Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

methemoglobin

A

hemoglobin with an oxidized iron, cannot carry O2 (acetominophen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

in what two locations does extramedullary hematopoiesis happen

A

spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nutritional promotors of erythropoiesis

A

iron, copper, B12 (cobalamin), B6, and B9 (folate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

three inhibitors of erythropoiesis

A

estrogen, TNF and IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

last two stages before mature RBC

A

metarubicyte (nRBC) and reticulocyte (loosely similar to polychromatophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

poikilocytosis

A

increased variation of RBC shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when can you get a false hyperchromasia?

A

LIAH! lipemia, intravascular hemolysis, agglutination, and heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why is plasma different than serum

A

has proteins! PPP
plasma purple protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

camelid erythrocytes

A

oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

deer erythrocytes

A

sickle shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

birds, reptiles and fish erythrocytes

A

oval and nucleated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acanthocytes

A

blunt or boot shaped spicules, means fragmentation injury or liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

codocytes

A

target cells, means liver disease and hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

echinocytes

A

pointed spikes, means artifact or snake venom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

keratocytes

A

ruptured little blisters, means liver disease or fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

schistocytes

A

fragments, means fragmentation process happening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

spherocytes

A

small with no central pallor in dogs, means extravascular hemolysis (IMHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

eccentrocytes

A

hemoglobin pushed to one side, means oxidative injury or intravascular hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ghost cells

A

intravascular hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

heinz bodies

A

oxidative damage and intravascular hemolysis, also old cat diseases (diabetes, hyperthyroid, lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

basophilic stippling

A

specific to regenerative anemia in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

time for bone marrow to respond

A

3-5 days in most species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what will we see with regenerative anemia if it is a result of blood loss?

A

hypoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

five toxins causing hemolytic anemia

A

acetaminophen, red maple leaf, onions/garlic, zinc, and copper deficiency (SR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mycoplasma haemofelis

A

tiny little dots on margin of cells, from fleas, regenerative hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cytauxzoon felis

A

signet rings, from ticks, causes nonregenerative hemolytic anemia and decreases all cell lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

babesia canis

A

lots of weird pale ovals in greyhounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

babesia gibsoni

A

secondary cause of IMHA in dogs, signet rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

equine piroplasmosis

A

theileria equi and babesia caballi, ring or maltese cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

anemia of chronic disease

A

normocytic, normochromic nonregenerative anemia, hepcidin (IL-1,6 and TNF) causes iron sequestration in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

anemia of chronic renal disease

A

normocytic, normochromic nonregenerative anemia from decreased epo production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

toxins that target bone marrow

A

estrogen, chloramphenicol, chemo, bracken fern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

iron deficiency anemia

A

microcytic, hypochromic nonregenerative anemia, often from chronic blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

type II hypersensitivity reactions

A

cell bound, IMHA, neonatal isoerythrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what species is always at risk of a transfusion reaction

A

cats (type B more anti-A antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

major vs minor cross match

A

major- donor RBCs and recipient antibodies
minor- donor antibodies and recipient RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which kittens would get neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

B queen and anything else (even in first litter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

why is it common in cows to see acute neutrophilia with inflammation

A

small storage pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most common causes of mastocythemia in cats and dogs

A

cats- neoplasia
dogs- inflammatory (enteritis, pleuritis, peritonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

granulocytic erlichiosis causes

A

a phagocytophilum and e ewingii in neutrophils, morula

41
Q

ehrlichia canis

A

infects monocytes and lympocytes, morula

42
Q

histoplasma capsulatum

A

neutrophils in clusters of signets

43
Q

hepatozoon

A

tic tacs

44
Q

stress leukon

A

lymphopenia (sometimes monocytosis in dogs and neutrophilia)

45
Q

physiologic leukon

A

lymphocytosis (will also often have erythrocytosis and lymphocytosis)

46
Q

inflammatory leukon

A

marked neutrophilia or monocytosis in not dogs or left shift

47
Q

extreme neutrophilia (>40000) causes

A

IMHA, 6 inflammatory ps (pyometra, pyothorax, pancreatitis, peritonitis, pneumonia, prostatitis)

48
Q

where is thrombopoietin produced

A

hepatocytes

49
Q

4 steps of primary hemostasis

A

platelet adhesion
platelet shape change
platelet secretion of granules
platelet aggregation

50
Q

how to manually count platelets

A

count platelets in ten fields, average, multiply by 15000 (dogs) or 20000 (cats)

51
Q

four main causes of thrombocytopenia

A

SPUD
splenic sequestation (heat stroke)
production decreased (bone marrow)
utilization increased (trauma)
destruction increased (ITP)

52
Q

glanzmann thrombasthenia

A

platelets unable to bind fibrinogen (otterhounds and great pyrenees)

53
Q

vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

10 9 7 2

54
Q

extrinsic pathway

A

3 and 7** PT times (PeT goes to bathroom outside)

55
Q

intrinsic pathway

A

12, 11, 9, 8, brad PiTT goes to the bathroom inside

56
Q

common coag pathway

A

10, 2, 1, 13

57
Q

FDPs

A

plasmin lyses fibrin into these, means clotting is working and now being broken down

58
Q

PIVKA test

A

modified PT test, earliest indicator of vit K deficiency

59
Q

hemophilia A

A

most common inherited coagulopathy (esp dogs), factor 8, sex linked recessive (affects PTT)

60
Q

hemophilia B

A

defective factor 9, otherwise similar to A

61
Q

factor XII deficiency

A

common in cats, asymptomatic but prolonged PTT

62
Q

laboratory diagnosis of DIC (3/5)

A

increased FDPs
thrombocytopenia
decreased fibrinogen
decreased antithrombin
prolonged clotting times

63
Q

pure transudate

A

clear
TP <2.5
TNCC <5000
decreased oncotic pressure (often albumin)

64
Q

modified transudate

A

cloudy maybe serosanginous, some neutrophils
TP 2.5-5
TNCC still <5000
increased hydrostatic pressure (congestion)

65
Q

exudate

A

variable color
TP >4
TNCC >5000
inflammation, septic or aseptic

66
Q

parameters to test if suspect septic

A

fluid glucose difference (serum-fluid)
fluid lactate difference (fluid-plasma)

67
Q

causes of chylous effusion

A

idiopathic in dogs
CHF in cats
(test triglycerides)

68
Q

uroabdomen tests

A

fluid creatinine >2x serum
fluid potassium >1.4x serum

69
Q

degenerative lesions cytology (3)

A

low cellularity, high protein
hematoma (RBCs and cholesterol crystals)
cyst
seroma

70
Q

malessezia pachydermatis

A

oval, normal yeast shoe shape (ears)

71
Q

sporothrix schenckii

A

tiny oval, CIGAR shaped light cytoplasm, thin clear cell wall, phagocytized by macrophages and narrow budding

72
Q

histoplasma capsulatum

A

round to oval and otherwise same as sporothrix

73
Q

crypto

A

thick non-staining capsule, narrow budding

74
Q

blastomyces

A

big, basophilic, broad based budding (MRV)

75
Q

coccidioides

A

same as blasto but no budding and SW

76
Q

10 criteria of malignancy

A

anisocytosis
anisokaryosis
increased N:C ratio
nuclear molding
chromatin condensing
mitotic figures
anisonucleoliosis
large prominent nucleoli
variable shape nucleoli
multiple nucleoli

77
Q

round cell tumors (5)

A

T VTs- discrete little vacuoles
L ymphoma- high N:C ratio
M ast cell tumor- purple granules
P lasma cell tumor- perinuclear clear zone, multinucleation
H istiocytic tumor- young dogs with peripheral clear zone

78
Q

gold standard for estimating GFR

A

inulin or iohexol clearance test

79
Q

extra renal factors affecting BUN

A

high protein diet, liver failure, ruminant

80
Q

best indicator of renal function in birds and reptiles

A

uric acid

81
Q

azotemia

A

increased BUN or CRE

82
Q

hypersthenuria

A

most often dehydration
>1.025 LA
>1.030 canine
>1.035 feline

83
Q

isosthenuria

A

1.008-1.012
if azotemic, renal failure

84
Q

three extra renal effects on USG

A

osmotic diuresis, medullary washout, DI

85
Q

most dangerous part about post-renal azotemia

A

hyperkalemia

86
Q

most common electrolyte abnormality in renal disease

A

hyperphosphatemia

87
Q

nephrotic syndrome components (4)

A

proteinuria
hypoalbuminemia
fasting hypercholesterolemia
third spacing

88
Q

proteinuria

A

high sensitivity for albumin (hemorrhage as well)

89
Q

fanconi syndrome

A

multiple resorptive defects in proximal tubules and nephrogenic DI, basenji

90
Q

struvite

A

coffin lid in alkaline urine, common can be healthy

91
Q

calcium carbonate

A

alkaline urine, radiating striation and yellow

92
Q

calcium oxalate dihydrate and monohydrate

A

d- acidic, maltese cross, normalish
m- long shards/jack, ethylene glycol toxicity

93
Q

ammonium biurate

A

thorn apple, severe liver disease (normal in dalmations and bulldogs)

94
Q

uric acid

A

liver disease, diamond plates with slightly curved edges, (normal in dalmations and bulldogs)

95
Q

cystine

A

hexagonal, pathologic always, acidic urine

96
Q

protein casts

A

hyaline with clear outline, hgb

97
Q

cellular casts

A

active inflammation (WBCs, RBCs)

98
Q

granular casts

A

tubular degeneration, eventually become waxy which look small and hard