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Medical Physiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

In contact with the external environment. Ex) Kidney makes urine which is expelled from the body

A

Epithelial cell

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2
Q

Found inside the blood vessel, and is in contact with the blood; internal environment

A

Endothelial cell

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3
Q

Most of the water is found where?

A

Inside the cells

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4
Q

What is used to make larger molecules?

A

Dehydration synthesis

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5
Q

What is the breakdown of glycogen so that glucose is released into the blood?

A

Glycogenolysis

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6
Q

What are non-polar, and insoluble in water?

A

Lipids

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7
Q

What type of respiration is glycolysis?

A

anaerobic

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8
Q

What type of respiration is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Aerobic

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9
Q

What is used to breakdown a larger molecule into a smaller molecule by removing H2O

A

Hydrolysis

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10
Q

peripheral membrane protein

A

Inside cell

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11
Q

Transmembrane protein

A

span the whole membrane

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12
Q

Integral membrane protein

A

on the outside of the membrane

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13
Q

Messenger releases signal that acts on the same cell

A

autocrine

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14
Q

signals act on an adjacent cell

A

paracrine
(pair of cells)

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15
Q

cell releases hormones that enter the blood and travel long distances to cells to cause an effect to those cells

A

endocrine

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16
Q

Multi-factoral control of signal

A

A given chemical messenger can fit into more than one category. Ex) steroid hormone cortisol affects the very cells in which it is made. The nearby cells that produce other hormones, and many distant targets, including muscles and liver

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17
Q

what are dense plaques, and have cadherins

A

Desmosomes

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18
Q

What does not allow extracellular space between cells, and are the entire band around the circumference of the cells? Where are these found?

A

1) tight junctions
2) found in the kidney

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19
Q

What links cytosols of adjacent cells and have connexins? Where are these found?

A

1) Gap junctions
2) found in the Gi tract and heart

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20
Q

What is it called when something moves from high concentrations to low concentrations?

A

Diffusion

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21
Q

What is the movement of water across a membrane that is PERMEABLE TO WATER BUT NOT TO SOLUTE leads to an equilibrium state involving a change in the volumes of the two components called?

A

Osmosis

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22
Q

What are tonic solutions?

A

Not permeable to solutes

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23
Q

What are water channels called? Where are they found?

A

1) Aquaporins
2) kidneys

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24
Q

what two mechanisms move solutes from high concentration to low concentrations?

A

1) Simple diffusion
2) facilitated diffusion

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25
Q

Which mechanisms need carrier proteins?

A

1) Facilitated diffusion
2) Active transport

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26
Q

Which mechanisms move from low concentrations to high concentrations and require ATP?

A

Active transport

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27
Q

What are the types of active transporters?

A

1) Ca2+ ATPase
2) H+ ATPase
3) H+/K+ ATPase
4) Na+/K+ ATPase

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28
Q

What uses an electrochemical gradient across a plasma membrane as its energy source?

A

Secondary active transport

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29
Q

What are the types of secondary activate transports?

A

1) Symporters
2) Antiporters

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29
Q

What type of secondary active transport transfers two substances in the same direction?

A

Symporters

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30
Q

What type of secondary active transport transfers two substances in opposite directions?

A

Antiporters

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31
Q

What type of transport has Apical (or luminal) and basolateral (or serosal) membranes?

A

Epithelial transport

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32
Q

What are the types of first messengers and these enter the cell?

A

Lipid soluble chemical messengers
1) Ligands
2) Neurotransmitters
3) Hormones

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33
Q

what have receptors located on the plasma membrane?

A

Water-soluble chemical messengers

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34
Q

What is the ability of a receptor to bond only one type or a limited number or structurally related types of chemical messengers, only cells that express the correct receptor can bind a particular messenger?

A

Specificity

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35
Q

What is the STRENGTH with which a chemical messenger binds to its receptor?

A

Affinity

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36
Q

What can enter straight into the cell and promote transcription?

A

Lipid soluble messengers

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37
Q

What has to bind to the cells plasma membrane?

A

Water soluble messengers

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38
Q

What are the types of water membrane receptors?

A

1) Ions channels
2) Receptors with intrinsic kinase activity
3) G-protein couples receptors

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39
Q

What is used in phosphorylation (Adds a phosphate to a molecule)?

A

Kinases

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40
Q

What is used to de-phosphorlation (remove a phosphate from a molecule)?

A

Phosphatases

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41
Q

What increases the intensity of a signal through networks of intracellular reactions?

A

Signal amplification

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42
Q

What are some membrane-bound receptors that do not include G-proteins?

A

Ligand gated channels

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43
Q

What have membrane -bound receptors that function as enzymes?

A

Insulin
(they have intrinsic enzyme activity)
-they are protein kinases (specifically phosphorylate the amino acid tyrosin RTKs)

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44
Q

insulin signaling pathway

A

insulin —> insulin receptor —–> PIP2 phosphorylated (by kinase) —> PIP3

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45
Q

What does not directly phosphorylate a substrate, it is a receptor which acts on enzyme that catalyses the formation of cyclic GMP?

A

Guanylyl Cyclase (GC)

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46
Q

cGMP functions as a

A

secondary messenger

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47
Q

cGMP activates

A

cGMP-dependent protein kinase

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48
Q

what is a cytoplamic protein kinase, these receptors DO NOT have intrinsic kinase activity, and when a ligand binds to receptor there is a conformational change?

A

Janus kinases (JAK)

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49
Q

This functions by a first messenger binding to a intrinsic membrane protein it activates this enzyme and this enzyme phosphorylates protein to add a phosphate group. What is this enzyme?

A

Janus kinase (JAK)

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50
Q

This located on the cytosolic surface and contains three subunits (Alpha, Beta and Gamma)

A

G-protein

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51
Q

What happens when a G-protein is activated?

A

The GDP attached to the subunits becomes GTP and the Alpha subunit separates from the beta and gamma subunits —> this causes the effector protein to be activated (can be an ion channel or enzyme) —> then it could either change membrane potential or activate a second messenger

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52
Q

Pathway of Gs protein?

A

(Gs protein is a G-protein)
Gs–> activates adenylyl cyclase (also known as adenylate cyclase) —> Adenylate cyclase —> catalyses the conversion of cytosolic ATP molecules to cAMP
(cAMP is a SECONDARY MESSENGER)
cAMP –> activates cAMP dependent protein kinase (PKA) —> then phosphorylates downstream

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53
Q

What is the cellular response from the use of cAMP?

A

1) Lipid breakdown
2) Glycogen breakdown
3) Protein synthesis and Ca2+ transport

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54
Q

What happens when cAMP is no longer needed?

A

cAMP is broken down to noncyclic AMP this occurs by cAMP PHOSPHODIESTERASE**

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55
Q

What inhibits the activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase?

A

Caffeine or theophylline which means cAMP isn’t broken down

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56
Q

What is the function of Gi protien?

A

Inhibit adenylyl cyclase which means less accumulation of cAMP which in turn decreases of phosphorylation of key proteins inside the cell

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57
Q

what neurotransmitters are used to activate Gi proteins?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

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58
Q

Gq pathway

A

Gq activates phospholipase C (PLC) —–> PLC breaks down PIP2 to DAG and IP3 (DAG and IP3 are secondary messengers)

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59
Q

what is the function of IP3?

A

It is used to control the amount of Ca2+ that is secreted from the ER

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60
Q

What is the function of DAG?

A

its activates protein kinase C

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61
Q

What is the regulation of when a G protein opens an ion channel without the use of a secondary messenger?

A

Direct regulation

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62
Q

What is the regulation called when a G-protein uses a secondary messenger to open an ion channel?

A

Indirect regulation

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63
Q

Ca2+ can act as a?

A

Secondary messenger

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64
Q

Ca2+ can bind with?

A

1) calmodulin
2) troponin
3) nitric oxide

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65
Q

What effects does calcium have on the body?

A

1) Muscle contraction
2) Alter metabolism
3) Altered transport

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66
Q

Ca2+ as secondary messenger
1) Source?
2) Effects?

A

1) source: Enters cell through plasma membrane ion channels or is released into the cytosol from endoplasmic reticulum
2) Effects: Activates protein kinase C, calmodulin, and other Ca2+ binding proteins; Ca2+-calmodulin activates calmodulin-dependent protein kinase

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67
Q

What are the secondary messengers?

A

1) Ca2+
2) Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
3) Cyclic GMP (cGMP)
4) Diacylglycerol (DAG)
5) Inositol trisphosphate (IP3)

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68
Q

Cyclic AMP as secondary messenger?
1) Source?
2) Effects?

A

1) Source: A G protein activates plasma membrane adenylyl cyclase, which catalyzes the formation of cAMP from ATP
2) Effect: Activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase (Protein kinase A)

69
Q

Cyclic GMP (cGMP) as secondary messenger?
1) Source?
2) Effects?

A

1) Source: Generated from guanosine triphosphate in a reaction catalyzed by a plasma membrane receptor with guanylyl cyclase activity
2) Effects: Activates cGMP-dependent protein kinase (protein kinase G)

70
Q

Diacylglycerol (DAG) as secondary messenger?
1) Source?
2) Effects?

A

1) Source: A G protein activates plasma membrane phospholipase C, which catalyzes the generation of DAG and IP3 from plasma membrane (PIP2)
2) Effects: Activates protein kinase C

71
Q

IP3 as secondary messenger?
1) Source?
2) Effects?

A

1) Source: A G protein activates plasma membrane phospholipase C, which catalyzes the generation of DAG and IP3 from plasma membrane (PIP2)
2) Effects: Releases Ca2+ from endoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol

72
Q

What produces Eicosanoids?

A

Arachidonic acid (AA)

73
Q

What are the types of Eicosanoids?

A

1) Cyclic endoperoxides
2) Prostaglandins
3) Thromboxins
4) Leukotrienes

74
Q

AA pathway

A

Ligand binds to receptor—> causing Phospholipase A2 to split off of membrane phospholipid —-> forming AA –> (AA are metabolized into 2 pathways) 1. COX and 2. Lipoxygenase pathway —-> these form the Eicosanoids

75
Q

Drugs that inhibit COX?

A

Aspirin and NSAID (Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug)

76
Q

Drug that inhibit Lipoxygenase pathway?

A

Singular

77
Q

How is the brain and spinal cord made?

A

Neural plate——> neural groove, neural fold, and notocord—-> brain and spinal cord

78
Q

What are the glial cells of the CNS?

A

1) Astrocytes
2) Ependymal cells
3) Microglia
4) Oligodendrocytes

79
Q

This functions by the formation of blood brain barrier (helps control the amount of substance that goes into the CNS. What is this?

A

Astrocyte

80
Q

This help in the regulation of CSF and take care of waste. What is this?

A

Ependymal cells

81
Q

This helps with injury repair and provides support for the neuronal cells

A

microglia

82
Q

This helps with formation of myelin sheaths (only found in the CNS). What is this?

A

Oligodendrocyte

83
Q

What produces myelin sheaths in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

84
Q

What provides insulation enhancing the speed and transmission of electrical signals along the axon?

A

Myelin

85
Q

what type of channels open and shut very quickly?

A

Na+ channels

86
Q

What is mechanism of membrane potential?

A

1) Leaky K+ channels keep membrane channel negative
2) Local membrane is brought to threshold by stimulus
3) Voltage gated Na+ channels cause depolarization
4) Inactivation of Na+ channels and delayed opening of K+ channels stop depolarization
5) K+ leaks out of cell causing repolarization
6) K+ keeps leaking causing hyperpolarization. when this happens action potential cannot occur
7) K+ channels are close bring the cell back to resting membrane potential

87
Q

What drugs and toxins inhibit action potentials?

A

Drugs:
1) Procaine
2) Lidocaine
Toxins:
1) Tetrodotoxin
2) Alpha- bungarotoxin
3) Conotoxin

88
Q

What is the period of time where an action potential cannot be fired it is when a AP is actually occurring?

A

Absolute refractory period

89
Q

What is the period of time where an action potential can be fired but a strong stimulus is needed (it happens normally around the time of hyperpolarization is occurring)?

A

Relative refractor period

90
Q

AP are…

A

All or none

91
Q

What is needed prior to the action potential to hit threshold?

A

Graded potentials

92
Q

what are the main differences between AP and Graded potential?

A

1) Graded potential can be depolarization or hyperpolarization
2) AP can only be depolarization
3) AP is generated by a graded potential

93
Q

many pre-synaptic neurons go to one post-synaptic neuron this is called?

A

Converge synapses

94
Q

When 1 pre-synaptic neuron sends signals to multiple post-synaptic neurons this is called?

A

Divergent synapses

95
Q

What is the mechanism of neurotransmitter release?

A

1) AP reaches axon terminal
2) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open
3) Calcium enters axon terminal
4) Neurotransmitters is released and diffuse into the cleft
5) Neurotransmitters bind to post-synaptic receptor
6) Neurotransmitters removed from synaptic cleft

96
Q

What is involved in causing the fusion of the vessels (filled with neurotransmitters) with the membrane inorder to promote the release of the neurotransmitter?

A

SNAREs

97
Q

Neuron Channel-linked receptor (fast and direct acting) are called?

A

Ionotropic receptors

98
Q

What are neuron with G-protein linked receptors (slow acting) called?

A

Metabotropic receptors

99
Q

Binding of neurotransmitter to receptor causes the movement of ions this is this receptor called?

A

Ionotropic receptor

100
Q

Binding of neurotransmitter to receptor activating G-protein what is this receptor called?

A

Metabotropic receptor

101
Q

Towards threshold of post-synaptic cell is called?

A

EPSP

102
Q

Away from threshold of post-synaptic cell is called?

A

IPSP

103
Q

One pre-synaptic neuron trying to bring the cell to threshold is called?

A

Temporal summation

104
Q

When multiple pre-synaptic neurons are trying to bring the cell to threshold this is called?

A

Spacial summation

105
Q

What are used for rapid communication and are release and re-uptake is quickly?

A

Neurotransmitters

106
Q

What are slow acting and amplify or dampen the effectiveness of ongoing synaptic activity (help neurotransmitters)?

A

Neuromodulators

107
Q

What are found in both in the CNS and PNS, they are produced from cholinergic neurons and act on Muscarinic and Nicotinic receptors?

A

Acetylcholine (ACH)

108
Q

This is synthesized in the pre-synaptic neuron terminal and act on the post-synaptic receptor?

A

Acetylcholine

109
Q

This synthesizes acetylcholine?

A

Choline acetyltransferase

110
Q

This is found in the synaptic cleft and catalyses the breakdown of ACH and is recycled back into the presynaptic terminal what is this?

A

Acetylcholine esterase

111
Q

If you have a patient where the acetylcholine is deficient one way to make sure the acetylcholine is no longer degraded is by?

A

Inhibiting the function of acetylcholine esterase

112
Q

What inhibits the function of acetylcholine esterase?

A

Sarin

113
Q

what receptors serve as important receptors in the brain causing excitation of neurons?

A

Nicotinic receptors

114
Q

This is caused by the degeneration of cholinergic neurons normally occurs at 85 years of age or older?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

115
Q

What are the enzymes that degrade the biogenic amine neurotransmitter?

A

1) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
2) Catechol-o-methyltransferase

116
Q

What disease has loss of dopamine-releasing neurons in areas of the brain?
The symptoms include:
1) Persistent tremors
2) Head nodding and pill rolling behavior
3) Stiff facial expression
the treatment for this:
Increase- L-Dopa, deprenyl, or gene therapy

A

Parkinson’s disease

117
Q

Adrenergic receptors use what type of receptors?

A

G-protein coupled receptors

118
Q

These receptors are located on vascular smooth muscle and in the pupil of the eye, and cause vasoconstriction?

A

Alpha 1

119
Q

These receptors are in the CNS on presynaptic neurons, some vascular smooth muscle cells, adipose tissue and platelets and they inhibit cAMP?

A

Alpha 2

120
Q

These receptors are located on cardiac muscle and in the kidneys, usually excitatory (activate cAMP), equal affinity of NE and EPI, and INCREASE HEART RATE AND STIMULATE RENIN RELEASE which increases blood pressure?

A

Beta 1

121
Q

These receptors are located on blood vessels and smooth muscle, usually inhibitory (activate cAMP), they have a GREATER AFFINITY FOR EPI AND NE, and they ACTIVATE BRONCHIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE CELL RECEPTORS CAUSE RELAXATION?

A

Beta 2

122
Q

These are receptors located on adipose tissue, usually excitatory (activate cAMP), equal affinity for NE and EPI, and STIMULATE LYPOLYSIS OF FATS IN THE ADIPOSE TISSUE?

A

Beta 3

123
Q

Effect of EPI in liver and adipose tissue?

A

Increase blood glucose

124
Q

Nicotinic receptors are what type of receptors?

A

Ionotropic (ligand gated)

125
Q

Muscarinic receptors are what type of receptors?

A

Metabotropic (G-protein)

126
Q

Effect of binding to nicotinic receptors?

A

Excitation

127
Q

What are the major locations of Nicotinic receptors?

A

1) all ganglionic neurons; adrenal medullary cells (ALSO NEUROMUSCULAR JUNCTIONS OF SKELETAL MUSCLE)

128
Q

What are the major locations of Muscarinic receptors?

A

All parasympathetic target organs

129
Q

What is the effect of binding to a Muscarinic receptor?

A

Excitation mainly; except the heart

130
Q

Adrenergic receptors bind what type of neurotransmitters?

A

NE and EPI

131
Q

Where are Beta 1 receptors located?

A

Heart mainly, but also on kidneys and adipose tissue

132
Q

What is used for the treatment of glaucoma (opens aqueous humor drainage pores), it mimics effects of Ach, enhances PNS effects, and it binds to muscarinic Ach receptors?

A

Pilocarpine

133
Q

What is used for the treatment Myasthenia gravis (increasing availability of Ach), indirectly effect at all ACH receptors (prolongs the effects of ACH) it binds to the enzyme (AChE) that degrades ACH)?

A

Neostigmina

134
Q

What is used for asthma (dilates bronchioles by binding to Beta 2 receptors), it enhances sympathetic activity by increasing NE release or bonding to adrenergic receptors, and binds to adrenergic receptor (BETA 2)?

A

Albuterol (ventolin)

135
Q

What is used for hypertension (member of a class of drugs called BETA blockers that decrease heart rate and blood pressure), it decreases sympathetic activity by blocking adrenergic receptors or inhibiting NE release, and binds to adrenergic receptors?

A

Propranolol

136
Q

What synthesizes serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

137
Q

(very important) What amino acid neurotransmitters are at excitatory synapses?

A

1) Aspartate
2) Glutamate

138
Q

(very important) What amino acids are found at inhibitory synapses?

A

1) Glycine
2) GABA

139
Q

Glutamate has two type of ionotropic receptors what are they?

A

1) AMPA
2) NMDA

140
Q

what is implicated in mediating excitotoxicity, death of glutamate-containing neuronal cells die due to injury, and increased accumulation of intracellular Ca2+ can be toxic to these receptors?

A

NMDA receptors

141
Q

This is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain (inhibitory effect could be due to influx of CHLORIDE ion into the postsynaptic membrane causing hyperpolarization, and can bind to ionotropic or metabotropic receptors?

A

GABA

142
Q

Receptor for GABA are target by?

A

ethanol in alcohol

143
Q

what drugs are used to produce GABA?

A

Benodiazepine
1) Alprasolam (Xanax)
2) Diazepam (valium)

144
Q

What is released from inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord and brainstem (it binds to ionotropic receptors on postsynaptic cells that allow CHLORIDE IONS to enter)?

A

Glycine

145
Q

these neurons are essential for SKELETAL MUSCLE CONTRACTION?

A

Glycinergic neurons
(GLYCINE)

146
Q

What are some examples of neuropeptides?

A

Pain killers
1) Enkephalins
2) Endorphins
3) Morphine
4) Codeine

147
Q

what coordinates information from other associated areas and is used for REASONING SKILLS?

A

Frontal Lobe

148
Q

What connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain?

A

Corpus callosum

149
Q

What releases dopamine and is used for for voluntary muscle control?

A

Basal ganglia

150
Q

What controls skeletal muscle movement?

A

Primary motor cortex

151
Q

What is the area of the brain used for hearing?

A

Temporal lobe

152
Q

This is the location where sensory information from skin musculoskeletal system, viscera, and taste buds is located?

A

Parietal lobe

153
Q

This is the location where vision occurs?

A

Occipital

154
Q

What controls emotional behavior, and learning?

A

Limbic system

155
Q

This is the synaptic relay stations and important integrating centers for most inputs to the cortex, controls arousal and attention?

A

Thalamus

156
Q

This is the master command center for neural and endocrine coordination?

A

Hypothalamus

157
Q

This houses the pineal gland?

A

Epithalamus

158
Q

This is the area that plays a role in movement and coordination?

A

Cerebellum

159
Q

This plays a role in breathing, relay and sensations

A

Pons

160
Q

this is the area that plays a role in breathing and has cardiovascular center?

A

Medulla oblongata

161
Q

this is involved in motor functions, cardiovascular and respiratory control, and the mechanism that regulate sleep and wakefulness and focus of attention?

A

Reticular formation

162
Q

Somatic nervous sytem control…

A

skeletal muscle by voluntary control

163
Q

autonomic nervous system controls….

A

1) Sympathetic
2) Parasympathetic
Both are INVOLUNTARY CONTROL

164
Q

the sympathetic nervous system controls…

A

Cardiac and smooth muscle glands

165
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system controls…

A

Enteric nervous system

166
Q

Somatic nervous system go from…

A

CNS directly to skeletal muscle

167
Q

The autonomic nervous system go from…

A

CNS (preganglionic fiber)–> GANGLION (postganglionic fiber) —> Smooth muscle or cardiac muscle, glands, or GI tract

168
Q

This contains the nerves for hearing

A

Cochlea

169
Q

This contains receptors for balance

A

Vestibule

170
Q

This contains receptors for bal

A

Medical Physiology (3 decks)

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