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Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

MDP leadership in action:
What are the 4C’s?

A
  • Committed
  • Collaborative
  • Challenge
  • Curious
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2
Q

In what year was the MDP formed?

A

1971

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3
Q

In what year did the MDP have its first female officer?

A

1974

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4
Q

In what year was the Ministry of Defence Act formed?

A

1987

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5
Q

In what year did the MDP extend its jurisdiction and name the Act?

A

Anti-Terrorist Crime and Security Act 2001

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6
Q

What are the MDP’s 4 Primary Policing Outputs?

A
  • Nuclear Policing
  • Territorial Policing
  • National Counter Terrorist Response
  • Crime and Intelligence
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7
Q

What is the Rank structure of the MDP?

A

Chief Constable
Deputy Chief Constable
Assistant Chief Constable
Chief Superintendent
Superintendent
Chief Inspector
Inspector
Sergeant
Constable

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8
Q

What are the 4 Cornerstones?

A

Our Purpose
Our Policing Style
Code of Ethics
National Decision Model (NDM)

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9
Q

What is the MDP’s Purpose?
(Our Purpose)

A

To deliver unique specialist policing to protect the nations defence and infrastructure. (Use PRA)

  1. Protecting
  2. Reassuring
  3. Achieving

We PROTECT and REASSURE to ACHIEVE our MoD requirement.

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10
Q

What is ‘Our Policing Style’?

A

PRA:

Proffessional
Respectful
Adaptable

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11
Q

What are the Code of Ethics?
A
F
H
I
L
O
O
R
S

A

Accountability
Fairness
Honesty
Integrity
Leadership
Objectivity
Openness
Respect
Selflessness

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12
Q

What is the difference between Equality and Equity?

A

Equality is equal
Equity is fair

If you treat everyone the same those who are less fortunate or less able than others will be at a dissadvantage and therefore you should give them the extra support they need to start off at the same point as everyone else.
Some people need more support than others for a number of reasons. (For example, they have a rough background, a poor childhood or a protected characteristic).

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13
Q

Define Diversity

A

The ways in which we all differ including but not limited to our race, ethnicity, religion, beliefs, physical attributes, dissabilities, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, age, socio-economic background, life experiences such as marriage, pregnancy and maternity.

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14
Q

What is inclusion?

A

The action of embracing each others differences. Inclusion is about valuing and harnessing peoples unique backgrounds, talents, perspectives and insights for the benefit of individuals and the organisation.

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15
Q

Define Harrassment:

A

Harassment is unwanted conduct related to a protected characteristic, which violates an individual’s dignity or creates an intimidating, hostile, degrading, humiliating or offensive environment for that individual.
- it can range from teasing and name calling to bullying or excluding colleagues from social events.

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16
Q

What is Victimisation?

A

Treating someone less favourably because they have made a complaint or plan to make a complaint in relation to an equality matter.
- under the Equality Act 2010, protection against victimisation has been extended to people who may not be intending to complain but are simply asking questions or gathering information.

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17
Q

What Act does Discrimination come under?

A

Equality Act 2010

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18
Q

Define Discrimination:

A

The treatment of an individual, or a particular group of people, less favourably than others because of a protected characteristic they have or are thought to have or because they associate with someone who has a protected characteristic.

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19
Q

What is direct discrimination?

A

When somebody is treated less favourably than another person because they have a protected characteristic.

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20
Q

What is indirect discrimination?

A

When a condition, rule, policy or even a practise in a company applies to everyone but disadvantages someone with a protected characteristic.

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21
Q

Direct discrimination by association. What is this?

A

The Act protects people who may experience discrimination because they associate with someone who possesses a protected characteristic.

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22
Q

What is direct discrimination by perception?

A

The Act protects people who may experience discrimination because others think that they possess a particular protected characteristic.

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23
Q

What are the 9 protected characteristics?

A

Age
Disability
Gender reassignment
Marriage and civil partnership
Pregnancy and maternity
Race
Religion and belief
Sex
Sexual orientation

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24
Q

What are the 10 Police Standards of Proffessional behaviour:

A
  1. Honesty and integrity
  2. Authority, respect and courtesy
  3. Equality and diversity
  4. Use of force
  5. Orders and instructions
  6. Duties and responsibilities
  7. Confidentiality
  8. Fitness for duty
  9. Discredible conduct
  10. Challenging & reporting improper conduct
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25
Q

What is the Police Caution?

A

You do not have to say anything. But it may harm your defence if you do not mention when questioned something which you later rely on in court. Anything you do say may be given in evidence.

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26
Q

What are the core operational roles of an MDP Constable?

A
  • To protect life/property.
  • Make communities safer by upholding the law fairly and firmly.
  • Preventing crime and anti-social behaviour.
  • Keeping the peace.
  • Protecting and reassuring communities.
  • Investigating crime and bringing offenders to justice.
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27
Q

Tell me what the legislation and year for spying:

A

Official Secrets Act 1911

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28
Q

What does the Official Secrets Act 1920 cover?

A

Prohibited Place

  • Anyone who gains or attempts to gain improper entry to a prohibited place by using:
  • Any uniform.
  • A false declaration.
  • By impersonating or pretending to be a person holding any office or position under his majesty.
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29
Q

What is the Official Secrets Act 1989?

A

Known as the ‘blanket cover’. It is aimed at:
- Crown Servants
- Government Contractors

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30
Q

What are the rules with Cameras within an establishment?

A
  • Strict regulations prohibiting use
  • Need written permission from head of establishment or from the establishment security officer.
  • Approach and question
  • No power to seize - unless an offence against the official secrets Act is committed.
  • Consider PNC/Intelligence checks
  • Unauthorised photographing/recording requires 271 and intelligence 3x5x2 report as soon as possible.
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31
Q

Drones & Auditors.
Is it allowed?

A

Yes, it is allowed. No permission needed with only two exceptions:
- Cannot fly over a flight restriction zone (FRZ’s) without permission.
- Airspace restriction order (ARO) - cannot fly over areas around other sensitive protected sites. This can be a permanent or temporary policy.

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32
Q

What are the MoD/MDP Document Classification gradings?

A
  • Top Secret
  • Secret
  • Official
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33
Q

Who do you need to get authorisation from to prosecute someone for breaching the Official Secrets Act?

A
  • Attorney General (For England and Wales)
  • Lord Advocate (For Scotland)
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34
Q

What is the Criminal Justice System (CJS)

A

The CJS refers to the law, law enforcement and dealing with transgressions of the law

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35
Q

Who is the CJS overseen by?

A

A. Ministry of Justice - courts, prison service, probation service

B. Attorney General Office - legal advice to the government and overseeing independent prosecuting departments such as the CPS.

C. Home office

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36
Q

What is the Adversial Justice System:
What’s it purpose?

A

Requires the defendant of an offence is tried by court which is required to determine the defendants guilt ‘beyond reasonable doubt’.

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37
Q

What is the defence made up of in court?

A

The defendant
Legal representatives (solicitors/barristers.

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38
Q

What is the prosecution made up of in court?

A
  • Crown prosecution service
  • Solicitors/barristers
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39
Q

What is the full code test?

A

The code for crown prosecutors which sets out the general principles public prosecutors should follow when they make decisions on cases:

The full code test has two limbs:

Evidential test: is there sufficient evidence?

Public Interest test: is a prosecution in the public interest?

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40
Q

What is a statutory defence?

A

A specific defence for the offence e.g feared for their life, self defence

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41
Q

What is a youth court?

A
  • It is a special type of magistrates court for people aged between 10-17.
  • a youth court has either:
    3 magistrates
    A district judge
    There is no juries in a youth court

Defendant may have special measures

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42
Q

What sort of cases does a youth court deal with?

A

Summarative:
Like,
Theft and burglary
Anti social behaviour
Drug offences

For more serious cases, the case will be passed to a crown court

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43
Q

How can you secure a suspects attendance at a court?

A
  • By summons
  • Arrest on warrant
  • Arrest without warrant
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44
Q

What is a statute law?

A

Laws passed by parliament e.g PACE

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45
Q

What is a common law?

A

Laws based on judges’ rulings that evolve or develop over time based on previous court cases

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46
Q

What is a civil law?

A

A system of law that deals with disputes between individuals and organisations

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47
Q

What is case law?

A

The decision of one case where circumstances are similar is binding on others.
A binding decision means that other courts must follow the principle of law on which the case is based unless such a decision is changed by “higher court”

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48
Q

What is the actus reus?

A

The act itself. You must prove the act/crime itself was carried out

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49
Q

What is the men’s rea?

A

“Guilty state of mind” must prove what was in the offenders mind. What were they thinking at the time? (The intent)

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50
Q

What are the 3 different categories of offences?

A
  • Indictable
  • either way
  • summary
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51
Q

What are the 5 different terrorism threat levels?

A
  • Critical
  • Severe
  • Substantial
  • Moderate
  • Low
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52
Q

What are the 3 Counter terrorist response levels?

A
  • Exceptional
  • Heightened
  • Normal
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53
Q

What is sabotage and can you remember what section, act and year it is?

A

A physical attack on our infrastructure, buildings, vehicles, IT systems or other equipment which aim to prevent us of it

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54
Q

What is Subversion?

A
  • When someone tries to undermine an organisation by turning its people against it perhaps by encouraging dissent or event mutiny
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55
Q

What is Unauthorised disclosure?

A
  • leaking information to press and other parties.
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56
Q

What are the two types of insider threat?

A
  • Unwitting insiders
  • Witting insider
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57
Q

What is the name for the UK Strategy for counter terrorsim?

A

CONTEST

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58
Q

What are the 4P’s in the CONTEST Strategy?

A
  • Prevent
  • Pursue
  • Protect
  • Prepare
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59
Q

What is Project Servator?

A

Part of the National Counter Terrorist Policing CONTEST Strategy:

It’s aim is to distrust a range of criminal terrorist activity, whilst providing reassuring presence for the public.
- High visibility
-Unpredictable deployments
- Specialist resources - Dogs, plain clothed, armed officers

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60
Q

What is Op WIDEAWAKE?

A

Check buildings and surroundings for:
- suspect devices
- suspicious activity
- damage

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61
Q

What is Op ROUNDUP?

A

Intruder on site

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62
Q

What are the 4 vetting levels?

A
  • Baseline Personel Security Standard (BPSS)
  • Counter Terrorism Check (CTC)
  • Security check (SC)
  • Developed vetting (DV)
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63
Q

The MDP covers not just the MOD, it also covers:

A
  • Other governmental Departments
  • Critical National Infrastructure
  • Defence manufacturing sites
  • US visiting forces
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64
Q

What are the 5 main crime and security threats to the MOD?

A

Terrorism
Protesters
Theft
Fraud

  • Terrorist attacks and the exploitation of defence assets or personnel for terrorist purposes
  • Disruption and Disorder caused by protesters
  • theft or compromise of, and damage to, assets and material that would have a significant impact upon defence capability
  • Major financial fraud and corruption
  • unauthorised intrusion onto the defence estate
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65
Q

Under what Section is an MDP officer assist another force? And under what circumstance?

A

Section 2 of the MDP Act 1987
- where an MDP officer has been requested by a constable of the police force for any police area
- to assist them in the execution of their duties in relation to a particular incident, investigation or operation.

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66
Q

What does Section 2A of the MDP Act 1987 allow?

A

Allows the chief constable to provide constables or other assistance for the purpose of enabling that force to meet any special demand on its resources.
- and MDP Officer providing the assistance will be under direction and control of the chief officer of that force

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67
Q

What does VAWG stand for?

A

Violence against women and girls

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68
Q

Give three examples of violence against women and girls:

A
  • FGM/ honour based abuse
  • Forced marriage
  • Domestic abuse
  • Sexual offences
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69
Q

What is misogyny?

A

A dislike of, contempt for, or ingrained predjudice against women

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70
Q

What is micro-aggression?

A

Made to feel inferior, objectified, bound to restrictive gender roles and degrading behaviour

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71
Q

What is Toxic Masculinity?

A

Ideas about the way that men should behave that are seen as harmful against women and girls

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72
Q

What are 2 positive outcomes of managing police information well?

A
  • improved prevention and detection of crime
  • increased protection for the most vulnerable by sharing information with other forces + partner agencies
  • more effective briefings and taskings of officers
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73
Q

What are 2 negative outcomes of managing police information poorly?

A
  • Potential for incorrect or misinformed decisions
  • unnecessary risks to the public especially those who are vulnerable
  • possible breaches of legislation
  • improper or inappropriate access to police information.
  • Increased risk to officer safety
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74
Q

What are the four principles you should apply for good data quality?

A
  • Accurate
  • Adequate
  • Relevant
  • Timely
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75
Q

What is the purpose of the National Intelligence Model?

A
  • provides greater consistency to policing
  • allows operational strategies to focus on key priorities
  • allows more officers to focus on solving priority problems and targeting the most active offenders
  • achieves greater compliance with human rights legislation
  • Informs management of the risks
    Improves integration and communication with partner agencies
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76
Q

What does RIPA stand for?

A

Regulation of investigatory powers Act 2000

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77
Q

What are the 6 stages of the Intelligence Model? In the correct order

A
  1. Direction
  2. Collection
  3. Collation
  4. Evaluated
  5. Analysis
  6. Dissemination
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78
Q

What is the name for the intelligence report that you should complete when submitting information and intelligence?

A

The 3x5x2 report/form

79
Q

The 3x5x2 report has 3 grades to establish the credibility. What are they?

A

Reliable
Untested
Unreliable

80
Q

What are NVC’s?

A

Non verbal communication
E.g
- Body language
- Gestures
- Dress and ornaments

81
Q

Give an example of a barrier to communication:

A
  • Physical/external noise (traffic, crowds, aircraft)
  • Psychological/internal noise ( predjudice, stereotypes
  • Semantic Noise (where the words of the message are not understood)
82
Q

The acronym to being an effective listener is LISTEN. What does it stand for?

A
  • Look
  • Inquire
  • Summarise
  • Take notes
  • Encourage
  • Neutralise feelings
83
Q

What does TED and 5WH stand for?

A

Tell
Explain
Describe

What
When
Why
Who
Where
How

84
Q

What are the 5 stages of the NDM?

A
  1. Gather information and Intelligence
  2. Assess threat & develop a working strategy
  3. Consider powers and policies
  4. Identify options
  5. Take action & review what happened
85
Q

When can the NDM be used?

A
  • in any situation
  • in fast moving incidents
  • writing statements, reports and notes
86
Q

What is the Mnemonic to help remember the NDM?

A

CIAPOAR

Code of ethics
Information
Assessment
Powers + Policy
Options
Action + review

87
Q

What does irrebuttable presumption of law mean?

A

No evidence can contradict the fact. E.g a child under 10yrs is incapable of committing a crime

88
Q

What does Rebuttable Presumption of law mean?

A

Unless proved to the contrary, the court must find that a presumed fact existed.

89
Q

What is policing by consent?

A
  • The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependant upon public approval of police actions
  • police must secure the willing cooperation of the public in voluntry observance of the law to be able to secure and maintain respect of the public
  • the degree of cooperation of the public that can be secured diminishes proportionately to the necessity of the use of physical force.
  • police seek and preserve public favour by constantly demonstrating absolute impartial service to the law
90
Q

What are the 6 Peelian principles and what are they there for?

A

They are there To define an ethical police force.
The test of public efficiency in the absence of crime and disorder not the visible evidence of police action in dealing with it.
To ensure that we always police by consent be sure to apply the principles of:
- four cornerstones
- proffessional standards
- diversity and inclusion
- maintaining our purpose + style
- maintaining a proffessional attitude + behaviour
- respect for people/ our customers and our colleagues

91
Q

What does the CRAVED model stand for?

A

Concealable
Removable
Available
Valuable
Enjoyable
Disposable

92
Q

What does ACTO stand for?

A

Attractive to criminal and terrorist organisations

93
Q

What is a critical incident?

A

Any incident where the effectiveness of the police response is likely to have significant impact on the confidence of the:
- victim
- family
- the community

94
Q

What is a major incident?

A

An emergency that requires the implementation of the special arrangements by one or more of the emergency services.
- likely to cause serious harm, damage, security risk, disruption or risk to human life such as floods, viruses outbreaks etc.

95
Q

What is the incident command structure?

A

Gold - strategy

Silver - tactics

Bronze - implements the tactics on the ground

Tac Ad - an officer with enhanced training and skill in particular field who advises gold+silver on tactics to consider

96
Q

Initial actions you take at a scene: what does APC stand for?

A

Assess
Protect
Communicate

97
Q

What does THRIVE stand for?

A

Threat
Harm
Risk
Investigation
Vulnerability
Engagement

98
Q

What is golden hour?

A

Crime scene preservation
Preserving evidence

99
Q

What to do in the golden hour:
C
C
S
C

A

Confirm exactly what has taken place
Cordon off the scene
Secure the crime scene
Control the crime scene

100
Q

What does JESIP stand for?

A

Joint emergency interoperability programme
- was set up for co-ordinating major incidents requiring a multi agency response

101
Q

What does METHANE stand for?

A

Major incident
Exact location
Type of incident
Hazards
Access - safe routes in
Number of casualties - type and severity
Emergency services required

102
Q

What is article 2 of the human rights act?

A

Right to life

103
Q

What is Article 3 of the Human rights act?

A

The prohibition of torture and inhuman or degrading treatment

104
Q

What is Article 4 of the Human rights act?

A

The prohibition of slavery and forced labour

105
Q

What is Article 5 of the Human rights act?

A

Right to liberty and security

106
Q

What is Article 6 of the Human rights act?

A

Right to a fair trial

107
Q

What is Article 8 of the Human rights act?

A

Right to private and family life

108
Q

What 4 human rights are ‘absolute rights’?
(Rights that the state cannot interfere with)

A

Article 2 - right to life
Article 3 - prohibition of torture
Article 4 - prohibition of slavery
Article 7 - no punishment without law

109
Q

What does PLAN L stand for?

A

Proportionate
Legal
Accountable
Necessary
Least intrusive

110
Q

What does EMMIE framework stand for?

A

Effect
Mechanism
Moderators
Implementation
Economic cost

111
Q

Police occurrence report: which form would you fill in?

A
  • 271 report form
112
Q

What is the order of a MG11: 5 part statement plan:

A

Introduction
People
Set the scene/place
Chronological order
Closure

113
Q

Persons description: what does NASCH stand for?

A

Name
Age
Sex
Colour
Height

114
Q

What does CoMMuTeR stand for?

A

Colour
Make
Model
Type
Registration number

115
Q

What are the 4 R’s when dealing with evidence/material?

A

Record the material
Retain the material
Reveal the material to the defence
Review the material

116
Q

What does the PEACE Model stand for?

A

Planning and prep
Engage and explain
Account, clarification and challenge
Closure
Evaluation

117
Q

What does SHACKS stand for?

A

Seen
Heard
Actions
Conversations
Knowledge
Smell

118
Q

What is a summons?

A

Orders someone to court
- in most cases the police make an application through the CPS for a defendant summons

119
Q

Who is a Warrant issued by?

A

Issued by a magistrate or a judge

120
Q

If the owner of unclaimed properly is not traced within a certain time frame. The property may be returned to the finder.
What is this time frame?

A

4 weeks

121
Q

What is restorative justice?

A

It is a form of out of court disposal which allows police officers to deal with minor incidents and criminality on the spot by means of community resolution

122
Q

Define S1 of the theft act?

A

A person is guilty of theft if they:
- dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it

123
Q

A person is guilty of abstracting electricity when he/she:
Dishonestly uses it without due authority or dishonestly causes it to be diverted or wasted.
Under what section and legislation?

A

S13 theft act 1968

124
Q

What is TWOC and under what legislation does it come under?

A

S12 Theft Act 1968

Without consent of the owner or other lawful authority, takes a vehicle for his own or another’s use or knowing that a conveyance has been taken without authority drives it or allows himself to be carried in or on it

125
Q

A mechanically propelled vehicle can be powered by what?

A

POGES

Petrol
Oil
Gas
Electricity
Steam

126
Q

S8 of the theft act 1968 is what?

A

Robbery

A person who steals and immediately before or at the time of doing so and in order to do so uses force on any person or outs or seeks to out any person in fear of being there and they’re subjected to force

127
Q

Blackmail is someone with a view to gain for himself or another or with intent to cause loss to another, he makes any unwarranted demand with menaces.

What section and legislation?

A

S21 theft act 1968

128
Q

Common assault: sometimes referred to as battery is any act which any person intentionally or recklessly applies unlawful force on another person

What legislation does this come under?

A

S39 criminal justice act

129
Q

Define S.47 offences against a person act 1961

A

Assault occassioning actually bodily harm - ABH

any harm which interferes with the health or comfort of the victim
E.g
Loss of teeth
Broken nose
Minor fractures
Extensive/multiple bruising

130
Q

What is S.20 offences against a person act 1861?

A

GBH - greviously bodily harm

Unlawfully and maliciously wound or inflict GBH on any person with or without a weapon.

E.g
- Injuries with substantial blood loss
- Injuries resulting in lengthy treatment or incapacity
- broken/displaced bones

131
Q

GBH with intent is an offence under what legislation?

A

S18 of offences against a person act

132
Q

Assaulting, resisting or obstructing a police officer is an offence under what legislation?

A

S.89 police act 1996

133
Q

Racially/religiously aggravated assault is an offence under what legislation

A

S.29 crime and disorder act 1998

134
Q

An offence under S5 public stores act is what?

A

Any person with intent to conceal his majesty’s property in any stores. Takes out, destroys, or obliterates, wholly or in part, any such mark or any mark whatsoever denoting the property of his majesty in any stores

135
Q

Any person who conveys, has with them in their possession of keeps any of his majesty’s stores, reasonably suspected of being stolen or unlawfully obtained is an offence under what?

A

S.7 public stores act

136
Q

S.8 public stores act:
Without permission, gathers or searches for stores or to creep, sweep or dredge in the sea or any tidal water within 100yrs of any vessel belonging to his majesty or from any moaning or anchoring place or within 1000yrds of any battery or fort used for practise of artillery or used by RAF

100 yrds navy
1000 yrds raf

A
137
Q

Burglary is an offence under what legislation?

A

S9(1)(a) theft act 1968

A person who enters a building or part of a building as a trespasser with intent to steal anything, inflict GBH or do unlawful damage (criminal damage)

138
Q

S.9(1)(b) theft act 1968 is what?

A

A person who having entered a building or part of a building as a tresspasser:
Steal or attempts to steal anything or inflicts or attempts to inflict GBH.
Criminal damage is not a factor in this section
S.9(1)(b) is entering with no initial intent

139
Q

What is aggravated burglary and under what legislation?

A

S10(1) theft act 1968

Any person who commits any offence of burglary and at the time has with them any (WIFE):
Weapon
Imitation Firearm
Firearm
Explosive

140
Q

Handling stolen goods is an offence under what section?

A

S22 theft act 1968

Knowing or believing the goods to be stolen, she/he dishonestly receives them or undertakes or assists in their retention, removal, disposal or realisation by or for the benefit of another person

141
Q

What are the 5 types of evidence?

A

Oral
Hearsay
Real
Documentary
Opinion

142
Q

Exhibits: what does DC SAID stand for?

A
  • Description of exhibit
  • Crime/custody number
  • Signature of witness
  • Address from where or on who it was found
  • identify mark of exhibit (exhibit number)
  • date, time, name,
143
Q

Fraud by false representation is an offence under what legislation and what is it?

A

S2 fraud act 2006

Dishonestly makes a false representation and intends, by making the representation to make a gain for himself or another or to cause loss to another or to expose another to risk of loss

144
Q

Fraud by failing to disclose information is an offence under what?

A

S.3 fraud act 2006

145
Q

S.4 fraud act is an offence of what?

A

Fraud by abuse of position

146
Q

Possession of articles for use in fraud is an offence under what legislation?

A

S.6 fraud act 2006

147
Q

S.7 fraud act 2006 is what?

A

Making or supplying articles for use in fraud

148
Q

What is anti social behaviour and what legislation does it come under?

A

S2(1)(a) anti social behaviour, crime and policing act 2014

Behaviour which has cause or is likely to cause harrassment alarm or distress to any person

149
Q

S50(1) police reform act 2002 gives a police officer the power to what and why?

A

Request a person to provide their name and addrsss if they believe any person who has been acting or is acting in an anti social manner

150
Q

How can breach of the peace be dealt with because it is not a criminal offence?

A
  • detain them until likelihood of a re-occurrence of the break of the peace has gone or
  • putting them before next available court so that they can be bound over to keep the peace
151
Q

DEALING WITH SERVICE PERSONNEL: ABSENTEEISM AND DISERTION - S8 and S9 ARMED FORCES ACT 2006
KNOW THE DIFFERENCE

A
152
Q

What is criminal damage and the legislation for it?

A

S(1) criminal damage act 1971
- without lawful excuse, destroys or damages any property belonging to another intending to destroy or damage it or reckless as to whether it would be destroyed or damaged

153
Q

What is the legislation for Aggravated criminal damage and what is it?

A

S1(2) criminal damage act 1971
- intending by the damage or destruction to endanger life or being reckless as to whether life would be endangered

154
Q

What legislation does arson come under?

A

S1(3) criminal damage act 1971

155
Q

If you suspect someone is a terrorist. What power do you have to arrest them?

A

Section 41(1) terrorism act 2000

156
Q

What legislation gives you the power to stop and search someone you reasonably suspect to be a terrorist?

A

Section 43 terrorism act 2000

157
Q

What is S43A of the terrorism act 2000

A

Power to stop and search vehicles

158
Q

What is section 47A of the terrorism act 2000

A

Power to stop and search vehicles and pedestrians
-only the ACC (Assistant Chief Constable) or higher can approve this.
- it is for the use of stop and search in a specific area, solely for terrorism

159
Q

If you are filling in an intel report about terrorism, what word must of have in the heading?

A

REFRACT

160
Q

TERRORISM ACTIONS - THINK SHEEP
SAFEGUARDING - CHILD CRUELTY

A
161
Q

How long can a child be kept in police protection for?

A

72 hours

162
Q

ViSOR Database. What does ViSOR stand for?

A

Violent and sex offender register

163
Q

Missing persons
A person following a risk assessment will be classed as -
Absent or
Missing

What are the 4 levels of risk for a missing person

A

High risk
Medium risk
Low risk
No apparent risk

164
Q

Cell site can be used to track movements of a high risk missing person. Who can authorise the use of cell site?

A

Inspector or above

165
Q

What is a diplomat?

A

A person selected to represent their nation in another country

166
Q

What are the 5 grades of a diplomat and give their diplomatic immunity privellege:

A

A - full immunity
B- full immunity
C - full immunity
D - restricted - only when on duty
E - none

167
Q

Who should you contact if you need to confirm a diplomats identity/status?

A

Parliamentary and diplomatic protection command (PaDP)

168
Q

Do NOT arrest a diplomat however you must record and report what happened.

However, when can you arrest a diplomat?

A
  • When the diplomat presents an immediate danger to someone
  • reasonable doubt about their identity
169
Q

What is a component part on a firearm?

A

If a component part is removed, the firearm cannot function

170
Q

What is a firearm?

A

A lethal barrelled weapon of any description from which any shot, bullet or other missle can be discharged

171
Q

A smooth bore gun which is illegal if the barrel is more than … inches and a bore exceeding … inches and
Has a magazine which is capable of holding more than … cartridges.

A

24 inches
2 inches
2 cartridges

172
Q

S.47 firearms act gives the police the power to do what?

A

Stop and search

173
Q

What power does S48 firearms act give a constable?

A

You can require someone to produce their gun certificates

174
Q

What is S18 of the firearms act 1968

A

Possession of a firearm with intent to commit an indictable offence

175
Q

Tresspass with a firearm is an offence under what legislation?

A

S20 of the firearms act 1968

176
Q

LOOK AT FIREARMS POWERPOINT

A
177
Q

Is a crossbow a firearm?

A

No

178
Q

Under s22 of the firearms act, it is an offence for a person under the age of 18 to what?

A

purchase/hire an air weapon or ammunition

179
Q

Section 5 misuse of drugs act 1971 is what

A

Unlawful possession of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances

Statutory defences
E.g
They did not know they had it
They did not know it was a controlled drug

180
Q

The unlawful supply of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances is an offence under what act?

A

S4(3) misuse of drugs act

181
Q

Possession with intent to supply is an offence under?

A

S5(3) misuse of drugs act 1971

182
Q

The production of controlled drugs is an offence under?

A

S4(2) misuse of drugs act

183
Q

What is the search power to stop and search a person, place or vehicle for drugs?

A

S23 misuse of drugs act
GOWISELY

184
Q

What is S36 of the psychoactive substances act 2016?

A

Stop and search a person

185
Q

The chief constable is directly accountable to who?

A

The Secretary of State of defence

186
Q

The defence operation model aims to be:
ABCDEF

A

Accessible
Browsable
Comprehensive
Definitive
Evolving
Federated

187
Q

How many organisations is the defence made up of?

A

19
-head offfice
- Four military commands - army, navy etc
- defence nuclear organisation
- uk space command
- 12 enabling organisations

188
Q

What is the vision of the MDP?

A

Provide high quality constabulary policing, guarding and armed security in support of the UK’s defence

189
Q

What does IIMARCH stand for?

A

Information
Intent
Method
Administration
Risk assessment
Communications
Humanitarian issues

190
Q

Covert surveillance:
Directed and intrusive. Who authorises these uses of surveillance?

A

Directed: not below Superintendent
Intrusive: not below ACC

191
Q

S163 road traffic act 1988 enables a constable to do what?

A

Power to stop a vehicle. No suspicion or authorisation needed

192
Q

S164 road traffic act 1988

A

“License for law” if an offence or accident has happened a constable requires the driver to provide license or details for #DL (driving license pnc)

193
Q

S165A road traffic act 1988 gives constables the power to what?

A

Seize a vehicle if reasonable grounds the driver doesn’t have a suitable license or is not adequately insured.

194
Q

What is another word for Vehicle Excise licenses (VEL’s)

A

It is another word for Road tax

R (2 decks)

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