT goblet cells

133
Q

secretory unit

A

the basic cluster of cells in the gland

134
Q

mucus secretion

A

has lots of polysaccharides, but not a lot of protein, stain lightly

135
Q

serous secretion

A

does not contain a lot of polysaccharides but is very protein rich, stain pink and are very eosinophillic

136
Q

What is the stroma?

A

the supporting tissue or matrix of an organ

137
Q

What is the parenchyma?

A

the essential or functional elements of an organ (secretory units, ducts)

138
Q

Of all the different types of apical specializations, which is the largest? Which is the smallest?

A

stereocilia are much larger, microvili are much smaller than other apical specializations

139
Q

Which component of the cytoskeleton do the actin containing microvilli and stereocillia attach to? It is best visualized in the brush border of the intestine

A

the terminal web

140
Q

Which component of the cell do cilia attach to?

A

the basal body

141
Q

What is the difference between motile and nonmotile cilia? How are their functions different?

A

motile cilia are used to push fluid in one direction. They occur in large amounts (an “army”
- they have a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
- they are driven by dyein

nonmotile cilia are also called primary cilia.
- they have a 9+0 arrangement and have no dyein so they cannot move
- they have chemosensory function

142
Q

Hemidesmosome

A
  • allows the basal part of the cell to attach to the BM
  • anchors the cell to the BM
143
Q

Focal adhesions

A

a type of adhesion that anchors the cell to the BM
- stabilizes the epithelium

144
Q

TIght junction (zonula occludens)

A

creates a dam or barrier between adjacent cells
- can prevent substances from leaking across the epithelium
- functions to compartmentalize the epithelium

145
Q

gap junction

A

this type of connection utilizes connexon proteins to form a tunnel between two cells that molecules can diffuse through
- allows cells to communicate with eachother

146
Q

cells or structures that stain strongly with hematoxylin are called

A

basophillic

147
Q

cells or structures that stain strongly with eosin are called

A

eosinophillic

148
Q

What is the term for the study of tissue?

149
Q

What does hematoxylin stain?

A

nucleic acids

150
Q

What does eosin stain?

A

proteins, charged structures

151
Q

True or false, epithelium is always highly vascular?

A

false, epithelium is avascular

152
Q

This organ functions as both and endocrine and exocrine gland

153
Q

What are the 4 types of tissues

A
  1. connective
  2. epithelial
  3. nervous
  4. muscle
154
Q

What are the two main types of epithelium?

A

glandular and nonglandular

155
Q

Name some properties of connective tissue (6)

A
  1. bind tissues to form organs (support and binding)
  2. forms capsules around some organs
  3. anchors epithelium, provides blood supply
  4. is highly vascular (NOT CARTILAGE)
  5. has good repair potential
  6. cells can be similar or dissimilar
156
Q

What is the most common type of connective tissue?

157
Q

Fibrous connective tissue has three subtypes. What are they?

A
  1. dense
  2. loose
  3. reticular
158
Q

Describe dense connective tissues and name an example

A

dense connective tissues are flexible, have high tensile strength, appear to have less cells and more extracellular fibers
- the dermis is a dense connective tissue

159
Q

Describe loose connective tissues and name an example

A

loose connective tissues appear to be more cellular and have less extracellular fibers
- endometrial tissue is a loose connective tissue

160
Q

Describe reticular connective tissues

A

reticular connective tissues appear like a ‘supporting mesh’
- this tissue is technically loose, but reticular fibers cannot be seen with H&E and must be silver stained

161
Q

What is the extracellular matrix made of?

A

stroma and ground substance

162
Q

What is the stroma composed of in fibrous connective tissue?

A

it is made of the proteins collagen and elastin

163
Q

Describe the properties of collagen

A

it makes up 30-40% of your protein, has a high tensile strength and does not stretch

164
Q

What are the two components of fibrous connective tissues?

A
  1. Extracellular matrix
  2. Heterogeneous cell populations
165
Q

Describe the properties of elastin

A

it is stretchable protein, amounts of elastin in the stroma depends on the tissue (like arterial walls)

166
Q

What is the ground substance?

A

ground substance is a gel in between cells and fibrous tissues, acting as a cushion and shock absorber
- it is composed of water and GAGs (glucosaminoglycans), hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates, etc.

167
Q

Describe resident cells of fibrous connective tissue and name some examples.

A

differentiate from mesenchymal (stem) cells, and have a life span of weeks to YEARS
- fibroblasts
- reticular cells
- adipose cells
- macrophages
- mast cells

168
Q

Describe transient cells of fibrous connective tissue and name some examples.

A

these cells come and go through the tissues as needed
- neutrophils
- basophils
- monocytes
- eosinophils

169
Q

What is a fibroblast?

A

a resident cell within connective tissues, it makes collagen, elastin, and GAGs.
- essentially it makes both the stroma and ground substance

170
Q

What is a reticular cell?

A

a specialized fibroblast that secretes reticular fibers
- important in lymphoid organs/bone marrow

171
Q

Describe adipocytes

A

adipocytes are fat cells that store energy, retain heat and absorb shock. they do not stain well with H&E. Common in the subcutis

172
Q

What is a macrophage?

A

a “sentinel cell” that is a resident cell in connective tissue that works in inflammation and wound repair

173
Q

What is a mast cell?

A

A “sentinel cell” that is a resident cell in connective tissue that works in inflammation and allergies

174
Q

What are the two components of fibrous connective tissue?

A

ECM and heterogeneous cell populations

175
Q

What is the most important resident cell of fibrous connective tissue?

A

fibroblast

176
Q

What are three important characteristics of cartilage?

A
  1. it bears weight
  2. it spans spaces
  3. in young animals, it serves as a template for bone growth
177
Q

True or false? Cartilage is an avascular tissue.

178
Q

What two components make up cartilage?

A

cells and extracellular matrix

179
Q

What are the three cell types that can be found in cartilage?

A
  1. chondroblasts
  2. chondrocytes
  3. chondroclasts
180
Q

What do chondrocytes do?

A

These cells are not as active as chondroblasts. They secrete ECM and hang out in lacunae (‘lakes’)

181
Q

What do chondroblasts do?

A

they secrete the chondroid matrix

182
Q

What do chondroclasts do?

A

they resorb tissue and dissolve cartilage

183
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A
  1. hyaline cartilage
  2. elastic cartilage
    3.fibrocartilage
184
Q

Name some characteristics of hyaline cartilage?

A
  • cells embedded in matrix
  • surrounded by a band of fibrous connective tissues (perichondrium)
185
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A

trachea, broncheal rings, larynx, nose end, articular surfaces, growth plates

186
Q

What are some characteristics of fibrocartilage?

A
  • appears to be organized into bundles
  • chondrocytes are arranged in lines
  • there are less chondrocytes and more collagen
187
Q

Where can fibrocartilage be found?

A

intervertebral discs, menisci (of the knee), sympheses (pubic, mandibular), ligaments and tendons etc.

188
Q

What are some characteristics of elastic cartilage?

A
  • it is similar to hyaline cartilage, with more elastin fibers
189
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

in any pliable structure including
- the ear (pinna)
- the ear canal
- the epiglottis
(the three Es)

190
Q

What are some characteristics of bone?

A
  1. highly dynamic and always changing
  2. made of connective tissues
  3. highly vascular
191
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A
  1. internal support
  2. site of muscle attachment
  3. storage of calcium
192
Q

What are the four types of cells found in bone?

A
  1. osteoprogenitor cells
  2. osteoblasts
  3. osteoclasts
  4. osteocytes
193
Q

What do osteoprogenitor cells do? Where can they be found?

A
  1. they can be found in the periosteum and endosteum
  2. originate from mesenchymal cells
  3. differentiate into other cell types
194
Q

What do osteocytes do? Where can they be located?

A
  1. live in lacunae of mature bones
  2. these cells are not mitotically active
195
Q

What do osteoblasts do? Where can they be located?

A
  1. these cells form osteoid (unmineralized ECM)
  2. they can be found on surfaces of immature bone
196
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A
  • these cells destroy bone for remodeling
197
Q

What structure do osteoclasts make as they remodel bone?

A

Howship’s lacunae are formed when osteoclasts take a ‘bite’ out of bone

198
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

channels in the bone that connect osteocytes/blasts and allow communication between cells

199
Q

What is the mineral component of bone called?

A

hydroxyapatite

200
Q

How much organic material is in a given bone? inorganic?

A

30% organic, 70% inorganic

201
Q

The compressive strength of a bone comes from which component? is it stronger or weaker than the tensile strength?

A

compressive strength comes from the mineral component, it is much stronger than the tensile strength

202
Q

Which component of bone does the tensile strength come from? Is it stronger or weaker than the compressive strength?

A

tensile strength comes from collagen. It is much weaker than the compressive strength

203
Q

Of the four cell types in bone, which one is ‘the odd one out’ in terms of origin?

A

osteoclasts are the only ‘bone cells’ that originate from the macrophage cell line. The rest of the cells present in bone can be traced back to osteoprogenitor cells.

204
Q

Name the two types of bone

A
  1. compact (cortical) bone
  2. spongy (cancellous) bone
205
Q

What are the properties of compact bone? Where can it be found?

A
  1. provide strength to the exterior of the bone
  2. found on the outer wall of the diaphysis (shaft) of the bone
  3. made up of many dense lamellae (layers)
  4. osteocytes are found in lacunae, canaliculi contain cell processes
206
Q

What is the name of the structures that contain blood vessels within compact bone

A

haversian canals

207
Q

What is an osteon?

A

a haversian canal and concentric surrounding lamellae

208
Q

What are the properties of spongy bone? Where can it be found?

A
  1. it can be found in the medullary cavity and epiphysis
  2. it is composed of trabeculae (thin bony projections)
  3. it does NOT contain haversian canals
  4. it is lined with endosteum
  5. it may have some lamellae
209
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

a thin layer that surrounds the outside of a bone

210
Q

What are the two layers of the endosteum?

A
  1. the dense connective tissue
  2. a thin layer of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts
211
Q

What is endosteum?

A

a thin layer of osteoblasts that lines the inner cavity, trabeculae, and haversian canals

212
Q

What is muscle tissue?

A

tissue that is specialized to create movement by actively contracting

213
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A
  1. skeletal
  2. cardiac
  3. smooth
214
Q

What are the 3 connective tissue elements that form muscle fascia?

A
  1. epimysium - encapsulates entire muscle, continuous with the tendon
  2. perimysium - divides muscle into fascicles
  3. endomysium - surrounds each muscle fiber (cell), continuous with perimysium
215
Q

Do skeletal muscle fibers have desmosomes and gap junctions?

216
Q

Do skeletal muscles conduct action potentials?

217
Q

skeletal muscle cells are covered in this external glycoprotein layer into which fibers of the endomysium insert

A

external lamina

218
Q

What name do we use for the place where a skeletal muscle cell is innervated via a motor neuron?

A

neuromuscular junction

219
Q

The nerve terminal at the neuromuscular junction has synaptic vesicles that contain this neurotransmitter. The muscle cell has receptors for this neurotransmitter on its membrane.

A

acetylcholine

220
Q

True or false? Skeletal muscle cells communicate with eachother

A

false, skeletal muscle cells are isolated from eachother and each responds independently from others

221
Q

What is a T tubule?

A

tubular invaginations of the cell membrane that run into the cytoplasm, branching and surrounding the myofibrils

222
Q

What is the function of the t tubules?

A
  • to carry the action potential from the sarcolemma into the cell interior, associating closely with the sarcoplasmic reticulum (triggering Ca++ release)
  • allows all sarcomeres to contract in sync
223
Q

What do we call the units of contraction within the cytoplasm?

A

myofibrils

224
Q

In skeletal muscle cells, myofibrils terminate on the….

A

plasma membrane

225
Q

Are skeletal muscle cells uninucleated or multinucleated? Where in the cell is the nucleus located?

A

multinucleated, peripherally

226
Q

Myofibrils are contractile units located within the muscle cells. What are myofibrils composed of?

A

sarcomeres

227
Q

What are sarcomeres made of?

A

myofilaments (actin and myosin)

228
Q

What are the two types of myofilaments?

A

thin and thick filaments (actin and myosin)

229
Q

Where are thick filaments anchored?

A

at the Z disc

230
Q

What are thin filaments composed of?

231
Q

What are thick filaments composed of?

232
Q

What is the Z disc?

A

a flat disc of proteins onto which the thin filaments insert

233
Q

Describe the different regions of the sarcomere?

A
  1. A band - the main dark band in the middle of the sarcomere (has both types of filaments)
  2. H band - the slightly lighter central line in the A band (has no thin filaments)
  3. I band - lighter band that has only thin filaments
  4. Z line - the line in the middle of the I band, caused by the Z disc, where thin filaments insert
  5. M line - a central dark line in the A band, where thick filaments insert
234
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

an organelle derived from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. It forms a network between and around the myofibrils.

235
Q

Describe how cardiac muscle looks.

A

the cells are connected via intercellular junctions and are branched (UNLIKE skeletal muscle), are striated and have myofibrils and sarcomeres (LIKE skeletal muscle)

236
Q

What is the name of intercellular junctions between cardiac muscle cells?

A

intercalated discs

237
Q

intercalated discs are typically home to this structure related to intercellular communication

A

gap junction

238
Q

Cardiac muscle cells also utilize this structure to link cells together

A

desmosomes

239
Q

How many nuclei do each cardiac muscle cell have?

A

just one or two centrally located nuclei

240
Q

True or false? Smooth muscles are anchored to bone

241
Q

Describe the cell shape of smooth muscle cells.

A

fusiform (spindle shaped)

242
Q

True or false? smooth muscle cells have sarcomeres and thus appear striated.

A

false, actin and myosin are not organized into sarcomeres and thus are not striated

243
Q

What is the special term we use for invaginations of the sarcolemma of smooth muscle?

244
Q

True or false? Smooth muscles do not have gap junctions like skeletal muscle

A

False, smooth muscles use gap junctions

245
Q

How many nuclei do smooth muscle cells have?

246
Q

Give an example of skeletal muscle

A

muscles that are under voluntary control, such as those that move the skeleton, eyes and tongue

247
Q

Name the three connective tissue layers that bind the parts of the muscle together.

A
  1. epimysium - covers the whole muscle
  2. perimysium - creates bundles of cells
  3. endomysium - surrounds individual cells
248
Q

What are the functions of muscle fascia?

A
  1. group muscle cells together
  2. bring cells together into a functional mass
  3. resist overstretching
249
Q

How is skeletal muscle innervated?

A

each individual muscle cell is isolated, and must be innervated by its own terminal branch of a motor neuron

250
Q

Describe the action potential and contraction of a muscle cell (5)

A
  1. release of acetylcholine (ach) into synaptic cleft, which goes on to bind to ach receptors
  2. sodium channels open and the membrane depolarizes
  3. membrane action potential is transmitted into the cell by the T tubules
  4. Ca++ is released into the sarcoplasm from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  5. myofilament sliding and muscle contraction
251
Q

What is the function of intercalated discs?

A
  1. mechanical attachments (transmission of forces of contraction via fascia adherens and desmosomes)
  2. Electrical conduction - allows spread of membrane action potential (gap junction)
252
Q

What is a purkinje fiber?

A

they carry electrical impulses to the heart

253
Q

How is smooth muscle controlled

A
  • the autonomic nervous system, hormones, and local metabolites modulate the contractions of smooth muscle
  • this muscle is not under voluntary control
254
Q

What is the functional unit of smooth muscle called?

A

Fasciculi - irregularly branching bundles of fibers that are often loosely arranged in sheets

255
Q

Smooth muscle does not have T tubules. What structure does it have instead?

256
Q

In smooth muscle, what do dense bodies do?

A

anchor points for thin filaments (actin), occuring on the plasma membrane and in the cytoplasm
- they act similarly to the Z disc (an actin anchor point)

257
Q

In smooth muscle, what is the external lamina?

A

an external glycoprotein coat that may merge between cells and form linkages