Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

ploidy

A

Ploidy is the number of complete sets of chromosomes in a cell or organism.

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2
Q

haploid number

A

The haploid number refers to the number of unique chromosomes in a single set of chromosomes for a particular species.

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3
Q

homologous chromosome

A

A homologous chromosome is one of a pair of chromosomes that have the same genes at the same positions and the same centromere locations.

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4
Q

allele

A

An allele is one of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome.

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5
Q

Understand that mitotic division does not change ploidy

A
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6
Q

Describe basics of sexual reproduction – germ cells, gametes, fertilization

A

Germ cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid gametes (sperm and eggs). During fertilization, a haploid sperm cell fuses with a haploid egg cell, combining their chromosomes to form a diploid zygote. This restores the original ploidy of the organism in the zygote and subsequent cells formed by mitotic divisions during development.

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7
Q

Understand why meiosis is needed to create gametes (why mitosis cannot be used to
create gametes)

A

Mitosis cannot be used to create gametes because it maintains the same ploidy in daughter cells. Meiosis is required to halve the ploidy and produce haploid gametes, so that fertilization restores the original diploid ploidy.

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8
Q

Describe the phases of meiosis

A

Meiosis I:
Prophase I - Chromosomes condense, homologous chromosomes pair up.
Metaphase I - Paired homologous chromosomes line up along the center.
Anaphase I - Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.
Telophase I - Chromosomes arrive at poles, nuclear membranes reform around each set.
Meiosis II:
Prophase II - Chromosomes condense again.
Metaphase II - Chromosomes line up individually.
Anaphase II - Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
Telophase II - Haploid daughter cells form with one chromosome set each.

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9
Q

Understand that meiosis separates homologous chromosome, which separates alleles of the same gene apart

A

During meiosis, the separation of homologous chromosomes in Anaphase I is what allows different combinations of alleles for each gene to be distributed into the resulting gametes. Since homologous chromosomes carry different versions (alleles) of the same genes, separating the homologous pairs ensures that each gamete receives a unique mixture of maternal and paternal alleles. This genetic reshuffling by separating homologous chromosomes is a key reason meiosis generates genetic diversity in gametes and offspring.

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10
Q

Be able to describe crossing over and independent assortment in meiosis

A

Crossing over: Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during prophase I.
Independent assortment: Random segregation of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes during anaphase I.
Both crossing over and independent assortment generate genetic diversity in gametes produced by meiosis.

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11
Q

Understand how crossing over and independent assortment can create unique gametes

A

Crossing over: By exchanging chromosome segments between homologous pairs, new combinations of maternal and paternal genes are created on each chromosome.
Independent assortment: The random segregation of chromosomes into gametes means each gamete will get a unique assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
The combined effects of recombination from crossing over and the randomized chromosome assortment means that out of the millions of possible gametes, virtually every one receives a different complement of genes and alleles. This genetic uniqueness of gametes facilitates greater diversity in offspring produced by sexual reproduction.

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12
Q

gamete

A

A gamete is a haploid reproductive cell that fuses with another during fertilization in sexual reproduction.

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13
Q

fertilization

A

Fertilization: The fusion of two gametes (egg and sperm) to form a diploid zygote.

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14
Q

crossing over

A

Crossing over: The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, which generates new combinations of maternal and paternal genes.

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15
Q

independent assortment

A

Independent assortment: The random segregation of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes during meiosis.

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16
Q

tetrad

A

Group of four chromatids/haploid cells held together after meiosis II

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17
Q

homologous pair

A

Two chromosomes in a diploid cell that carry genes for the same traits
One chromosome from each parent
Pair up and exchange genetic material during meiosis

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18
Q

synaptonemal complex

A

Synaptonemal complex:

  • Protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis
  • Facilitates crossover events and recombination between non-sister chromatids
  • Helps hold homologous pairs together until separation in anaphase I
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19
Q

cohesin

A

Cohesin:

  • Protein complex that holds sister chromatids together after DNA replication
  • Ensures proper separation of sister chromatids during anaphase of mitosis and meiosis
  • Removed from chromosomes in a regulated manner to allow segregation
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20
Q

chiasma/chiasmata

A

Chiasma/Chiasmata:

  • The point(s) where crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
  • Physically holds chromatids together until anaphase I of meiosis
  • Singular: chiasma, plural: chiasmata
  • Allows for genetic recombination and increased genetic diversity
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21
Q

sister chromatid

A

Sister chromatids:

  • Two identical copies of a chromosome formed after DNA replication
  • Held together by the cohesin protein complex until anaphase
  • Separate and migrate to opposite poles during anaphase of mitosis and meiosis II
  • Genetically identical unless a new mutation occurs
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22
Q

cell cycle

A

Cell cycle:

  • Sequence of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication
  • Consists of interphase (G1, S, G2 phases) and M phase (mitosis)
  • Regulated by cyclin-dependent kinases and checkpoints
  • Ensures proper division and genetic distribution to daughter cells
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23
Q

interphase

A

Interphase:

  • Longest phase of the cell cycle
  • Consists of G1, S, and G2 phases
  • Cell grows, duplicates organelles and chromosomes (during S phase)
  • Prepares for mitosis or meiosis
  • Most metabolic activity occurs during interphase
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24
Q

Describe the characteristics and feature of Mendelian traits

A

Here are the key characteristics of Mendelian traits in concise bullet points:

  • Determined by discrete units (genes)
  • Dominant and recessive alleles
  • Alleles segregate during gamete formation
  • Independent assortment of traits
  • Simple dominance (one allele masks the other)
  • Predictable phenotypic ratios in offspring
  • Can be monohybrid (single trait) or dihybrid (two traits)
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25
Q

Explain dominance (allelic relationship) and complete dominance

A

Dominance (allelic relationship):
- Refers to the expression of one allele over another in a heterozygous genotype
- Complete dominance: When the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is indistinguishable from one of the homozygous genotypes
- Example: In pea plants, tall (TT or Tt) is completely dominant over short (tt)
- Incomplete dominance: When the heterozygous phenotype is distinct from both homozygous phenotypes
- Example: In snapdragons, red (CR) and white (CW) produce pink flowers (CRCw)

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26
Q

Understand the consequence of segregation, ind. assortment, and crossing over when
considering one gene

A

When considering a single gene, here are the consequences of segregation, independent assortment, and crossing over:

Segregation:
- During gamete formation, the two alleles for a gene separate or segregate
- This leads to gametes receiving only one allele for that gene
- Consequence: Offspring receive one allele from each parent, enabling genetic variation

Independent Assortment:
- For a single gene, independent assortment does not have an effect
- Independent assortment applies when considering two or more genes on different chromosomes

Crossing Over:
- Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
- For a single gene, crossing over can result in new combinations of alleles on the same chromosome
- Consequence: Increases genetic variation by creating new allele combinations in gametes

In summary, for a single gene:
- Segregation ensures offspring receive different allele combinations from parents
- Crossing over can create new allele combinations on the same chromosome
- Independent assortment is not applicable for a single gene

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27
Q

histone

A

Histone:

  • Small, highly conserved proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei
  • Act as spools around which DNA winds to form nucleosomes
  • Help package and order the DNA into structural units called chromatin
  • Play a role in gene regulation by controlling access to DNA
  • Core histones: H2A, H2B, H3, H4 form nucleosome core particle
  • Histone tails can be modified (e.g. acetylation, methylation) affecting gene expression
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28
Q

nucleosome

A

Nucleosome:

  • Basic structural unit of chromatin
  • Consists of a histone core around which DNA is wrapped
  • Histone core is an octamer of histone proteins (2 copies each of H2A, H2B, H3, H4)
  • Around 147 base pairs of DNA wrapped around the histone core
  • Connected by short stretches of linker DNA and linker histones
  • Allows compaction of DNA into higher-order chromatin structures
  • Regulates access of enzymes/transcription factors to DNA
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29
Q

chromatin

A

Chromatin:

  • Complex of DNA and proteins that condenses to form chromosomes
  • Found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells
  • Basic unit is the nucleosome (histone core + wrapped DNA)
  • Allows compaction of long DNA molecules into smaller structures
  • Exists in two forms:
    • Euchromatin (less condensed, transcriptionally active)
    • Heterochromatin (highly condensed, transcriptionally inactive)
  • Structure and modifications regulate gene expression
  • Chromatin remodeling alters chromatin structure for DNA access
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30
Q

uncondensed/condensed chromatin

A

Uncondensed chromatin refers to loosely packed DNA, allowing for transcription and gene expression. Condensed chromatin is tightly packed DNA, often associated with inactive genes and during cell division.

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31
Q

dominant

A

In genetics, “dominant” refers to an allele that will manifest its phenotype when present, masking the effect of its recessive counterpart in a heterozygous individual.

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32
Q

recessive

A

In genetics, “recessive” refers to an allele whose phenotypic expression is masked by a dominant allele when present in a heterozygous individual. It typically manifests its phenotype only when present in a homozygous recessive genotype.

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33
Q

phenotype

A

The “phenotype” refers to the observable traits or characteristics of an organism, resulting from the interaction of its genetic makeup (genotype) with the environment. These traits can include physical features, biochemical properties, and behaviors.

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34
Q

genotype

A

The “genotype” refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, including the combination of alleles present at specific loci on its chromosomes. It represents the genetic information that determines an organism’s traits and characteristics.

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35
Q

homozygous

A

“Homozygous” refers to an individual having identical alleles at a particular gene locus on both homologous chromosomes. In other words, both alleles at a specific gene locus are the same (e.g., AA or aa).

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36
Q

heterozygous

A

“Heterozygous” refers to an individual having different alleles at a particular gene locus on homologous chromosomes. In other words, the alleles at a specific gene locus are different (e.g., Aa).

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37
Q

law of segregation

A

The “law of segregation” is a principle in genetics formulated by Gregor Mendel. It states that during the formation of gametes (sex cells), the two alleles for each gene segregate from each other so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene. This segregation occurs randomly and independently of alleles at other gene loci.

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38
Q

crossing over

A

“Crossing over” is a genetic process that occurs during meiosis, specifically during prophase I of meiosis I. It involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, resulting in the recombination of alleles. Crossing over increases genetic diversity by creating new combinations of alleles on chromosomes.

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39
Q

allelic relationship (dominance)

A

Allelic relationship, specifically dominance, refers to the interaction between alleles of a gene when present in a heterozygous individual. In a dominant-recessive allelic relationship, the dominant allele expresses its phenotype, masking the effect of the recessive allele. The dominant allele is fully expressed, while the recessive allele’s phenotype is only observed when present in a homozygous recessive state.

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40
Q

complete dominance

A

Complete dominance: Phenotype of heterozygote identical to homozygous dominant.

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41
Q

Differentiate sister chromatids vs. homologous chromosomes – be able to tell if sister or homolog or non-homologous given particular information about alleles or meiotic structures

A

Sister chromatids: Identical copies of a single chromosome resulting from DNA replication.

Homologous chromosomes: Chromosome pairs from each parent, similar in length and gene position but may carry different alleles.

To differentiate:
- Sister chromatids are identical copies.
- Homologous chromosomes are from different parents and may have different alleles.

During meiosis:
- Sister chromatids are present in both meiosis I and meiosis II.
- Homologous chromosomes pair up only in meiosis I.

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42
Q

Differentiate DNA condensation phases interphase vs. M phase

A

Interphase: DNA exists as chromatin, loosely packed for gene expression and replication.M phase: DNA condenses into visible chromosomes for accurate segregation during cell division.

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43
Q

Understand Mendelian gene rules + complete dominance definition and how to identify if complete dominance is occurring.

A

Mendelian gene rules:
1. Law of Segregation: During gamete formation, the two alleles for each gene segregate from each other so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
2. Law of Independent Assortment: Alleles for different genes segregate independently of each other during gamete formation.

Complete dominance definition:
Complete dominance occurs when the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is indistinguishable from that of the homozygous dominant genotype. In other words, one allele completely masks the effect of the other allele in a heterozygous individual. The dominant allele is fully expressed, while the recessive allele has no observable effect on the phenotype.

Identifying complete dominance:
To identify complete dominance, observe the phenotype of heterozygous individuals. If the phenotype of the heterozygote is identical to that of the homozygous dominant individual, complete dominance is occurring. In other words, if there is no visible difference between the heterozygote and the homozygous dominant individual, complete dominance is likely at play.

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44
Q

Comprehend how crossing over and independent assortment impact the possible gamete genotypes and frequencies when only ONE gene.

A

Crossing over: Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, creating new combinations of alleles for one gene.Independent assortment: Alleles for different genes segregate independently during gamete formation, leading to different combinations of alleles for one gene in gametes.Impact: Increases genetic diversity among gametes by generating new allele combinations, contributing to variability in offspring.

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45
Q

Know how to find the probabilities of a genotype/phenotype when given the parent’s genotype/phenotype or other information

A

To find genotype or phenotype probabilities:

  1. Identify parent genotypes.
  2. Use Punnett square to visualize offspring genotypes.
  3. Count squares for each genotype.
  4. Divide by total squares for genotype probabilities.
  5. Adjust for phenotype probabilities based on genotype-phenotype relationship or additional information.
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46
Q

Monohybrid Cross with Complete Dominance Refresher - Know the genotype and phenotype ratios

A

In a monohybrid cross with complete dominance, where one allele completely masks the effect of the other allele, the genotype and phenotype ratios in the offspring are predictable.

Genotype ratio:
- 1 homozygous dominant : 2 heterozygous : 1 homozygous recessive

Phenotype ratio:
- 3 individuals showing the dominant phenotype : 1 individual showing the recessive phenotype

This ratio follows the Mendelian principles of inheritance, specifically the law of segregation and complete dominance, where the dominant allele masks the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals.

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47
Q

Refresh genes, alleles, central dogma, and mutation

A

Genes: DNA segments with instructions for traits.
Alleles: Different gene versions.
Central Dogma: DNA to RNA to protein flow.
Mutation: DNA sequence change.

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48
Q

Understand how genotype produces phenotype in terms of protein function - Biallelic expression - Loss of function (lof) vs. gain of function (gof) mutants

A

Genotype to Protein: Genes (genotype) encode instructions for protein synthesis. Through transcription and translation, mRNA is produced and translated into proteins.Protein Function: Proteins perform various functions in the cell, such as enzymatic activity, structural support, or signaling. The specific function of a protein determines the phenotype.Biallelic Expression: In biallelic expression, both alleles contribute to the phenotype. If one allele is mutated (e.g., LOF or GOF), it affects protein function and thus the phenotype.Loss of Function (LOF) Mutants: LOF mutations result in a protein with reduced or abolished function. This can occur through various mechanisms such as premature stop codons, altered protein folding, or disrupted binding sites. As a result, the phenotype may show a loss or reduction of the protein’s normal function.Gain of Function (GOF) Mutants: GOF mutations lead to a protein with new or enhanced functions. This can arise from mutations that increase protein activity, alter protein interactions, or confer novel properties. GOF mutations can result in abnormal phenotypes due to the altered protein function.

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49
Q

monohybrid

A

A monohybrid refers to a genetic cross involving only one trait, typically governed by one gene with two different alleles. In a monohybrid cross, individuals with different alleles for the same gene are crossed to study the inheritance pattern of that specific trait.

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50
Q

mutant/variant

A

“Mutant” and “variant” are terms used in genetics to describe alterations or differences in the DNA sequence compared to a reference or wild-type sequence.

  • Mutant: A mutant refers to an organism or cell with a genetic mutation, which is a permanent change in the DNA sequence. Mutations can arise spontaneously or be induced by external factors like radiation or chemicals. Mutations can result in changes to an organism’s traits or characteristics.
  • Variant: A variant refers to a version or form of a gene or DNA sequence that differs from the reference or wild-type sequence found in most individuals of a species. Variants can be natural variations within a population or population-specific differences. Variants may or may not have a discernible effect on phenotype, and they can be benign or pathogenic depending on their impact on protein function or gene regulation.
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51
Q

silent mutation

A

A silent mutation is a DNA change that doesn’t alter the amino acid sequence of a protein.

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52
Q

missense mutation

A

A missense mutation is a type of mutation that occurs in a DNA sequence, resulting in the substitution of one amino acid for another in the corresponding protein. Unlike silent mutations, which do not change the amino acid sequence, missense mutations lead to the production of a protein with a different amino acid at one position. Depending on the specific amino acid change and its location within the protein, missense mutations can have varying effects on protein structure and function. They can range from being benign with little or no effect to causing significant alterations in protein activity or stability, potentially leading to changes in the phenotype of the organism.

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53
Q

nonsense mutation

A

A nonsense mutation is a type of mutation that occurs in a DNA sequence, resulting in the premature termination of protein synthesis. This happens when a codon that normally codes for an amino acid is changed to a stop codon (e.g., UAA, UAG, or UGA). As a result, translation of the mRNA molecule is terminated prematurely, leading to the production of a truncated, nonfunctional protein. Nonsense mutations often result in loss of protein function and can lead to genetic disorders or diseases, depending on the specific gene affected and its role in cellular processes.

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54
Q

Understand how to determine complete vs. incomplete vs. co-dominance
* Which genotype’s phenotype matters??

A

Determining complete vs. incomplete vs. co-dominance involves understanding how alleles interact:

  • Complete dominance: Only the dominant allele’s phenotype matters.
  • Incomplete dominance: Phenotype is a blend of both alleles.
  • Co-dominance: Both alleles’ phenotypes are expressed equally.
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55
Q

Connect protein function to incomplete and co-dominance

A

In incomplete dominance and co-dominance:
- Incomplete: Heterozygotes show an intermediate phenotype, suggesting partial protein function from both alleles.
- Co-dominance: Heterozygotes express both alleles fully, indicating separate and simultaneous protein functions.

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56
Q

Understand what multiple allelism is and why it might result in more than one dominance rule used for alleles

A

Multiple allelism: Presence of more than two alleles for a gene.
Results in varied dominance rules due to specific interactions between alleles.

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57
Q

Know the difference between autosomes vs. sex chromosomes as well as autosomal genes vs. sex-linked genes

A

Autosomes vs. Sex Chromosomes:
- Autosomes: Non-sex determining chromosomes (pairs 1 to 22).
- Sex Chromosomes: Determine an individual’s sex (X and Y in humans).

Autosomal Genes vs. Sex-linked Genes:
- Autosomal Genes: Located on autosomes, follow Mendelian inheritance.
- Sex-linked Genes: Located on sex chromosomes, show different inheritance patterns between males and females.

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58
Q

Know that X and Y chromosomes, despite having PAR, are not called homologous

A
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59
Q

Describe pleiotropy

A

Pleiotropy is a phenomenon in genetics where a single gene affects multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. In other words, a mutation in one gene can lead to the expression of multiple phenotypic characteristics, which may appear unrelated at first glance. This can occur because genes often code for proteins with multiple functions or are involved in multiple biochemical pathways within the cell. Pleiotropy can have significant implications for the understanding of genetic disorders and the development of traits in organisms.

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60
Q

multiple allelism (multiple alleles),

A

Multiple allelism: Presence of more than two allelic forms of a gene in a population.

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61
Q

sex-linked gene

A

Sex-linked gene: Gene located on the sex chromosomes, exhibiting different inheritance patterns between males and females.

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62
Q

pseudoautosomal region (PAR)

A

Pseudoautosomal regions (PARs) are specific regions of the X and Y chromosomes that share homologous sequences and undergo recombination during meiosis. These regions are termed “pseudoautosomal” because they behave like autosomes in terms of recombination, despite being located on sex chromosomes. PARs are essential for the proper pairing and segregation of the X and Y chromosomes during meiosis, ensuring accurate transmission of genetic information. Recombination in PARs allows for the exchange of genetic material between the X and Y chromosomes, contributing to genetic diversity.

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63
Q

pleiotropy

A

Pleiotropy refers to a genetic phenomenon where a single gene influences multiple, seemingly unrelated traits or phenotypes. In other words, a mutation in a single gene can have effects on multiple aspects of an organism’s phenotype. This can occur because genes often play roles in multiple biochemical pathways or have diverse functions within cells or organisms. Pleiotropy is an important concept in genetics and can have significant implications for understanding the genetic basis of complex traits and diseases.

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64
Q

Be able to connect protein function to incomplete or codominance

A

In incomplete dominance and co-dominance:
- Incomplete: Heterozygotes show partial protein function, leading to an intermediate phenotype.
- Co-dominance: Both alleles produce functional proteins with distinct properties, resulting in simultaneous expression of both phenotypes.

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65
Q

Be able to identify dominance rules for a gene with multiple allelism and the interaction between two alleles for a gene with multiple allelism

A

In multiple allelism:
- Complete dominance: One allele fully masks others.
- Incomplete dominance: Alleles blend in heterozygotes.
- Co-dominance: Multiple alleles are equally dominant, fully expressed.

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66
Q

Determine if a gene is sex-linked based on relevant information (like ratios according to
sex)

A
  • Sex-linked genes are located on the sex chromosomes, X and Y.
  • In humans, females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).
  • To determine if a gene is sex-linked, examine the inheritance pattern in offspring. Look for differences in ratios between males and females.
  • If a gene is located on the X chromosome and shows a different inheritance pattern in males and females, it is likely sex-linked.
  • Inheritance patterns of sex-linked genes often result in different ratios between males and females in a population.
  • For example, in X-linked recessive traits, males are more commonly affected because they have only one X chromosome. Females need two copies of the recessive allele to express the trait.
  • Conversely, X-linked dominant traits may affect both males and females, but males often show more severe symptoms since they only have one X chromosome.
  • Y-linked traits are passed from fathers to sons and are typically rare because the Y chromosome is much smaller and carries fewer genes compared to the X chromosome.
  • Analyzing pedigree charts and observing the pattern of inheritance across generations can also help determine if a gene is sex-linked.
  • Genetic testing and molecular techniques can provide definitive evidence of whether a gene is sex-linked by identifying its location on the sex chromosomes.
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67
Q

Understand how to use independent assortment to produce gametes when considering 2 genes on different chromosomes

A
  • Independent assortment is a principle of genetics stating that alleles of different genes segregate independently during the formation of gametes.
  • When considering two genes located on different chromosomes, their alleles assort independently of each other during gamete formation.
  • This means that the inheritance of one gene does not influence the inheritance of the other gene.
  • During meiosis, homologous chromosomes segregate independently into daughter cells, resulting in a random assortment of alleles from different genes into gametes.
  • The number of possible gamete combinations is determined by the number of chromosome pairs undergoing independent assortment.
  • For example, if an individual is heterozygous (AaBb) for two genes located on different chromosomes, independent assortment results in four different gamete combinations: AB, Ab, aB, and ab.
  • The principle of independent assortment contributes to genetic variation within populations by generating diverse combinations of alleles in gametes.
  • This process allows for the creation of unique genotypes in offspring, enhancing genetic diversity and adaptability within a population.
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68
Q

Calculate frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in offspring in crosses with >1 gene

A
  1. Identify the parental genotypes: Determine the genotypes of the parents for each gene involved in the cross.
  2. Determine the possible gametes: List all possible gametes that each parent can produce for each gene.
  3. Construct a Punnett square or use probability calculations: For each gene, create a Punnett square or use probability calculations to determine the genotypic and phenotypic ratios in the offspring.
  4. Combine results for multiple genes: If there are multiple genes involved, combine the results from each gene to determine the overall frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring.
  5. Calculate frequencies: Count the number of each genotype and phenotype in the offspring and calculate their frequencies by dividing the count by the total number of offspring.
  6. Consider linkage and recombination: If the genes are on the same chromosome and are linked, consider the possibility of recombination events affecting the genotypic and phenotypic ratios.
  7. Interpret the results: Analyze the frequencies to determine the expected distribution of genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring population.
  8. Compare with observed data: Compare the calculated frequencies with observed data from experiments or real-world populations to validate the predictions.
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69
Q

Skills: Making gametes, Punnetts, “and/or” probability rules, forkline if you like

A
  1. Making Gametes:
    • For each parent, determine all possible gametes they can produce based on their genotype.
    • If the parent is heterozygous (Aa), they can produce two types of gametes, each carrying one allele (A or a).
    • If the parent is homozygous (AA or aa), they produce only one type of gamete, carrying the same allele.
  2. Punnett Squares:
    • Use Punnett squares to predict the genotypic outcomes of offspring from a cross.
    • Place the possible gametes from one parent along the top of the square and the possible gametes from the other parent along the side.
    • Fill in the squares with combinations of gametes to determine the genotypes of the offspring.
  3. Probability Rules:
    • Apply probability rules to determine the likelihood of each genotype in the offspring.
    • Use the “and” rule: Multiply the probabilities of independent events to find the probability of both events occurring.
    • Use the “or” rule: Add the probabilities of mutually exclusive events to find the probability of either event occurring.
  4. Forkline Method:
    • The forkline method is a visual representation of the gamete combinations and their probabilities.
    • Draw lines representing the possible gametes from each parent and label them with the corresponding alleles.
    • Use branches to show all possible combinations of gametes and calculate the probability of each genotype in the offspring.
  5. Combining Skills:
    • Use a combination of making gametes, Punnett squares, probability rules, and the forkline method to calculate frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in offspring.
    • Consider the inheritance patterns of each gene and whether they are linked or independent to make accurate predictions.

By employing these skills together, you can effectively analyze and predict the outcomes of crosses involving multiple genes and calculate the frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring.

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70
Q

Understand linked genes do not independently assort and the consequences

A

Linked Genes:
- Linked genes are located on the same chromosome.
- They don’t independently assort during meiosis.

Consequences:
- Linked genes violate Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
- Offspring often inherit linked genes together, deviating from expected genetic ratios.
- This phenomenon, known as genetic linkage, affects genetic diversity and inheritance patterns.
- Understanding linked genes is crucial for accurate predictions in genetics.

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71
Q

Understand recombinant gametes for linked genes form at <50%

A
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72
Q

Calculate how far apart 2 genes are in cM

A

To calculate the distance between two genes in centimorgans (cM):Perform a cross.Count the number of recombinant offspring.Divide the number of recombinant offspring by the total offspring and multiply by 100.For example, if 20 out of 200 offspring are recombinant, the distance is (20/200)×100=10(20/200) \times 100 = 10(20/200)×100=10 cM.

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73
Q

Understand genes on the same chromosome can behave as if independently assorting if
greater than or equal to 50cM apart

A
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74
Q

Be able to determine cis/trans arrangement of alleles in the heterozygous parent in a
test cross for linkage

A
  1. Understand Cis and Trans Arrangements:
    • In a cis arrangement, alleles of two linked genes are on the same chromosome and stay together during meiosis and gamete formation.
    • In a trans arrangement, alleles of two linked genes are on different chromosomes or are far apart on the same chromosome and can segregate independently during meiosis.
  2. Perform a Test Cross:
    • Cross the heterozygous individual (AaBb) with a homozygous recessive individual (aabb).
  3. Analyze the Offspring:
    • Examine the phenotypes of the offspring resulting from the test cross.
    • If the alleles of the two genes are in cis arrangement in the heterozygous parent, the gametes produced will carry either the dominant alleles (AB) or the recessive alleles (ab).
    • If the alleles are in trans arrangement, the gametes produced will be Ab and aB.
  4. Observe the Progeny Ratios:
    • If the linked genes are in cis arrangement in the heterozygous parent, the offspring will exhibit non-parental phenotypes at a low frequency.
    • If the linked genes are in trans arrangement, the offspring will exhibit non-parental phenotypes at a higher frequency.
  5. Interpret the Results:
    • A higher frequency of non-parental phenotypes suggests a trans arrangement, while a lower frequency suggests a cis arrangement.
    • The ratio of parental to non-parental phenotypes can provide insight into the linkage arrangement of the alleles.
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75
Q

Determine the relative position of genes on chromosomes based on the frequency of
genetic recombination

A

The relative position of genes on chromosomes is determined by the frequency of genetic recombination. Genes that are closer together on a chromosome tend to have lower rates of recombination, while genes further apart exhibit higher rates. This principle, known as genetic linkage, allows researchers to estimate gene distances based on recombination frequencies, providing insights into chromosome structure and inheritance patterns.

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76
Q

linked gene

A

A linked gene refers to genes located on the same chromosome, often inherited together due to their physical proximity and tendency to be passed on as a unit during meiosis.

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77
Q

linkage

A

Linkage refers to the tendency of genes located close together on the same chromosome to be inherited together as a unit, rather than independently assorting during meiosis.

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78
Q

centimorgan (cM)

A

A centimorgan (cM) is a unit of measure used to quantify the relative distance between genes on a chromosome based on the frequency of genetic recombination between them during meiosis. It represents a 1% chance of recombination occurring between two loci on average.

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79
Q

map unit

A

A map unit, also known as a centimorgan (cM), is a measurement unit used in genetics to quantify the distance between two genes on a chromosome. One map unit is equivalent to a 1% chance of genetic recombination occurring between two loci during meiosis.

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80
Q

recombinant/recombination frequency

A

Recombinant frequency, also known as recombination frequency, refers to the proportion of offspring that display new combinations of alleles compared to the parental generation during genetic recombination. It is typically expressed as a percentage or a fraction and is used to estimate the distance between genes on a chromosome.

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81
Q

Be able to calculate probabilities with mixed rules (ex: complete dominance in one gene and incomplete dominance in a different gene)

A

Here are the key steps to calculate probabilities with mixed rules (e.g. complete dominance for one gene and incomplete dominance for another gene):

1) Assign genotypic symbols for each gene/trait
- For complete dominance: Capital letter (A) = dominant, lowercase (a) = recessive
- For incomplete dominance: Capital letters represent different alleles (C, c)

2) Determine parental genotypes and gamete formation
- Complete dominance: Aa will form A and a gametes
- Incomplete dominance: Cc will form C and c gametes

3) Set up a Punnett square combining all possible gamete combinations

4) Fill in genotypes in the Punnett square boxes based on the assigned symbols

5) Identify the phenotypic ratios for each trait based on dominance relationships
- Complete: 3:1 ratio if one parent is heterozygous
- Incomplete: 1:2:1 ratio if parents are heterozygous

6) Calculate probability by counting genotype numbers and dividing by total

This allows you to predict genotypic and phenotypic ratios when working with mixed dominance rules for different genes in a single cross.

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82
Q

Be able to set up a test cross for linkage and/or look at a test cross result and decide if
the genes are linked, calculate distance in cM, and also be able to tell if the alleles for
the linked genes are in cis or trans

A

Here are the key steps to set up a test cross for linkage, analyze the results, calculate map distance in centiMorgans (cM), and determine if linked alleles are in cis or trans configuration:

Setting up a test cross:
- Cross an individual with unknown genotype (doubly heterozygous) to a homozygous recessive individual
- Example: AaBb x aabb

Analyzing results:
- If genes are unlinked (on different chromosomes), you’ll see 1:1:1:1 ratio of parental types:non-parental types
- If genes are linked, the parental types will be more frequent than non-parental types

Calculating map distance:
- Map distance in cM = (# recombinant offspring / total offspring) x 100
- More recombinants = greater distance between genes on chromosome

Determining cis vs trans:
- Cis = Linked alleles on the same chromosome
- Trans = Linked alleles on different homologous chromosomes
- If parental genotypes are more frequent than recombinants, alleles are in cis
- If recombinant genotypes are more frequent, alleles are in trans

So by setting up a testcross, you can detect linkage, quantify it by map distance, and discern whether linked alleles started on the same or different homologous chromosomes.

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83
Q

Understand some traits are controlled by multiple genes – call them multigene traits
 understand difference between 1 gene = 1 trait, 1 gene = >1 trait (pleiotropy), 2 gene =
2 trait (same as 1 gene =1 trait), vs. 2+ gene = 1 trait (multigene trait)

A

Got it, here’s an overview of the different gene-to-trait relationships:

1 gene = 1 trait
- Classic Mendelian inheritance pattern
- One gene controls one phenotypic trait
- Example: Pea plant height controlled by one gene (TT or Tt = tall, tt = short)

1 gene = >1 trait (pleiotropy)
- One gene influences multiple phenotypic traits
- Example: Sickle-cell anemia gene affects red blood cell shape and ability to carry oxygen

2 genes = 2 traits (same as 1 gene = 1 trait)
- Each gene controls a different single trait
- Traits assorted independently in inheritance

2+ genes = 1 trait (multigene or polygenic traits)
- Multiple genes contribute to and influence a single phenotypic trait
- Genes have additive effects or interact in complex ways
- Example: Human height, skin color influenced by many genes

Key Differences:
- Multigene traits controlled by several genes, not a single gene
- Effects are additive or showing complex interactions
- Don’t follow simple Mendelian inheritance patterns

Understanding these distinctions is important for interpreting trait inheritance patterns beyond just single gene traits.

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84
Q

Describe a quantitative trait (one type of one trait being controlled by multiple genes)
 Know the difference between a discrete and continuous trait.
 No punnetts or probability involved - just be able to tell given description of
scenario if it is describing a quantitative trait (like the question on the do you
understand)

A

A quantitative trait is a characteristic influenced by multiple genes, resulting in a wide range of phenotypic variations. It could be something like height or weight in humans. Discrete traits have distinct categories, like eye color (blue, brown, green), while continuous traits exist on a spectrum, like height or weight. So, if the trait can vary across a spectrum rather than falling into distinct categories, it’s likely a quantitative trait.

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85
Q

Describe recessive epistasis (subtype of multigene; also called gene interaction)

A

Recessive epistasis occurs when the presence of one gene masks the expression of another gene at a different locus. In this case, the allele of one gene (the epistatic gene) completely suppresses the expression of alleles of another gene (the hypostatic gene). This often results in a 9:3:4 phenotypic ratio in the offspring when two genes are involved in a dihybrid cross. An example would be the coat color in Labrador retrievers, where the presence of a specific allele in one gene masks the expression of alleles in another gene controlling coat color.

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86
Q

Describe dominant epistasis(subtype of multigene; also called gene interaction)

A

Dominant epistasis occurs when the presence of one allele of a gene masks the expression of alleles at a different locus, regardless of whether the allele is dominant or recessive. In other words, the dominant allele of one gene suppresses the expression of alleles of another gene. An example is the coat color in squash plants, where the presence of a dominant allele at one gene locus masks the expression of alleles at another gene locus controlling pigment production.

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87
Q

Describe complementary gene action(subtype of multigene; also called gene
interaction)

A

Complementary gene action occurs when two different genes work together to produce a specific phenotype. In this interaction, both genes need to contribute a functional allele for the trait to be expressed. However, the presence of either gene alone is not sufficient to produce the phenotype. An example is the flower color in sweet peas, where one gene controls the production of pigment and another gene controls the production of an enzyme required for pigment synthesis. Only when both functional alleles are present can the flower exhibit the desired color.

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88
Q

Explain how environmental effects influence phenotypes
o Understand how the environment can affect protein production (central dogma)
or protein function/activity to impact phenotypes though genotypes are the
same
o No probability problems. Just scenario given and you tell me it must be an
environmental effect (like the question on the do you understand).

A

Environmental effects can influence phenotypes in several ways. For example, environmental factors can affect the expression of genes involved in protein production, leading to differences in protein abundance or activity. Additionally, environmental conditions such as temperature, pH, and nutrient availability can directly impact protein folding and function. Even if individuals have the same genotype, differences in their environments can lead to variations in phenotype due to these environmental influences on gene expression and protein function.

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89
Q

multi-genic trait (big umbrella term for 2 genes = 1 trait)

A

A multi-genic trait, also known as a polygenic trait, refers to a characteristic that is controlled by the combined action of multiple genes. These genes often interact in complex ways to produce the phenotype. Traits such as height, weight, skin color, and intelligence are examples of polygenic traits in humans. Unlike traits controlled by a single gene (monogenic traits), polygenic traits exhibit a continuous range of variation rather than distinct categories.

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90
Q

epistasis

A

Epistasis is a genetic phenomenon where the expression of one gene masks or modifies the expression of another gene at a different locus. This interaction can result in unexpected phenotypic ratios in offspring. There are different types of epistasis, including dominant and recessive epistasis, where one gene suppresses the expression of another gene’s alleles. Epistasis plays a significant role in shaping the inheritance patterns of traits in various organisms.

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91
Q

Understand how multigene traits might present themselves phenotypically and
genotypically

A

Multigene traits can present themselves phenotypically in a variety of ways due to the complex interactions between multiple genes. Phenotypes of multigene traits often exhibit continuous variation, meaning they fall along a spectrum rather than distinct categories. This results in a wide range of phenotypic expressions within a population. For example, in the case of human height, multiple genes contribute to the overall height of an individual, leading to a continuous distribution of heights ranging from short to tall. Similarly, traits such as skin color, intelligence, and susceptibility to diseases are influenced by the combined effects of multiple genes and environmental factors, resulting in a spectrum of phenotypic variations.

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92
Q

Be able to deduce if epistasis is occurring. Need to know the genotype and phenotype
ratios of dihybrid for epistasis:
a. Recessive epistasis - 9:3:4
b. Dominant epistasis – 12:3:1
c. Complementary genes – 9:7

A
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93
Q

Be able to identify the dominant and recessive alleles in the non-epistatic gene

A

In the context of identifying dominant and recessive alleles in a non-epistatic gene, it’s important to recognize that the non-epistatic gene is the gene whose expression is affected by the epistatic gene.

Let’s consider a hypothetical scenario where Gene A is the epistatic gene and Gene B is the non-epistatic gene. If Gene A is dominant, it will mask the expression of Gene B. In this case, the dominant allele of Gene A will prevent the expression of the alleles of Gene B. Therefore, the alleles of Gene B that are unaffected by the dominant allele of Gene A will be expressed, and those are the alleles we can identify as dominant or recessive based on their interaction.

For example:
- If the dominant allele of Gene A is present (AA or Aa), then regardless of the alleles of Gene B, the phenotype controlled by Gene B will not be expressed.
- If the recessive allele of Gene A is present (aa), then the phenotype controlled by Gene B will be expressed based on its own dominant and recessive alleles.

So, in this scenario, we can identify the dominant and recessive alleles of Gene B based on their expression when Gene A is recessive.

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94
Q

Be able to identify the epistatic gene

A

Identifying the epistatic gene involves recognizing which gene’s alleles have the overriding influence on the expression of another gene’s alleles. In other words, it’s the gene whose alleles mask or modify the expression of alleles of another gene at a different locus.

To identify the epistatic gene:
1. Look for the gene whose alleles suppress or modify the expression of alleles of another gene.
2. Determine if the presence of certain alleles of this gene alters the expected phenotypic ratio based on Mendelian inheritance patterns.
3. In a genetic cross, observe which gene’s alleles dominate in determining the phenotype of the offspring, even when alleles of another gene are present.

Once you’ve identified the gene whose alleles exert this overriding influence, you’ve found the epistatic gene in the genetic interaction.

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95
Q

Understand how to determine the mode of inheritance using a pedigree: autosomal
dom, autosomal recessive, X-link dom, X-link recessive

A

Determining the mode of inheritance using a pedigree involves analyzing patterns of inheritance within a family tree. Here’s how you can identify different modes of inheritance:

  1. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance:
    • In an autosomal dominant pedigree, affected individuals typically have an affected parent.
    • The trait usually appears in every generation.
    • Affected individuals have at least one affected parent.
    • Both males and females are affected with equal frequency.
    • If one parent is affected (heterozygous), there is a 50% chance of passing the trait to each child.
    • A vertical pattern of inheritance is observed.
  2. Autosomal Recessive Inheritance:
    • In an autosomal recessive pedigree, affected individuals may have unaffected parents.
    • The trait may skip generations.
    • Affected individuals often have unaffected parents who are carriers.
    • Males and females are equally affected.
    • If both parents are carriers, there is a 25% chance of having an affected child.
    • Consanguineous (related) matings increase the likelihood of autosomal recessive inheritance.
  3. X-linked Dominant Inheritance:
    • In an X-linked dominant pedigree, affected males pass the trait to all their daughters but not to their sons.
    • Affected females pass the trait to both sons and daughters.
    • Every affected individual has an affected parent.
    • There is no male-to-male transmission.
    • Affected males typically have unaffected fathers and affected mothers (if the mother is affected, all daughters will also be affected).
  4. X-linked Recessive Inheritance:
    • In an X-linked recessive pedigree, affected males usually have unaffected parents.
    • The trait skips generations.
    • Affected males are usually born to unaffected carrier mothers.
    • Affected females are usually born to carrier mothers and affected fathers.
    • All daughters of affected fathers are carriers, but no sons are affected.
    • Males are more frequently affected than females.

By examining these patterns within a pedigree, you can determine the mode of inheritance for a particular trait.

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96
Q

Make sure you know and stick to the order of questions to ask yourself when solving
pedigrees.
a. Always dominant or recessive first
b. Then ask is it X-linked

A
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96
Q

Remember you are looking for the MOST LIKELY inheritance mode. NOT any possibility.

A
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96
Q

Understand the sheer scale and size of the human genome – 3 billion bases.

A
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97
Q

Understand most of the human genome is non-coding 98.5% while only 1.5% is coding
(gene sequences)

A
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98
Q

Describe Genome-Wide Association Studies

A

GWAS, or Genome-Wide Association Studies, are research methods used to find genetic variations linked with specific traits or diseases across an entire genome. Researchers collect DNA samples from many individuals, both affected and unaffected, then compare the genetic differences between them to identify associations with the trait or disease being studied. By analyzing millions of genetic markers, researchers can pinpoint regions of the genome associated with the trait or disease. GWAS have been crucial in understanding the genetic basis of various conditions and traits, from diabetes to height.

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99
Q

Apply linkage to understand how genome wide association studies can be used to
identify genes associated with phenotypes
o Understand why a SNP associates with a phenotype because of linkage
o Understand that crossing over breaks apart associations for far apart SNPs and
phenotypes

A

In GWAS, linkage refers to the tendency of nearby genetic markers (like SNPs) to be inherited together. SNPs close to genes affecting traits are more likely to be inherited with those genes. Crossing over during meiosis can break apart associations between distant SNPs and traits by shuffling genetic material.

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100
Q

Understand that an associated SNP is not necessarily a mutation within a gene but can
be in a non-coding region.
o The associating SNP is simply traveling with some nearby gene that causes the
phenotype just because it is linked.

A
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101
Q

genome

A

The genome refers to the complete set of genetic material (DNA) present in an organism. It includes all the genes, as well as non-coding sequences, within the chromosomes of an organism. The genome contains the instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of the organism. In humans, the genome consists of approximately 3 billion base pairs of DNA organized into 23 pairs of chromosomes.

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102
Q

GWAS

A

GWAS stands for Genome-Wide Association Studies. These studies analyze genetic variations across the entire genome to identify associations between specific genetic variants (such as SNPs) and traits or diseases. GWAS have been instrumental in understanding the genetic basis of complex traits and diseases, from height and weight to diabetes and cancer. They help researchers pinpoint regions of the genome that may influence particular traits or diseases, offering insights into potential biological mechanisms and targets for further investigation and treatment.

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103
Q

non-coding

A

Non-coding DNA refers to regions of the genome that do not contain instructions for producing proteins. While coding DNA contains genes that encode proteins, non-coding DNA does not directly produce proteins but still plays important roles in gene regulation, chromosome structure, and other cellular processes. Non-coding DNA includes regulatory sequences, such as promoters and enhancers, as well as structural elements like telomeres and centromeres. Despite not coding for proteins, non-coding DNA is crucial for the proper functioning and regulation of genes within the genome.

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104
Q

coding

A

Coding DNA, also known as exons, refers to the regions of the genome that contain the instructions for producing proteins. These sequences are transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) during the process of gene expression and are subsequently translated into amino acids, which then form proteins. Coding DNA is characterized by the presence of open reading frames (ORFs) that can be translated into functional protein sequences. Mutations in coding DNA can lead to changes in the amino acid sequence of proteins, potentially altering their structure and function, and contributing to genetic diseases or variations in traits.

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105
Q

The ploidy of a cell

A

is the number of
complete genomes in a cell. We represent
this with n, 2n, 3n, 4n, etc

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106
Q

Haploid number

A

is the number of
chromosomes in one genome

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107
Q

Diploid means

A

two complete genomes or
two complete sets of chromosomes

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108
Q

When we have more
than one complete
genome, we will have
homologs

A
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109
Q

Homologous chromosomes can have different alleles for any given gene.
They can also have the same alleles for a given gene.

A
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110
Q

Homologs are not identical
especially when you consider all
the genes! Same genes at
everyone position but may have
different alleles for each gene

A
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111
Q

Germ cells

A

cells in ovaries and testes that
create gametes

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112
Q

Gametes

A

sex cells (egg/sperm)

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113
Q

Somatic cells

A

cells in all other areas of
body (arise when zygote grows and
develops through mitotic division)

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114
Q

Germ cells need a special division process
to reduce ploidy to create haploid
gametes from diploid germ cell. MEIOSIS!

A
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115
Q

Meiosis I goal:

A

separate every homologous chromosome – we stick
homologs together, align, and separate them

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116
Q

Meiosis II goal

A

one duplicate (sister) in each cell – basically mitosis to
separate sisters in meiosis II

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117
Q

Interphase

A

Uncondensed
chromosomes replicate in
parent cell (2n germ cell)

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118
Q

Prophase I (early)

A

Nuclear envelope begins to break down
* Chromosomes condense
* The spindle apparatus begins to form
* The homolog pairs come together in a pairing process
called synapsis
* The structure that results from synapsis is called a
bivalent, consisting of two homologs
* The chromatids of the homologs are called non-sister
chromatids

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119
Q

Prophase I (late):

A
  • Synaptonemal complex removed
  • Homologs remain attached at chiasmata
  • Exchange or crossing over between
    homologous non-sister chromatids occurs
  • Produces chromosomes with a combination of
    maternal and paternal alleles
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120
Q

Metaphase I:

A
  • The paired homologs line up at the
    metaphase plate
  • Alignment of the homologs is random:
    maternal and paternal chromosomes
    can be on either side of the metaphase
    plate
121
Q

Anaphase I:

A
  • Homologous pairs of chromosomes are
    separated (break chiasmata)
  • of each pair one chromosome
    (consisting of two chromatids) moves
    to one pole, while the other moves to
    the other pole
122
Q

Telophase I:

A
  • the homologs finish migrating to the
    poles of the cell
  • Then the cell divides in the process of
    cytokinesis
    PLOIDY HAS BEEN REDUCED! (Reductive
    division)
123
Q

Meiosis INCREASES genetic variation – independent
assortment

A

Independent Assortment:
* In previous example, with just 2 chromosome pairs, we saw the
chromosomes could line up in two different ways
* This resulted in 22 = 4 different gametes
* In humans, 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes
* Paternal and maternal chromosomes line up on different sides
of the metaphase plate during metaphase I independently
* This creates: 223 = 8.4 million possible combinations of
maternal and paternal chromosomes

124
Q

1 nucleosome is an
Octamer (8) of histone proteins.
There are 8 histone proteins
in one nucleosome

A

DNA associated with nucleosomes (histones) is called chromatin

125
Q

In prophase I:

A

DNA ”condenses”

126
Q
  1. After meiosis I, the ploidy of the
    resulting cells will be ___. Assume the
    starting cell is 2n
A

n

127
Q

the difference between sister chromatids and homologous
chromosomes

A

Sister chromatids:

Two identical copies of the same chromosome
Joined together at the centromere
Result from DNA replication during the S phase
Separate during anaphase of mitosis or meiosis II

Homologous chromosomes:

One chromosome from each parent
Contain the same genes but may have different versions (alleles)
Pair up and exchange genetic material during meiosis I
Separate during anaphase I of meiosis

128
Q

what clues/information tells you if drawings are sisters, homologous,
or non-homologous

A

Sisters:

Identical banding patterns
Same length and centromere position
Originate from the same parental pair of homologous chromosomes

Homologous chromosomes:

Similar banding patterns
Same length and centromere position
Carry genes for the same traits (one from each parent)
Can form a bivalent during meiosis

Non-homologous chromosomes:

Distinct banding patterns
Different lengths and centromere positions
Carry genes for different traits
Cannot form bivalents during meiosis

Clues:

Look for similarities in banding patterns, length, and centromere position
Chromosomes with identical patterns and features are sisters
Chromosomes with similar (but not identical) patterns and features are homologous
Chromosomes with distinct patterns and features are non-homologous

129
Q

what ploidy is, how to determine if a cell is 2n or n, and what
phase of meiosis causes cells to go from 2n to n

A

Ploidy:

Diploid (2n): Cells with two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent)
Haploid (n): Cells with a single set of chromosomes

Determining 2n or n:

Count the number of distinct chromosomes (non-homologous pairs)
If there are two copies of each chromosome, it’s diploid (2n)
If there’s only one copy of each chromosome, it’s haploid (n)

Phase of meiosis that causes 2n to n transition:

Meiosis I
Specifically, during Anaphase I
Homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in two haploid (n) daughter cells

Steps:

Diploid (2n) cell undergoes meiosis
During Metaphase I, homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
In Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate, and each daughter cell receives one chromosome from each homologous pair
Two haploid (n) daughter cells are produced after Meiosis I
These haploid cells undergo Meiosis II, resulting in a total of four haploid (n) cells

130
Q

describe chromatin and when it is uncondensed and
condensed

A

Chromatin:

Chromatin is the complex of DNA and proteins (primarily histones) that makes up chromosomes.
It exists in two states: condensed and uncondensed.

Uncondensed Chromatin:

Also known as “euchromatin.”
The DNA is loosely packaged and extended.
It is the more accessible form of chromatin, allowing for transcription and other cellular processes.
Uncondensed chromatin is found during interphase (G1, S, and G2 phases) of the cell cycle.

Condensed Chromatin:

Also known as “heterochromatin.”
The DNA is tightly packaged and compacted.
It is less accessible for transcription and other processes.
Condensed chromatin is found during cell division (mitosis and meiosis).

During mitosis and meiosis, the chromatin goes through a cycle of condensation and decondensation:

Interphase: Chromatin is mostly uncondensed (euchromatin).
Prophase: Chromatin begins to condense into visible chromosomes (heterochromatin).
Metaphase: Chromatin is highly condensed, and chromosomes are at their most compact state.
Anaphase: Chromosomes remain condensed as they separate.
Telophase: Chromatin begins to decondense as the nuclear envelope reforms.
Interphase: Chromatin returns to its mostly uncondensed state (euchromatin).

131
Q

what happens in the phases of meiosis

A

Meiosis I:
Prophase I:

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
Homologous chromosomes pair up and form bivalents (tetrads)
Crossing over (genetic recombination) occurs between non-sister chromatids

Metaphase I:

Bivalents line up at the metaphase plate

Anaphase I:

Homologous chromosomes separate (leading to a reduction in chromosome number from 2n to n)
Sister chromatids remain together

Telophase I:

Separated chromosomes move to opposite poles
Nuclear membranes reform around each haploid set

Meiosis II (occurs in both daughter cells):
Prophase II:

No pairing or crossing over occurs

Metaphase II:

Chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate

Anaphase II:

Sister chromatids separate

Telophase II:

Separated chromatids (now individual chromosomes) move to opposite poles
Nuclear membranes form around each haploid set
Result is four haploid cells

Key events:

Meiosis I: Reduction division (2n to n)
Crossing over in Prophase I
Homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I
Meiosis II: Equational division
Sister chromatids separate in Anaphase II
Four haploid cells produced at the end

132
Q

Phenotype

A

is the observable trait/characteristic

133
Q

Genotype

A

is the combination of alleles an individual possesses for a
given gene

134
Q

Homozygous

A

means two of the same alleles for a gene are present

135
Q

Heterozygous

A

means two different alleles for a gene are present

136
Q

For a Mendelian trait:

A

There is _1___ trait controlled by __1___ gene.
*There are 2__ possible alleles.
There are __3
possible genotypes.
There are _2__ possible phenotypes

*There are very few TRULY Mendelian human traits. Even the earwax model is
not Mendelian in real life.

137
Q

Complete dominance is when one allele of a gene ______ (is/is not) sufficient to
produce the allele’s phenotype and masks the phenotype of the other allele

Mendelian traits always follow complete dominance

A

is

138
Q

IF Complete dominance rules are followed:
The phenotype that requires only _1__ allele(s) to be seen is the dominant allele
and phenotype.
The phenotype that requires _2__ of the same alleles to be seen is the recessive
allele and phenotype.
Which genotype is most useful if we know its phenotype for identifying the
dominant allele? - heterozygous
In a diploid individual, alleles for the same gene exist on homologous chromosomes

A
139
Q

Law of Independent Assortment

A

tetrads align randomly and independently
of other tetrads

140
Q

Does independent assortment change the
type of gametes formed if we consider only
the alleles for one gene?

A

No

141
Q

Are the gametes formed different if we
consider genes on different chromosomes?

A

Yes

142
Q

Crossing over

A

Homologous chromosomes recombine
in prophase I of meiosis.

143
Q

Does crossing over change the possible
gametes if we focused on just one gene?

A

No

144
Q

Are the gametes formed different after
crossing over if we consider all the genes?

A

Yes

145
Q

Law of Segregation

A

Alleles segregate into different
gametes by the end of meiosis.

146
Q

Does segregation matter in formation of
possible gametes if focused on just one gene?

A

Yes

147
Q

One gene Mendel-Meiosis connection summary

A

-In a diploid individual, alleles for a gene exist on homologous chromosomes.
-These two alleles separate into different gametes due to Law of Segregation.
When considering only ONE gene, we do not need to think about crossing-over or
independent assortment

These two processes still happen! but in terms of that one gene, the possible gametes
remain unchanged.
However, the gametes formed from crossing over and independent assortment
considering ALL chromosomes and genes are unique, we just won’t care until we consider
more than one gene.
One gene Mendel-Meiosis connection summary
24

148
Q

We can tell if two chromosomes are homologs if alleles are labeled on both
chromosomes.

A

T

149
Q

If we are given a tetrad without labeled alleles, we cannot conclude they are
homologous

A

F

150
Q

If a single trait is controlled by more than one gene, then it does not follow
Mendelian rules.

A

T

151
Q

DNA in cells is usually in the form of chromatin.

A

T

152
Q

Chromatin is most condensed in interphase

A

F

153
Q

If we know a gene follows complete dominance, the phenotype of which
individual tells us what is dominant.

A

heterozygous

154
Q

When we are thinking about the possible gametes that can form for ONE gene, we
do not need to think about crossing over and independent assortment.

A

T

155
Q

Simple probability rules

A

“and” means multiply probabilities
“or” means add probabilities

156
Q

What is the probability individual 1 passes down the A allele to an offspring?

A

50%

157
Q

What is the probability individual 2 passes down the A allele to an offspring?

A

100%

158
Q

What is the probability an offspring gets an A allele from individual 1 and individual
2?

A

1/2

159
Q

wild type’ allele or phenotype

A

is usually the
one most typically found in natural
populations. Usually functional allele.
*meaning of wt sometimes is used to mean
“standard” or “unmutated

159
Q

Reminder: The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology & Proteins

A
  • A gene is a sequence of DNA that
    encodes for a protein.
  • DNA sequence is transcribed to mRNA
  • Ribosomes translate mRNA to produce a
    sequence of amino acids (polypeptide)
    that fold into a unique protein structure
    *The function of the protein produces the
    observable phenotype
160
Q

What kind of ABCC11 protein could the mutant r allele produce?

A

a. a transporter that cannot transport cerumen components out of the cell
b. a transporter that cannot fold properly or go to the correct location
c. a transporter with a new function; it now transports different substances
(all of above are possible)

161
Q

Loss of function mutation abolishes protein function/activity.

A

Can be due to inability to produce protein like this example or protein
lacks ability to perform its activity (e.g. an enzyme that cannot bind its substrate)

162
Q

Sometimes the loss of function allele is
dominant!
In the case of PKD this is because:
a) two functional wt alleles of the PKD gene are required
b) one functional wt allele of the PKD gene does not produce enough protein for
healthy kidneys
c) Both A and B

A

c) Both A and B

163
Q

Gain of function mutants

A

Mutations that result in increased protein activity or that result in completely new protein
functions.
STAT3 is a signaling protein that
should be turned on and off
properly for normal immune
function.
stat3 gain of function mutant is
always on. Produces an
autoimmune disease
phenotype.
Which allele do you think would
be dominant?
a. wild type
b. Gain of function mutant allele (correct)

164
Q

A monohybrid cross is always the mating of two heterozygotes for one gene. T/F

A

T

165
Q

In a monohybrid cross that follows complete dominance, the genotype ratio will be __1HH:2Hh:1hh____ while
the phenotype ratio will be _3dom:1rec_____

A
166
Q

The phenotype produced by genotype depends on the function of the proteins produced by
alleles. T/F

A

T

167
Q

In a diploid organism that is heterozygous for the spooky gene, only the dominant allele is made
into a protein. T/F

A

F

168
Q

The wild type allele is always the dominant allele. T/F

A

F

169
Q

The normal/healthy phenotype is always the dominant phenotype. T/F

A

F

170
Q

Mutations can be only be loss of function. T/F

A

F

171
Q

Dominance describes allele relationships for a gene, not a gene. T/F

A

T

172
Q

If disease is caused by a loss of function mutant, we can assume the loss of function allele is
recessive. T/F

A

F

173
Q

Consider a gene with a wt and a loss of function (lof) allele. If two lof alleles are required for the
lof phenotype to be seen, then the wt allele dominant. T/F

A

T

174
Q

In co-dominance heterozygotes exhibit the phenotype of both alleles. T/F

A

T

175
Q

In incomplete dominance heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate phenotype. T/F

A

T

176
Q

3-5 For dragon skin texture, Dragon 1 is scaley and mates with Dragon 2 who is spikey. 100%
of their offspring have both scales and spikes.
3. Both dragon 1 and dragon 2 must be homozygotes. True or False
4. Scaley and spikey alleles are co-dominant. True or False
5. If we now crossed two offspring from Q3 with each other, what is the probability that
they produce offspring with skin that exhibits both scales and spikes? 0, 1/4, 1/2, 3/4, 1

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. 1/2
177
Q
  1. If we cross two parents that both have phenotype “1” for trait M controlled by one gene,
    which offspring result will tell us the parent genotypes were both heterozygous?
    a. 400 phenotype 1 : 200 phenotype 2 : 200 phenotype 3
    b. 600 phenotype 1 : 200 phenotype 2
    c. both
A

c. both

178
Q
  1. Assume the IA allele is the wild type allele. What type of mutant would we
    classify the transferase produced by the IB and i alleles?
A

IB GOF and i is LOF

179
Q

Multiple allelism

A

When there are more than two alleles for a gene in the population.

180
Q

Multiple allelism is required for co-dominance. T/F

A

F

181
Q
  1. If multiple alleles for a gene exist, there may be multiple dominance rules. T/F
A

T

182
Q

. Homologous chromosomes must
pair in meiosis I for meiosis to
occur properly.
a. True
b. False

A

True

183
Q
  1. For an XY individual, it is
    clear that Chrs 1-22 possess a
    homolog, but are X and Y
    homologous?
    a. Yes
    b. No
A

No

184
Q

Sex-linked Genes

A

The small homologous regions on the X and Y chromosome are called
Pseudoautosomal Regions (PAR).
Genes located outside the PARs on the X or Y chromosome are sex-
linked genes

185
Q

X-Linked Genes and Probability *Punnett
F8 is the gene associated with hemophilia disease. It is X-
linked recessive. **For X-linked traits, always follow
complete dominance in my class.
Hemophilia is a blood
clotting disorder – excessive
bleeding
6. What is the probability an XX individual with hemophilia mated
with an XY individual without hemophilia will have an XY child &
the child has hemophilia?
a. 0 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d.3/4 e. 1

A

1/2

186
Q

Fragile X syndrome is X-linked dominant. What is the probability given an XY is born that
an affected XY mated with an unaffected XX will have an affected child?

A

0

187
Q

What is the probability given an XX is born,
that an affected XY mated with an unaffected XX will have an affected child?

A

1

188
Q

Two different types of problems modeled:

A
  1. “Given XY born” – means we assume XY born so we do not need to
    include XY probability. We also modify the denominator (remove
    the XX).
  2. Probability of having an XY and this XY has (with) trait –
    means need to include chance of XY and chance of disease
189
Q

Pleiotropic gene example:

A

Hemoglobin gene –> Trait 1: malarial resistance, Trait 2: Sickle
Cell Anemia, Trait 3: blood cell shape

190
Q

If there are two alleles for a gene, and one allele is enough to produce the allele’s full phenotype, the
allelic relationship between the two alleles must be complete dominance. T/F

A

F

191
Q

If a gene exhibits multiple allelism, the alleles may have more than one set of allelic relationships. T/F

A

T

192
Q

Co-dominance cannot occur with only 2 possible alleles for a gene. T/F

A

F

193
Q

We can deduce dominance rules from genotypes. T/F

A

F

194
Q

X and Y chromosomes are not homologous but they can pair in meiosis. T/F

A

T

195
Q

All the genes are different between X and Y chromosomes. T/F

A

F

196
Q

When calculating probability with sex-linked traits, we need to consider the sex of parents and
offspring. T/F

A

T

197
Q

Gene P has two alleles. One allele produces peas with yellow color and the other allele produces peas
with green color. The P gene is pleiotropic. T/F

A

F

198
Q

Sex-linked traits can only be recessive. T/F

A

F

199
Q

The ABO gene for blood type is not pleiotropic, so we can conclude that blood type is Mendelian. T/F

A

F

200
Q

Dihybrid for independently assorting genes
will always give these genotype & phenotype ratios

A

9 R_Y_ dominant/dominant
3 R_yy dominant/recessive
3 rrY_ recessive/dominant
1 rryy recessive/recessive

201
Q

The consequence of independent assortment is that alleles for genes on different (non-homologous)
chromosomes go into gametes independently of each other. T/F

A

T

202
Q

If a gamete receives an allele for gene 1 (e.g. seed shape), it does not affect which allele of gene 2
(e.g. seed color) it can receive.. T/F

A

T

203
Q

The R allele for seed shape always goes into the same gamete as the Y allele for seed color. T/F

A

F

204
Q

Independent assortment “works” because the two genes are on different (non-homologous)
chromosomes. T/F

A

T

205
Q

In terms of JUST the combinations of R, r, Y, and y alleles,
crossing over:

A

A. does not affect our gamete possibilities

206
Q

Linkage

A

Because both genes physically on same chromosome, they are
inherited together NOT independently!

207
Q

Do we get as many gamete combinations with linked genes vs.
independent assorting genes? Y/N

A

N

208
Q

recombination frequency

A

recombination frequency gives us a relative idea of how far apart
genes are but does not equate to actual nucleotide distance.
recombination frequency is equal to the proportion of
recombinant gametes formed.

209
Q

For two linked genes, if xing over occurred every
meiosis, we will get 50% recombinant gametes.
So if we do not know the location of genes,
we can not tell the difference between
2 genes on 2 different chromosomes vs.
2 genes very far apart on the same chromosome à appear to ind. assort

A
210
Q

(total recombinants/total offspring) * 100

A

recombination frequency between two genes
is equal to the proportion of recombinant
offspring produced in a testcross

211
Q

cM

A

(centimorgans) are arbitrary
units that represent distance of
genes in terms of recombinant
frequency but not actual nucleotide
distance.

212
Q

Genes greater than or equal to 50cM apart will appear
to independently assort and be considered as ind.
assort
We cannot get greater than 50%
recombinant phenotype frequency in test
cross because in the absence of linkage we
expect ¼: ¼: ¼: ¼ phenotype ratio.
Even if genes are >50cM apart
the phenotype ratio will still
be ¼: ¼: ¼: ¼ in a test cross
and we could not know actually how far
apart genes that are 50cM or +
without looking at more genes in
between

A
213
Q

Recombinant gametes ARE RELATIVE to the
parental chromosomes.
They are not always rY and Ry!
22

A
214
Q

Now that you know linkage exists, when doing genetics problems you cannot assume
two genes independently assort unless given that information or some clues. T/F

A

T

215
Q

Genes on the same chromosome will be inherited together without crossing over. T/F

A

T

216
Q

Genes on the same chromosome will be put in the same gamete without crossing over.
T/F

A

T

217
Q

The further apart two genes on the same chromosome, the greater recombinant
frequency. T/F

A

T

218
Q

The maximum recombinant frequency for two linked genes is 100%. T/F

A

F

219
Q

The test parent in a test cross is always homozygous recessive. T/F

A

T

220
Q

You conduct a test cross for two genes and the offspring phenotype ratios are all equal.
You can conclude the two genes are on different chromosomes. T/F

A

F

221
Q

cM tells us how far apart two genes are in terms of actual DNA nucleotides. T/F

A

F

222
Q

Extra clarification Linkage topics from L04-2

A
  • When two genes independently assort – it COULD mean one of two things: 1)
    two genes are on different chromosomes OR 2) on same chromosome but at
    least 50cM apart. The two cases are NOT distinguishable in a test cross for
    linkage nor a dihybrid.
  • In a test cross for linkage between 2 genes, you can never get >50cM EVEN IF
    the two genes are actually >50cM apart. So if we get 50cM we know the two
    genes are AT LEAST 50cM apart and independently assort.
  • In a heterozygous parent for 2 linked genes, the arrangement of alleles in the
    parent can be in cis or trans. Cis means the dominant alleles are together on
    one chromosome and the recessive are together on the other. Trans means that
    one dominant and one recessive allele are together on each chromosome.
  • The way you tell cis vs. trans is find the big numbers in the test cross result. These
    must come from the parental chromosomes (without crossing over). So these
    directly tell us which alleles were together on the parental chromosomes
223
Q

Quantitative Trait:

A

multi-genic and
produces continuous phenotypes.
*Usually many more than 2 genes

224
Q

Epistasis

A

is when two genes
interact to produce one trait
and the alleles of one gene
mask the other gene.
*Epistasis is about GENE
relationships
Our genes in epistasis will
independently assort
We will not do crosses with
quantitative traits. Be able to
recognize.

225
Q

If epistasis occurs, the phenotype ratios in a
dihybrid change while genotype ratios remain the
same. T/F

A

T

226
Q

Recessive Epistasis (9:3:4)

A

homozygous recessive “stands over” other gene

227
Q

Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)

A

The dominant allele of one gene
masks the phenotype of another gene

228
Q

Complementary gene action (9:7)

A

when two different genes work together to contribute to one single trait

229
Q

Epistasis summary

A

2 genes = 1 discrete trait
Epistasis is about non-allelic relationship aka gene relationships (gene
interactions).
In CONTRAST, allelic relationship, is dominance/incomplete/co relationship
between alleles for one gene.
The gene that masks the other is called the epistatic gene. So if gene A is
masking B we say Gene A is epistatic to Gene B.
In epistasis problems the two genes will always ind. assort.
We use a dihybrid cross to determine epistasis. You should know the 3 types
of epistasis, how their ratios deviate, and how the ratio us which type of
epistasis is occurring. PS3 has practice

230
Q

Every trait is controlled by one gene. T/F

A

F

231
Q

A quantitative trait is multi-genic and has discrete phenotypes. T/F

A

F

232
Q

Ear wax, kidney disease, and blood type are traits with discrete phenotypes. T/F

A

T

233
Q

In a dihybrid cross if we see a phenotype ratio that deviates from 9:3:3:1, the genes could be linked
OR epistasis is occurring. T/F

A

T

234
Q

For recessive epistasis, we will get a 9:3:4. The ”4” ratio tells us which gene is epistatic. T/F

A

T

235
Q

For recessive and dominant epistasis the two phenotypes that give us a 3:1 ratio will tell us which is
the masked gene (non-epistatic) and which of its alleles is dominant and recessive. T/F

A

T

236
Q

We can no longer see an intermediate phenotype and assume incomplete dominance. Now we
must know how many genes are involved. T/F

A

T

237
Q
  1. Fragile X syndrome is X-linked dominant. What is the probability that an affected XY mated
    with an unaffected XX will have an affected child given an XY is born ?
A

0

238
Q

With the same mating, what is the probability of an affected child given an XX is born?

A

1

239
Q

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)

A

Variation in a single nucleotide at a particular position in the genome

240
Q

What would produce a SNP?

A

mutation

241
Q

Do SNPs have to occur within a gene?

A

No, single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) don’t have to occur within a gene. They can also occur in noncoding regions of DNA, most commonly between genes.

242
Q

A SNP associates with a phenotype because it close to the gene producing the
phenotype. T/F

A

T

243
Q

A SNP could associate with a phenotype because it is IN the gene sequence.
T/F

A

T

244
Q

SNPs far away from genes producing our phenotype of interest do not
associate with the phenotype because recombination between them happens
often. T/F

A

T

245
Q

SNPs associate with phenotypes because they are closely linked to the gene
controlling the phenotype. T/F

A

T

246
Q

If we find an associated SNP with a phenotype, we can conclude the SNP
directly causes the phenotype. T/F

A

F

247
Q

If a SNP is associated with a phenotype, the SNP must be what causes the phenotype to
be produced. T/F

A

F

248
Q

SNPs are associated with phenotypes because of:

A

linkage

249
Q
A
249
Q

SNPs have to be within the coding sequence of a gene. t/f

A

F

250
Q

Which of the following allows us to determine dominance relationships?

A

a heterozygote’s phenotype

251
Q

Imagine that the trait pencil color is controlled by one gene with two alleles. One allele is grey and the other allele is yellow. Which of the following crosses will tell you that the dominance relationship is complete dominance? Read the crosses carefully.

Cross A: grey pencil x yellow pencil results in: 1 grey : 1 yellow

Cross B: yellow pencil x yellow pencil results in: 3 grey : 1 yellow

Cross C: grey pencil x grey pencil results in: 3 grey : 1 yellow

Cross D: grey pencil x grey pencil results in: 1 grey : 2 yellow : 1 grey

A

Cross C

252
Q

Imagine gene X, which produces two phenotypes: a coordinated phenotype and an uncoordinated phenotype. Which of the following must be true, if gene X controls a Mendelian trait?

A

One of the two phenotypes must be dominant while the other phenotype is recessive.

253
Q

Answer the following about Mendelian traits:

  1. The alleles will always follow complete dominance. True
  2. There will be only two alleles. True
  3. There will always be only one gene that produces/controls the trait. True
  4. In a monohybrid cross the phenotype ratio will always be ____. 3 dominant : 1 recessive
A
254
Q

Imagine for a gene there is a wild type allele and a mutant loss of function allele. For a heterozygous individual, which of the following can we most likely assume to be true?

A

The wild type and the mutant alleles will be transcribed and translated.

255
Q

A mutant allele for a gene may:

A

produce a mutant protein that has no function at all.
produce a mutant protein that has a new function different than wild type function.
cause the mutant allele to be dominant over wild type.
cause the mutant allele to be recessive to wild type.

256
Q

Assume a 2n organism. Which of the following causes gametes to receive only one allele for a given gene?

A

Law of Segregation

257
Q

Plant 1 has round seeds (Rr) while Plant 2 has wrinkled seeds (rr). Assume the alleles for seed shape follow complete dominance. What is the probability that a cross between plant 1 and plant 2 will produce offspring with round seeds?

A

1/2

258
Q

Fairies wings can be gold, iridescent, or silver.
Two independently assorting genes control wing color – Gene A and Gene B.
Whenever a fairy receives two recessive a alleles, their wings are always silver.
Iridescent fairies have two b alleles.

A

What genotype(s) gives the silver phenotype aaB_ and aabb ?
What genotype(s) gives the gold phenotype A_B_ ?
What genotype(s) gives the iridescent phenotype A_bb ?
What phenotypic ratio would we expect in a dihybrid cross 9:3:4 ?
What type of gene interaction is occurring recessive epistasis ?

259
Q

Pedigree analysis allows us to determine the mode of inheritance of a trait or disease even if we do not know the gene that controls the trait or disease.

A

True

260
Q

If a trait is controlled by multiple genes and there is a continuous range of phenotypes, this can be best described as ____.

A

quantitative trait

261
Q

Two individual plants possess the same genotype for gene F, but each plant has a different phenotype for the trait produced by gene F. This is best explained by

A

environmental interactions

262
Q

In a dihybrid cross is conducted between two barky dogs the offspring ratios are given below:

12 barky
3 quiet
1 growly

A
  1. What type of epistasis is occurring? dominant epistasis
  2. Which statement is TRUE? quiet allele is dominant over growly allele
263
Q
A
263
Q

Goltz syndrome is a rare genetic X-link dominant disorder that causes skin abnormalities. Answer the following questions about this mating: an XY with Goltz syndrome crossed with an unaffected XX.

  1. The genotype of the XY with Goltz syndrome must be: b
    a. XdY

b. XDY

c. DD

d. dd

  1. The probability that the mating will produce an affected XY child with Goltz syndrome is:
    [ Select ]
    .
  2. The probability that the mating will produce an affected XX child, given an XX is born is:
    [ Select ]
    .
A

Answer 1:
Correct!
b
Answer 2:
Correct!
0
Answer 3:
Correct!
1

264
Q

Crossing over does not happen when two genes are very far apart on the same chromosome.

A

False

265
Q
  1. The genotype ratio of a monohybrid cross stays the same regardless of dominance rules. True .
  2. The phenotype ratio of a monohybrid cross stays the same regardless of dominance rules. False .
A
266
Q

Law of Independent Assortment says that alleles for one gene are inherited independently of alleles for another gene as long as the genes are on different chromosomes.

A

True

267
Q

Potato shape is controlled by the shape gene and potato size is controlled by the size gene. A testcross for linkage is done and the resulting phenotype ratio is 1:1:1:1. Answer the following:

  1. The genes independently assort. .
  2. The genes are c) choices (a) and (b) are both possible
A
268
Q

Teddy bears can be fluffy or stuffy, which is controlled by Gene 1. They can also be poofy or flat, which is controlled by Gene 2. Use the offspring results from a test cross below to answer the question below.

Testcross offspring

Fluffy, poofy

1000

Stuffy, poofy

100

Stuffy, flat

1000

Fluffy, flat

150

  1. Are genes 1 and 2 linked?
    [ Select ]
  2. If linked, what is the genetic map distance between 1 and 2
    [ Select ]
  3. The parental chromosomes would have fluffy and poofy on one chromosome and stuffy and flat on the other chromosome True .
  4. From the information above we can know that fluffy is dominant over stuffy False .
A

Answer 1:
Correct!
Yes linked
Answer 2:
Correct!
[(100+150)/(1000+1000+100+150)]*100
Answer 3:
Correct!
True
Answer 4:
Correct!
False

269
Q

The distance between two linked genes is 7cM. If the chromosome is 1 million DNA bases, this means the distance between the genes is 7% of 1 million bases.

A

False

270
Q

Imagine radish color is controlled by one gene with phenotypes: red, purple, or white.

The shape of the radish is controlled by a different gene with phenotypes: oval or long.

The two genes are not linked.

A cross between a homozygous red, long radish plant and a homozygous white, oval radish plant yields 100% purple, long radish offspring.

You cross two purple, long radish offspring with each other. What is the probability for producing the following offspring:

  1. red, long 3/16
  2. purple, oval 1/8
A
271
Q

Answer the following about sex chromosomes:

  1. The X and Y chromosomes are consider homologous chromosomes. False
  2. The X and Y chromosomes pair in meiosis. True .
A
272
Q

Two parents of genotypes AaBBCc and AaBbcc are crossed. What is the probability they produce an offspring with the genotype AABbcc?

A

1/16

273
Q

Imagine you get the following results from a monohybrid cross.

10 bushy eyebrows
10 prickly eyebrow
20 bushy and prickly eyebrows

What type of allelic relationship does this result show?

A

co-dominance

274
Q

Chromatin is only present in meiosis or mitosis

A

F

275
Q

Chromatin and histones are the same thing

A

F

276
Q

Hypothetical scenario: Parent 1 is toothed and Parent 2 is toothless. If they mate and 100%
of their offspring are toothless, which of the following can NOT be true? You may choose
multiple answers

A

II. Both parents were heterozygotes.
One parent is homozygous and one parent is heterozygous.
IV. Toothed is dominant phenotype.

277
Q

The phenotype that is produced by a given genotype is determined by__. Choose ALL that
apply

A

A. The function of the protein produced by alleles.
B. The dominance rules controlling the gene’s alleles.
C. The relationship between the alleles of the gene

278
Q

10-11. You discover a rare new disease but do not know whether the disease allele is dominant
or recessive. Which of the following would tell you the disease allele is dominant? Choose ALL
that apply

C. A heterozygous individual has the disease phenotype.

A
  1. Assume you discover the disease allele is dominant. Which of the following could be true?
    A. The disease allele is a loss of function allele.
    B. The disease allele is a gain of function allele.

(Both)

279
Q
  1. Choose ALL that are true if the Law of Segregation did not occur.
A

A. Alleles for the same gene would be inherited together.
B. Alleles for the same gene would never separate into distinct gametes

280
Q

. In a diploid organism the ploidy of cells at the end of meiosis I would be:

A

n

281
Q
A
282
Q

In a 4n (tetraploid) organism, the ploidy of cells at the end of meiosis I would be:

A

2n

283
Q

. A 3n cell cannot undergo meiosis I. T/F

A

T

284
Q

Independent assortment ______

A

does produce unique gametes when considering all genes on all chromosomes
does not produce unique gametes when considering just one gene of interest

285
Q
  1. In which genotypes are both alleles transcribed and translated
A

all

286
Q

Made up scenario. In the parental generation, two purple foxes mate. The resulting
phenotype of their offspring is 1 blue: 2 purple: 1 red fox

A

Fox fur color alleles exhibit incomplete dominance.
The parental foxes are heterozygotes.

287
Q

In a cross parent 1 AA x parent 2 aa, 100% off offspring will have __As___ genotype.
If the alleles follow complete dominance, 100% offspring will look like __AA parent_______.
If incomplete dominance occurs then, 100% of the offspring will look like ___intermediate_______ parent(s).
If co-dominance occurs, 100% of the offspring will look like ____both_______ parent(s).

A
288
Q

Consider gene X with phenotypes Y and Z. In a cross, parent 1 with phenotype Y is mated
with parent 2 with phenotype Y. The resulting offspring have a 3 phenotype Y : 1 phenotype Z
ratio.

A

b. The alleles for gene X follow complete dominance.

289
Q

Two wavy hair individuals are crossed. The resulting phenotype ratio of their offspring is: 1
straight : 2 wavy : 1 curly. The allelic relationship for hair texture is:

A

c. incomplete dominance

290
Q

In a test cross for linkage, 36 of the offspring were recombinants. The remaining 64
offspring were parental types. How many map units separate the two genes?

A

36

291
Q

Seed color is controlled by one gene and can be yellow or green.
 Seed pods is controlled by one gene and can be inflated or constricted.
 In a dihybrid cross the offspring ratios are
9 yellow, inflated : 3 yellow, constricted : 3 green : inflated : 1 green, constricted.
a) 1 gene per trait (2 gene = 2 traits)
b) Is epistasis occurring? How do you know? Not occurring for two reasons: 1) 9:3:3:1 is
not any of our epistasis ratios and 2) epistasis would be 2 genes = 1 trait which we do
not have.
c) Do the genes independent assort? How do you know? Yes b/c 9:3:3:1 dihybrid can only
happen for 2 ind. assort. genes. If linked will deviate.
d) Which alleles are dominant for each gene?
Yellow dominant over green and inflated dominant over constricted. The 9 is dom/dom

A
292
Q

In imaginary parakeets, feathers can be green, yellow, or blue.
 Two independently assorting genes control feather color – Gene B and Gene Y.
 If a parakeet receives two recessive b alleles, feathers are always blue.
 If a parakeet receives two recessive y alleles, the individual could have the yellow
phenotype or the blue phenotype.
a) Is there 1 gene = 1 trait OR 2 genes = 1 trait? 2 genes = 1 trait
b) Can feather color be a quantitative trait? No
Discrete phenotypes not a spectrum/continuous range
c) What are the possible genotypes for each phenotype:
Blue – Y_bb and yybb; we know this from sentence 3 which also tells us recessive epistasis
Yellow – yyB_; Sentence 4 tells us yellow is recessive.
Green – Y_B_
d) What type of gene interaction is occurring? Recessive epistasis; know this from sentence 3
e) What is the phenotype and genotype of a dihybrid individual? YyBb is green (dihybrid means
heterozygous for two genes.)
f) What are the phenotype ratios for a dihybrid cross with two individuals from 2e?
9 green : 3 yellow : 4 blue; we know this b/c we deduced recessive epistasis and we get blue
whenever there is bb, which is (3 Y_bb + 1 yybb) = 4 blue
g) Which is the epistatic gene? Gene B; epistatic gene is the one that is masking the other gene.
h) For the non-epistatic gene, which is the dominant allele? Green is dominant over yellow. We
knew from sentence 4 and also from our ratio 9 green: 3 yellow is 3 green : 1 yellow

A
293
Q

In Klingons forehead ridges are controlled by independently assorting genes: Gene F and
Gene H.
 Gene F causes foreheads be relaxed or bumpy. When the relaxed phenotype is
observed, 2 relaxed alleles are required.
 Gene H causes foreheads to become ridged. Any individual that possesses one copy of
the ridged allele will produce the ridged phenotype.
A) What type of genetic mechanism controls forehead ridge? Dominant epistasis
B) What is the expected phenotype ratio for a dihybrid cross for forehead ridge?
12 ridged : 3 bumpy : 1 relaxed

A
294
Q

. Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a genetic disorder that leads to progressive brain damage and
failure of the adrenal glands. ALD phenotypes are controlled by one gene. Which best describes
ALD?

A

c. pleiotropic (1 gene = multiple traits)

295
Q

Two genetically identical lab plants are exposed to different amounts of light. One plant
grows taller than the other. Which best explains the experimental result?

A

b. environmental interactions

296
Q

If the phenotypes for a given trait are continuous, which would you most likely conclude
about the trait?

A

c. There are multiple genes controlling the trait.

297
Q

 Two independently assorting genes are involved in dog coat pigment.
 In a dihybrid cross between two albino dogs the follow phenotype ratios are produced:
118 albino, 32 black, 10 brown

A

A) Is gene interaction occurring? If so, what type of gene interaction is occurring?
Yes, dominant epistasis b/c 12:3:1 dihybrid phenotype ratio

B) What genotypes will give each phenotype?
9 A_B_ albino
3 A_bb albino
3 aaB_black
1 aabb brown

The gene producing albino is epistatic to the gene producing pigment
Black allele is dominant over brown allele

298
Q
A