Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How does the Triple Aim strive to lower healthcare costs?

A

by reducing waste in healthcare and increasing the value of care

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2
Q

What is included in the triple aim?

A

Population health
Experience of care
Per capita cost

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3
Q

The Triple Aim was created by what organization?

A

Institute for Healthcare Improvement

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4
Q

By saving money that’s wasted in healthcare every day we could:

A

improve healthcare quality
improve health of populations

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5
Q

What CDS? A nurse is reviewing a clients lab and can’t remember the normal range for BUN?

A

Evidence Button

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6
Q

What CDS? An orthopedic surgeon has a set of orders for a TKR?

A

Provider Order Sets

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7
Q

What CDS? A nurse scans a client’s id bracelet and then a medication?

A

Barcoding

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8
Q

What CDS? A nurse is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client and receives an alert stating the client is also on Warfarin?

A

Drug Database

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9
Q

What CDS? A nurse receives a pop-up alert when a client is a high risk for skin breakdown?

A

If-Then Logic

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10
Q

What CDS? A nurse chooses a pre-designed care plan related to airway management?

A

Prescriptive Plan of Care

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11
Q

What CDS? A nurse is completing the client’s admission and is able to review past medical history?

A

Electronic Form

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12
Q

What does CDS stand for?

A

Clinical Decision Support System

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13
Q

5 Rights of CDS?

A
  1. Right information
  2. Right people
  3. Right channels
  4. Right intervention formats
  5. Right points in workflow
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14
Q

What’s the difference between an EMR and EHR?

A

EHR is more encompassing of entire record

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15
Q

What are the 4 main benefits of the EHR?

A
  1. Safety
  2. Access
  3. Efficiency
  4. Communication
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16
Q

What act promotes the use of technology in healthcare?

A

HITECH

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17
Q

What CDS systems are knowledge-based? (4)

A
  1. If-Then logic
  2. Order set
  3. Pop-up
  4. Evidence Button
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18
Q

What CDS systems are active? (2)

A
  1. If-Then Logic
  2. Pop-up
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19
Q

What is true according to rural nursing theory?

A

Rural dwellers closely associate work with health.

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20
Q

What is secondary care?

A

provided by a specialist or agency on referral by a primary

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21
Q

What is tertiary care?

A

specialized consultative care, usually provided on referral from secondary

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22
Q

What is an example of secondary care?

A

An older adult attends older adult daycare 3 days per week

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23
Q

What is an example of tertiary care?

A

A client has OP surgery for cataract removal

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24
Q

What are the requirements of a Critical Access Hospital? (5)

A
  1. rural (35 miles from another hospital)
  2. 24/7 emergency services
  3. at max 25 inpatient beds
  4. reports 96 hours or less as average LOS
  5. may operate rehab/psychiatric care with 10 beds
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25
Q

What is the purpose of Magnet Recognition?

A

recognize health care organizations that achieve excellence in nursing practice

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26
Q

What were the 6 key concepts that define those living in rural areas?

A
  1. work beliefs and health beliefs
  2. isolation and distance
  3. self-reliance
  4. lack of anonymity
  5. outsider/insider
  6. old-timer/newcomer
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27
Q

How far do rural dwellers travel for emergency care?

A

23 miles

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28
Q

How far do rural dwellers travel for routine care?

A

50 miles

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29
Q

What is a mesosystem?

A

group of microsystems

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30
Q

What are the 5Ps of Clinical Microsystems?

A
  1. purpose
  2. patients
  3. professionals
  4. processes
  5. patterns
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31
Q

How are healthcare systems different from other organizations? (3)

A
  1. purpose
  2. specialized workforce
  3. public trust
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32
Q

What is the focus of the current US healthcare system?

A

tertiary and secondary healthcare

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33
Q

Mission statements often focus on 4 values?

A
  1. research
  2. education
  3. practice
  4. community
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34
Q

Effective access requires 3 things?

A
  1. gaining entry
  2. transportation
  3. trusting a provider
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35
Q

Who designated the CAH?

A

Medicare and Medicaid services

36
Q

What is addressed using capitation?

A

cost-effectiveness

37
Q

Describe PPOs?

A

No referral needed to see any provider the patient would like.

38
Q

Describe HMOs?

A

Coverage is limited to those providers within the organization

39
Q

Describe POS?

A

requires a referral to see a doctor out of network

40
Q

What is addressed using DRGs?

A

Cost-effectiveness
Efficiency

41
Q

What is addressed using Value Based Purchasing?

A

cost-effectiveness
efficiency
value

42
Q

What part of medicare covers a hospital stay for a 70 year old that broke her hip?

A

Part A

43
Q

What part of medicare covers a blood sugar monitor for a patient?

A

Part B

44
Q

What part of medicare covers a prescription?

A

Part D

45
Q

What part of medicare covers a patient that has private insurance which is approved by medicare?

A

Part C

46
Q

What is a prospective payment system?

A

reimburses hospitals with a predetermined rate for specific illness

47
Q

What is diagnosis-related groups?

A

similar patients are categorized into groups that reflect the amount of care provided

48
Q

What is capitation?

A

a flat payment per covered member regardless of the amount of care provided

49
Q

What is fee-for-service?

A

providers are paid for each service they perform

50
Q

What are the financing options for U.S. healthcare? (3)

A

out-of-pocket money
taxes
insurance premiums

51
Q

Who administers medicare?

A

federal government

52
Q

Who administers medicaid?

A

federal and state government

53
Q

Who is eligible for the medicare program? (3)

A

older than 65
end-stage renal disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

54
Q

Who is eligible for the medicaid program (2)?

A

poor
disabled

55
Q

What is the reimbursement rate of medicare? (3)

A

general revenue
payroll taxes
beneficiaries’ premiums

56
Q

What is the reimbursement rate of medicaid?

A

state and federal taxes

57
Q

What program isn’t the same in each state?

A

medicaid

58
Q

What has been a disadvantage of DRGs?

A

increase in readmissions because of being discharged too early

59
Q

According to the ACA, what happens if patients are readmitted within 30days?

A

fined by medicare

60
Q

What is covered with medicare part A? (4)

A
  1. inpatient hospital
  2. inpatient skilled nursing
  3. hospice
  4. home health
61
Q

What is covered by medicare part B? (5)

A
  1. physician services
  2. outpatient care
  3. medical equipment
  4. home health
  5. preventive services
62
Q

What is covered by medicare part C?

A

Part A & B
prescription drug coverage

63
Q

What is covered by medicare part D?

A

outpatient prescription drugs

64
Q

Which managed care organization allows patients to share costs if they receive services outside of network?

A

POS

65
Q

What are 3 levels in allocating resources in healthcare?

A

healthcare vs other needs
within the healthcare sector
among individual patients

66
Q

Why are healthcare markets more expensive?

A

costs associated with accessing the good for the consumer

67
Q

With fee-for-service payment is dependent on?

A

quantity, not quality of service

68
Q

What are the 2 goals of managed care organizations?

A

reduce costs
promote preventative care

69
Q

What are the 3 pros of Capitation?

A

transparency
profit
saving resources

70
Q

What is the con of capitation?

A

depends on patient mix

71
Q

What are the 2 pros of DRGs?

A

efficiency of care
incentives short hospital days

72
Q

What are 2 cons of DRGs?

A

too early of discharge
only seen in hospital settings

73
Q

Who funds pay-for-performance?

A

Medicare

74
Q

For which patients are accountable care organizations used for?

A

medicare patients

75
Q

What is the positive outcome of accountable care organizations?

A

receive part of any saving generated if quality is maintained

76
Q

What do nurse sensitive indicators involve?

A

structures of care and care processes

77
Q

In part D of medicare there is a coverage gap, how much does the patient pay?

A

25%

78
Q

Who is tricare for?

A

military and their families

79
Q

What is the goal of the ACA?

A

expand health insurance coverage

80
Q

With the ACA, how do people choose insurances?

A

with state-run health insurance exchanges

81
Q

What are the primary divers of health outcomes (3)?

A

health behaviors
social and economic factors

82
Q

In what 3 ways are health disparities costly?

A

excess medical care costs
lost productivity
national economic losses

83
Q

How has expanded medicaid impacted hospitals?

A

reduces hospitals uncompensated care

84
Q

What are the 2 goals of the patient protection and affordable care act?

A

provide affordable insurance coverage
improve access to primary care

85
Q

How has the removal of the individual mandate impacted insurance premiums?

A

more sick people (increased)

86
Q

In what case was the individual mandate ruled unconstitutional?

A

Texas vs Azar

87
Q

What is the latest challenge to the ACA?

A

don’t want to cover preventative costs