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PSYC 360: Psychological Disorders > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

psychologists

A
  • advanced graduate training in the assessment and diagnosis of psychopathology and how to practice psychotherapy
  • Ph. D. or Psy.D. in clinical psychology, counseling, or school psychology
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2
Q

psychiatrists

A
  • medical degree with postgraduate training (residency) in diagnosis and pharmacotherapy
  • can prescribe psychotropic medications
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3
Q

psychiatric nurses

A
  • bachelor’s or master’s level training
  • nurse practitioners receive specialized training to prescribe psychotropic medications
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4
Q

social workers or licensed mental health counselors

A
  • Master of Social Work (M.S.W.) or Counseling (L.P.C., L.C.S.W.)
  • typically requires 2 years of graduate study
  • trained in psychotherapy or counseling
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5
Q

clinical psychology

A

the field concerned with the nature, development, and treatment of psychological disorders

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6
Q

stigma

A

destructive beliefs and attitudes held by a society that are ascribed to groups considered different in some way

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7
Q

four characteristics of stigma

A

1) distinguishing label is applied
2) label refers to undesirable attributes
3) people with the label are seen as different
4) people with the label are discriminated against

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8
Q

criteria of psychological disorders (PDs)

A
  • the disorder occurs within the individual
  • involves clinically significant difficulties in thinking, feeling, or behaving
  • usually involves personal distress of some sort
  • involves dysfunction in psychological, developmental, and/or neurobiological processes that support mental functioning
  • not a culturally specific reaction to an event
  • not primarily a result of social deviance or conflict with society
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9
Q

three key characteristics of PDs

A

1) personal distress
2) disability and dysfunction
3) violation of social norms

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10
Q

disability

A

impairment in an important area (e.g., work, relationships)

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11
Q

dysfunction

A

developmental, psychological, and/or biological systems are not working as they should; these systems are interrelated and dysfunction in one can influence dysfunction in another system

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12
Q

social norms

A

widely held standards (beliefs and attitudes) used to make judgements about behaviors

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13
Q

supernatural explanations of PDs

A

displeasure of the gods or possession by demons; treatment through exorcism

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14
Q

Hippocrates

A
  • believed mental disturbances have natural causes
  • three categories of mental disorders: mania, melancholia, and phrenitis
  • healthy brain functioning depended on balance of four humors –> blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm
  • treatment by restoring natural balance
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15
Q

dark ages

A
  • Christian monasteries replaced physicians as healers
  • returned to the belief of supernatural causes
  • treatments: cared and prayed for by monks, touched with relics, drank potions in the waning phase of the moon
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16
Q

Lunacy Trials

A

trials held to determine a person’s mental health

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17
Q

asylums

A

15th century; establishments for the confinement and care of people with PDs

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18
Q

Philippe Pinel

A

pioneered humane treatment in asylums

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19
Q

Dorothea Dix

A

crusader for improved conditions for people with PDs; worked to establish 32 new public hospitals

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20
Q

general paresis and syphilis

A

the link between syphilis and general paresis helped to illustrate how biological causes could contribute to mental symptoms

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21
Q

general paresis

A

deterioration of mental and physical abilities and progressive paralysis

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22
Q

Galton

A

originator of genetic research with twins; work led to notion that mental illness can be inherited; led to eugenics movement (promotion of enforced sterilization to eliminate undesirable characteristics)

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23
Q

insulin-coma therapy

A

injected with overdose of insulin to induce hypoglycemia and coma

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24
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

induce epileptic seizures with electric shock

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25
Q

prefrontal lobotomy

A

destroys tracts connecting frontal lobes to other areas of the brain; led to listlessness, apathy, and loss of cognitive abilities

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26
Q

cathartic method

A

release of emotional tension triggered by expressing previously forgotten thoughts about an earlier emotional trauma

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27
Q

defense mechanisms

A

strategies used by ego to protect itself from anxiety

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28
Q

id

A

present at birth; biological and unconscious; seeks immediate gratification; when id is not satisfied, tension is produced and id drives a person to get rid of tension

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29
Q

ego

A

primarily conscious; mediates between demands of reality and id’s demands for immediate gratification

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30
Q

superego

A

a person’s conscience; develops as we incorporate parental and society values

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31
Q

psychoanalysis

A

goal to understand early-childhood experiences, the nature of key relationships, and the patterns in current relationships; therapist is listening for core emotional and relationship temest

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32
Q

transference

A

responding towards an analyst in a similar way as towards important people in the person’s past

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33
Q

countertransference

A

an analyst responding towards a patient in a similar way as towards important people in their past

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34
Q

behaviorism

A

focus on observable behavior, emphasis on learning

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35
Q

three types of learning

A

classical conditioning, operant conditioning, modeling

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36
Q

law of effect

A

behavior that is followed by satisfying consequences will be repeated; behavior that is followed by unpleasant consequences will be discouraged

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37
Q

gene expression

A

proteins influence whether the action of a specific gene will occur

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38
Q

polygenic

A

multiple genes expressions interacting with a person’s environment

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39
Q

epigenetics

A

how the environment can alter gene expression or function

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40
Q

shared environment

A

events and experiences that family members have in common

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41
Q

nonshared environment

A

events and experiences that are distinct to each family member

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42
Q

molecular genetics

A

identifies genes and their functions; identifies differences between people in the sequence of their genes and in the structure of their genes

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43
Q

polymorphism

A

difference in DNA sequence on a gene occurring in a population

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44
Q

single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

A

different between people in a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence of a particular gene

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45
Q

copy number variations (CNVs)

A

abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNA within the gene(s)

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46
Q

genome-wide association studies (GWAS)

A

key method to examine SNPs and CNVs; isolate differences in the sequence of genes between people who have a psychological disorder and people who do not

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47
Q

Priory of St. Mary of Bethlehem

A

one of the first mental institutions; the wealthy paid to gape at the patients

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48
Q

gene-environment interaction

A

a person’s sensitivity to an environmental event is influenced by genes

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49
Q

excitatory

A

push forward signal; glutamate, epinephrine, and norepinephrine

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50
Q

inhibitory

A

block signal; GABA, serotonin

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51
Q

reuptake

A

reabsoprtion of leftover neurotransmitters by presynaptic neuron

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52
Q

epigenetic effects can…

A

be passed down across multiple generations from parents to children and even grandparents to grandchildren

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53
Q

serotonin and dopamine implicate in

A

depression, mania, schizophrenia

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54
Q

norepinephrine

A

communicates with the sympathetic nervous system to produce states of high arousal; implicated in anxiety and other stress-related conditions

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55
Q

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)

A

inhibitory; implicated in anxiety

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56
Q

ways in which neurotransmitters may contribute to psychopathology

A
  • excessive or inadequate levels
  • problems in synthesis of neurotransmitters at the metabolic level
  • insufficient or excessive reuptake
  • faulty neurotransmitter receptors
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57
Q

prefrontal cortex

A

regulates the amygdala

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58
Q

white matter

A

consists of fibers that connect cells in cortex with other areas

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59
Q

ventricles

A

cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid

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60
Q

brain development

A

begins early in the first trimester of pregnancy and continues into early adulthood; a third of our genes are expressed in the brain

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61
Q

pruning

A

elimination of synaptic connections; connections become fewer, but faster; environment influences which connections are maintained

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62
Q

structural (anatomical) connectivity

A

how different structures are connected via white matter

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63
Q

functional connectivity

A

how brain regions are functionally connected as assessed by correlations in blood oxygen dependent (BOLD) signal measured via fMRI

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64
Q

effective connectivity

A

helps to understand direction and timing of activity in brain regions

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65
Q

brain networks

A

brain regions that are thought to facilitate similar functions, becuase they are active at the same time as one another

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66
Q

autonomic nervous system (ANS)

A

innervate (supples nerves to) the endocrine glands, the heart, and smooth muscles throughout the body

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67
Q

two branches of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

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68
Q

sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

A

“fight or flight” response

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69
Q

parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

A

“calm down”; helps body conserve resources

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70
Q

HPA axis

A

hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and arsenal cortex; involved in response to stress

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71
Q

stress has an effect on…

A

the immune system

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72
Q

cytokines

A

a protein that initiate responses to infection such as fatigue, inflammation, and activation of the HPA axis

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73
Q

reductionism

A

the view that when studying something it can be reduced to basic elements; such as understanding the function of neurons in order to understand mental disorders

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74
Q

behavioral activation (BA) therapy

A

engage in tasks that are positively reinforcing

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75
Q

exposure therapy

A

anxiety will extinguish if the person can face the situation long enough with no actual harm occurring

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76
Q

cognition

A

broad category of mental processes of perceiving, recognizing, conceiving, judging, and reasoning

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77
Q

schema

A

organized network of previously accumulated knowledge

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78
Q

if new information doesn’t fit a schema…

A
  • reorganize the schema, or
  • construe information to fit schema
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79
Q

implicit memory

A

a memory formed without conscious awareness

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80
Q

cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)

A

attends to thoughts, perceptions, judgements, self-statements, and unconscious assumptions

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81
Q

cognitive restructuring

A

changing a pattern of thought

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82
Q

thoughts are regarded as…

A

causing the other features of the disorder

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83
Q

moods

A

emotional experiences that endure for a longer period of time

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84
Q

expressive emotion response

A

behavioral and facial expressions

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85
Q

experiential emotion response

A

subjective feeling; how someone reports how they feel at any given moment

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86
Q

physiological emotion response

A

changes int eh body that accompany emotion

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87
Q

ideal affect

A

kinds of emotional states that a person ideally wants to feel

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88
Q

ideal affect…

A
  • varies depending on cultural factors
  • shown to be linked to drug use
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89
Q

the quality of relationships…

A

influences different disorders

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90
Q

interpersonal therapy (IPT)

A

impact of current relationships on psychopathology

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91
Q

diagnosis

A

agreed-on definitions and classification of disorders by symptoms and signs

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92
Q

reliability

A

consistency of measurement; measured from 0 to 1.0

93
Q

content validity

A

whether a measure adequately samples the domain of interest

94
Q

information the DSM-5 provides for each disorder

A

diagnostic criteria for a diagnosis; description of associated features; summary of research literature; defines diagnoses on the basis of symptoms; chapters are organized to reflect patters of comorbidity and shared causes

95
Q

comorbidity

A

presence of a second diagnosis

96
Q

negative effect of diagnoses

A
  • diagnosis might contribute to stigma
  • may lose sight of the uniqueness of that person
97
Q

structured interviews

A

standardized interview; all interviewers ask the same questions in a predetermined order

98
Q

stress

A

subjective experience of distress in response to perceived environmental problems

99
Q

life stressors

A

environmental problems that trigger the subjective sense of stress

100
Q

personal inventory

A

self-report questionnaire

101
Q

cognitive tests

A

assess current cognitive ability; used to predict school performance, diagnose learning disabilities or intellectual ability, and included in neuropsychological examinations

102
Q

experience sampling

A

individuals self-monitor and track their own behavior

103
Q

self-report questionnaires

A

use to help plan treatment targets; can help to determine if change occurred in response to an intervention

104
Q

computerized axial tomography (CT or CAT)

A

detects differences in tissue density or structural abnormalities; some radiation

105
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

electromagnetic signals translate into a picture of brain tissue; no radiation

106
Q

functional MRI (fMRI)

A

measures blood flow in the brain, proxy for neural activity

107
Q

positron emission tomography (PET)

A

used to assess neurotransmitter functioning in the brain

108
Q

single photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT)

A

radioactive isotope is injected into the bloodstream

109
Q

connectivity

A

areas of the brain that communicate with one another

110
Q

structural (anatomical) connectivity

A

how different parts of the brain are connected via white matter

111
Q

functional connectivity

A

how different parts of the brain are correlated based on fMRI BOLD signals

112
Q

effective connectivity

A

reveals correlations between BOLD activation and direction and timing of those activations

113
Q

psychophysiology

A

study of bodily changes associated with psychological events

114
Q

strategies to avoid bias

A
  • increase graduate students’ cultural awareness
  • ensure participants understand assessment tasks
  • distinguish “cultural responsiveness” from “cultural stereotyping”
  • cultural humility
115
Q

science

A

the systematic pursuit of knowledge through observation; forming a theory and gathering data to test theory

116
Q

theory

A

set of propositions developed to explain observations

117
Q

hypotheses

A

expectations about what should occur if a theory is true

118
Q

case study

A

recording detailed information about one person at a time

119
Q

correlational method

A

variables measured as they exist in nature; Do variable X and variable Y vary together?; cannot determine cause-effect relationships

120
Q

longitudinal design

A

studies participants over time; examines whether causes are present before disorder develops

121
Q

high-risk method

A

include only those who are at greatest likelihood of developing a disorder; reduces the cost of longitudinal research

122
Q

cross-sectional design

A

measures the causes and effects at the same point in time

123
Q

third-variable problem

A

variable Z causes both variable X and variable Y

124
Q

directionality problem

A

variable X may cause variable Y or variable Y may cause variable X

125
Q

overcoming the directionality problem

A

longitudinal design, high-risk method, cross-sectional design, third-variable problem

126
Q

epidemiology

A

study of the distribution of disorders in a population

127
Q

three features of a disorder

A

prevalence, incidence, correlates

128
Q

prevalence

A

proportion of people with disorder currently or during lifetime

129
Q

incidence

A

proportion of new cases in some time period

130
Q

correlates

A

variables associated with presence of disorder

131
Q

examples of correlational research

A
  • family method
  • twin method
  • adoption studies
  • cross-fostering
132
Q

the experiment

A
  • most powerful tool for determining causal relationships
  • involves: random assignment, independent variable, dependent variable
  • used to evaluate treatment effectiveness
133
Q

experimental effect

A

differences between conditions on the dependent variable

134
Q

internal validity

A

extent to which experimental effect is due to the independent variable (vs. other possible explanations/confounds)

135
Q

control group

A

participants who do not receive treatment

136
Q

external validity

A

extent to which results generalize beyond the study

137
Q

single-case experiments

A

experimenter studies how one person responds to manipulations to an independent variable

138
Q

comparison group

A

provides evidence that changes during treatment were due to the treatment

139
Q

treatment-as-usual

A

comparison of standard treatment to a new treatment offering

140
Q

placebo control

A

engage patient’s attention but without active ingredients of therapy

141
Q

active treatment control

A

compare new treatment against well-tested treatment

142
Q

dissemination

A

process of adoption of efficacious treatments in the community

143
Q

replication

A

findings from one research study hold up when that study is repeated a second time; reproducible findings

144
Q

publication bias

A

tendency to publish only positive results

145
Q

issues in research methods that can contribute to replication failures

A
  • small samples
  • unreliable measures
  • methods of original research study are not described well
  • methodological differences or sample characteristics
146
Q

confirmation bias

A

selecting findings that support hypotheses

147
Q

p-hacking

A

tweaking data until a significant finding is identified

148
Q

anxiety

A

apprehension over an anticipated problem; future oriented; moderate physiological arousal

149
Q

fear

A

a reaction to immediate danger; fight or flight response; present oriented; higher physiological arousal

150
Q

DSM-5 anxiety disorders

A
  • specific phobia
  • social anxiety disorder
  • panic disorder
  • agoraphobia
  • generalized anxiety disorder
151
Q

DSM-5 criteria for each anxiety disorder

A
  • symptoms interfere with important areas of functioning
  • symptoms are not caused by a drug or a medical condition
  • the fears and anxieties are distinct from the symptom of another anxiety disorder
152
Q

specific phobias

A

disproportionate fear caused by a specific object or situation

153
Q

DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for specific phobia

A
  • marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation
  • the phobic object or situation almost always provokes immediate fear or anxiety
  • the phobic object or situation is actively avoided or endured with intense fear or anxiety
  • the fear or anxiety is out of proportion to the actual danger posed by the specific object or situation and to the sociocultural context
  • the fear, anxiety, or avoidance is persistent, typically lasting for 6 months or more
  • the fear, anxiety, or avoidance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
154
Q

Mowrer’s two-factor model

A
  • step 1: classical conditioning –> a person learns to fear a neutral stimulus that is paried with an intrinsically aversive stimulus
  • step 2: operant conditioning –> a person gains relief by avoiding the stimulus and avoidance is maintained through negative reinforcement
155
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

persistent unrealistically intense fear of one or more social situations that might involve being scrutinized by or exposed to unfamiliar people

156
Q

DSM-5 diagnosis criteria for social anxiety disorder

A
  • marked and disproportionate fear consistently triggered by exposure to potential social scrutiny
  • exposure to the trigger leads to intense anxiety about being evaluated negatively
  • trigger situations are avoided or else endured with intense anxiety
  • anxiety must occur in one or more situations
157
Q

etiology of social anxiety disorder - behavioral factors

A
  • classical and operant conditioning
  • safety behaviors maintain and intensify social difficulties
158
Q

etiology of social anxiety disorder - cognitive factors

A
  • overly negative in evaluating their social performance
  • excessive attention to internal (e.g., heart rate) vs. external (e.g., social) cues
159
Q

panic attack

A

sudden attack of intense apprehension, terror, and feelings of impending doom; symptoms come on rapidly and peak in intensity within 10 minutes

160
Q

panic attacks accompanied by at least four other symptoms

A
  • physical symptoms
  • depersonalization
  • derealization
  • fears of going crazy, losing control, or dying
161
Q

physical symptoms that can occur with panic attacks

A

shortness of breath, heart palpitations, nausea, upset stomach, chest pain, feelings of choking and smothering, dizziness, lightheadedness, faintness, sweating, chills, heat sensations, numbness or tingling sensations, and trembling

162
Q

depersonalization

A

feeling of being outside one’s body

163
Q

derealization

A

feeling of the world not being real

164
Q

panic disorder

A

recurrent panic attacks unrelated to specific situations; worry about having more panic attacks

165
Q

DSM-5 criteria for panic disorder

A
  • recurrent unexpected panic attacks
  • at least 1 month of concern about the possibility of more attacks occurring or the consequences of an attack, or maladaptive behavioral changes because of the attacks
166
Q

etiology of panic disorder - cognitive influences

A
  • catastrophic misinterpretations of somatic changes –> interpreted as impending doom, beliefs increase anxiety and arousal and creates a vicious cycle
167
Q

anxiety sensitivity index

A

measures intensity of fear in response to bodily sensation; self-report questionnaire

168
Q

etiology of panic disorder - behavioral factors

A

interoceptive conditioning -> classical conditioning of panic in response to internal bodily sensations and operant conditioning

169
Q

agoraphobia

A

anxiety about situations in which it would be embarrassing or difficult to escape if anxiety symptoms occurred; causes significant impairment in daily life

170
Q

DSM-5 criteria of agoraphobia

A
  • disproportionate and marked fear or anxiety about at least 2 situations where it would be difficult to escape or receive help in the event of incapacitation, embarrassing symptoms, or panic-like symptoms
  • these situations consistently provoke fear or anxiety
  • these situations are avoided, require the presence of a companion or are endured with intense fear or anxiety
171
Q

etiology of agoraphobia

A
  • genetic vulnerability
  • life events
  • fear-of-fear hypothesis
172
Q

fear-of-fear hypothesis

A

negative thoughts about the consequences of experiencing anxiety in public; catastrophic beliefs that anxiety will lead to socially unacceptable consequences

173
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

excessive, uncontrollable, and long-lasting worry about minor things

174
Q

worry

A

cognitive tendency to chew on a problem and to be unable to let go of it

175
Q

age of onset for GAD

A

adolescence

176
Q

DSM-5 criteria for GAD

A
  • excessive anxiety and worry at least 50% of days about multiple domains of events or activities
  • the person finds it hard to control the worry
  • the anxiety and worry are associated with at least three (or one in children) of the following: restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge, tiring easily, difficulty concentrating or mind going blank, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance
177
Q

etiology of GAD

A

contrast avoidance model

178
Q

contrast avoidance model

A
  • people with GAD find it highly aversive to experience shifts in emotions
  • to avoid shifts, they prefer a constant state of worry
  • keep a more stable emotional state so they experience less of an increase in physiological arousal in response to negative stimuli
179
Q

comorbidity with anxiety disorders

A

more than 50% of those with anxiety disorder meet criteria for another anxiety disorder; 75% of those with anxiety disorder meet criteria for another PD; 60% also have depression; OCD also common

180
Q

gender factors for anxiety disorders

A

women are twice as likely as men to have an anxiety disorder

181
Q

classical conditioning in Mowrer’s model can occur in different ways

A
  • direct experience
  • modeling
  • verbal instruction
182
Q

genetic factors of anxiety disorders

A
  • twin studies suggest heritability of about 50-60%
  • some genes may elevate risk for several anxiety disorders
  • genetic vulnerability for anxiety and depression may overlap
183
Q

neurobiological correlates with anxiety disorders

A
  • brain regions (amygdala, medial prefrontal cortex)
  • activity of neurotransmitters (low serotonin and GABA, increased levels of norepinephrine)
  • HPA axis
184
Q

personality factors related to anxiety

A
  • behavioral inhibition
  • neuroticism
185
Q

behavioral inhibition

A

tendency to become agitated, distressed, and cry in unfamiliar or novel settings

186
Q

neuroticism

A

tendency to experience frequent or intense negative affect

187
Q

cognitive factors related to anxiety

A
  • sustained negative beliefs about the future
  • belief that one lacks control over environment
  • attention to threat
188
Q

treatment of anxiety disorders

A
  • exposure
  • mindfulness and acceptance treatments
  • CBT for social anxiety
  • social skills training
189
Q

treatment of agoraphobia

A
  • CBT
  • systematic exposure to feared situations
190
Q

treatment of GAD

A
  • relaxation training to promote calmness
  • cognitive behavioral methods (improve problem-solving, challenge and modify negative thoughts, increase ability to tolerate uncertainty, worry only during “scheduled” times, focus on present moment)
191
Q

medication for anxiety disorder

A
  • anxiolytics
  • antidepressants
  • benzodiazepines (e.g., Valium, Xanax)
192
Q

anxiolytics

A

drugs that reduce anxiety

193
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

diagnosis based on presence of obsessions and/or compulsions

194
Q

age of onset for OCD

A

often begins before the age of 14

195
Q

obsessions

A
  • intrusive and persistent thoughts, images, or impulses that are uncontrollable
  • often person recognizes the thoughts are irrational
  • most common: contamination, responsibility for harm, sex and morality, violence, religion, and symmetry/order
196
Q

compulsions

A

repetitive, clearly excessive behaviors or mental acts to reduce anxiety; negatively reinforcing

197
Q

DSM-5 criteria for OCD

A
  • obsessions –> recurrent, intrusive, persistent unwanted thoughts, urges, or images; the person tried to ignore, suppress or neutralize the thoughts, urges, or images
  • compulsions –> repetitive behaviors or thoughts that the person feels compelled to perform to prevent distress or a dreaded event; the person feels driven to perform the repetitive behaviors or thoughts in response to obsessions or according to rigid rules
  • the obsessions or compulsions are either: time consuming or cause clinically significant distress and/or impairment
198
Q

etiology of OCD - behavioral models

A
  • previously functional responses for reducing threat become habitual
  • responses are difficult to override after the threat is gone
  • once a conditioned response is developed, it is slower to change the response
199
Q

etiology of OCD - cognitive models

A
  • people with OCD try harder to suppress their obsessions than others
  • thought-action fusion –> thinking about something is as morally wrong as engaging in the action; thinking about an event makes it more likely to occur; tendency to feel responsible for preventing harm
200
Q

body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

A

preoccupation with one or more imagined or exaggerated defect in appearance

201
Q

BDD behaviors

A
  • find it difficult to stop thinking about their concerns (on average, 3-8 hours per day)
  • compelled to engage in certain behaviors to reduce distress (e.g., checking appearance in mirror)
  • symptoms are extremely distressing
  • interferes with functioning
202
Q

DSM-5 criteria for BDD

A
  • preoccupation with one or more perceived defects in appearance
  • others find the perceived defect(s) as slight or unobservable
  • the person has performed repetitive behaviors or mental acts (e.g., mirror checking, seeking reassurance, or excessive grooming) in response to the appearance concerns
  • preoccupation is not restricted to concerns about weight or body fat
203
Q

etiology of BDD

A
  • people with BDD are usually detail-oriented, which influences how they look at features
  • instead of looking at the whole, they examine one feature at a time
  • consider attractiveness more important than others
  • many have history of appearance-related teasing
204
Q

hoarding disorder

A

the need to acquire is excessive; extremely attached to possessions; very resistant to efforts to get rid of them

205
Q

age of onset for hoarding disorder

A

often begins in childhood or early adolescence

206
Q

DSM-5 criteria for hoarding disorder

A
  • persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value
  • perceived need to save items
  • distress associated with discarding
  • the accumulation of a large number of possessions clutters active living spaces to the extent that their intended use is compromised unless others intervene
207
Q

etiology of hoarding disorder

A
  • poor organizational abilities (difficulties with attention, categorization, and decision making)
  • unusual beliefs about possessions (ability to see potential in each object, extreme emotional attachment to objects)
  • avoidance behaviors
208
Q

treatment of OCD, BDD, and hoarding disorder - medications

A
  • antidepressants
  • SSRIs (serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
209
Q

treatment of OCD - exposure and response prevention (ERP)

A
  • exposure to situations that elicit obsessions
  • prevention from engaging in compulsive behaviors
  • exposure hierarchy –> begins with tackling less threatening stimuli and progresses to more threatening stimuli
  • 69-75% show significant improvement
210
Q

treatment of BDD - ERP

A
  • exposure to situations that elicit obsessions –> interact with people critical of their looks
  • prevention from engaging in compulsive behaviors –> avoid activities used to reassure themselves about their appearance
  • many people continue to experience at least mild symptoms after treatment
211
Q

treatment of hoarding disorder - ERP

A
  • exposure to situations that elicit obsessions –> getting rid of possessions
  • prevention from engaging in compulsive behaviors –> counting or sorting possessions
  • motivational strategies to facilitate insight into problems caused by symptoms
  • tools and strategies to help organize and remove clutter
212
Q

treatment of OCD, BDD, and hoarding disorder - cognitive therapy

A
  • challenge beliefs about anticipated consequences of not engaging in compulsions
  • treatment outcomes comparable to ERP
213
Q

treatment of OCD - deep brain stimulation

A

implanting electrodes into the brain, half attain significant relief within a couple of months

214
Q

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

exposure to a serious trauma –> an event that involved actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violation

215
Q

PTSD symptoms in four categories

A
  • intrusion –> e.g., recurrent and intrusive memories, dreams, flashbacks
  • avoidance –> internal and external reminders
  • persistent negative alterations in cognitions and mood –> e.g., negative beliefs and negative emotional states
  • recurrent changes in arousal and reactivity –> e.g., aggressiveness, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response
216
Q

age of onset for PTSD

A

symptom duration of >1 month; symptoms may develop soon after the trauma

217
Q

other symptoms of PTSD

A

unemployment, suicidality, and medical illness

218
Q

PTSD epidemiology

A
  • usually comorbid with other conditions –> anxiety disorders, depression, substance use, conduct disorder, personality disordr
  • 1.5 to 2 times more likely in women
219
Q

acute stress disorder (ASD)

A
  • symptoms similar to PTSD
  • shorter duration of symptoms
220
Q

age of onset for ASD

A

3 days to 1 month after trauma

221
Q

etiology of PTSD - commonalities with other anxiety disorders

A
  • genetic risk
  • differences in brain activity –> greater amygdala activation in response to threat, diminished activation of regions of medial prefrontal cortex
  • childhood exposure to trauma
  • greater reactivity to signals of threat
  • Mowrer’s two-factor model of conditioning
222
Q

etiology of PTSD - unique factors

A
  • severity and type of trauma –> directly witnessing violence vs. indirect exposure; trauma caused by humans vs. natural disasters
  • neurobiology: the hippocampus
  • protective factors –> cognitive abilities and social support
223
Q

coping with trauma - dissociation

A

people who cope with trauma by trying to avoid it may be more likely to develop PTSD

224
Q

dissociation

A

a form of avoidance, keeping a person from confronting memories

225
Q

treatment of PTSD - medications

A
  • SSRIs –> Paxil and Zoloft
  • Benzodiazepine (e.g., Xanax)
226
Q

treatment of PTSD - exposure therapy

A
  • focus on memories and reminders of trauma
  • exposure hierarchy
227
Q

treatment of PTSD - cognitive therapy

A

reduce overly negative interpretation about trauma and its meaning

228
Q

treatment of PTSD - short-term treatment

A

short-term treatment of ASD may prevent PTSD

229
Q

age of onset of anxiety disorders

A

symptoms persist for at least 6 months (at least 1 month for panic disorder)

PSYC 360: Psychological Disorders (3 decks)

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