exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what type of gating is LA for the sodium channel

A

voltage-gated

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2
Q

normally, sodium ________ a cell, the cell becomes more _____________, and _________________ occurs

A

sodium enters
cell positive
depolarization occurs

LAs block this! They block impulse propagation!

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3
Q

ligand gated involves a ___________ messenger (neurotransmitter) such as ____

A

second messenger
Ach

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4
Q

LAs are _____-dependent

A

dose

larger amount of LA blocks a respectively larger number of channels

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5
Q

true or false

nerve fibers can be sensory, motor, or both

A

true

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6
Q

how are nerve fibers blocked? in order of:

A

size
myelination variables

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7
Q

what is blocked FIRST, small or large nerve fibers

A

small fibers (B or C)

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8
Q

what is blocked FIRST, myelinated or unmyelinated

A

unmyelinated

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9
Q

what type of fibers do LAs work fastest

A

B fibers

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10
Q

LAs have a _____________/____________ threshold

A

functional/minimal

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11
Q

true or false

for LAs, until a minimum dose is met, there will be NO effect

A

true

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12
Q

true or false

LAs are:
concentration-dependent
dose-dependent
volume-dependent

in order to have an effect

A

true

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13
Q

AFFERENT neurons are also known as

A

somatosensory

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14
Q

EFFERENT neurons are also known as

A

motor

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15
Q

what types of nerves are afferent, efferent, and autonomic

A

SOMATIC portion of the PNS

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16
Q

what do autonomic neurons do

A

sensory
motor
autonomic functions: signal brain and spinal cord to control visceral elements (hemodynamics, digestion)

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17
Q

spinal nerves that travel to the thoracic and abdominal compartments

A

intercostal nerves

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18
Q

outside the spinal cord, spinal nerves =

A

peripheral nerves

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19
Q

what is the functional unit of the nerve
(individual fiber of nerve)

A

axon

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20
Q

what type of cells surround the axon

A

schwann (in layers)

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21
Q

myelin sheaths surround the _______

A

axon

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22
Q

interspersed among the axon at spaces that are NOT myelinated

A

nodes of ranvier

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23
Q

where is a primary site for LAs action

A

nodes of ranvier

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24
Q

“Axon intervals”: voltage gated sodium channels that propagate the nerve conduction

A

nodes of ranvier

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25
Q

true or false, smallest to largest:

fiber/axon < fascicles (bundles of axons) < fibers (afferent/efferent) < peripheral nerve

A

true

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26
Q

resting membrane nerve potential

A

-60 to -90 mV

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27
Q

3 states of sodium channel

A

1) activated/open
2) inactivated/closed
3) resting/closed

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28
Q

where can LAs NOT act

A

resting/closed

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29
Q

state of sodium channel also known as “refractory period”

A

inactivated/closed

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30
Q

what are the largest and fastest fibers

A

A (especially A alpha)

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31
Q

order of ease of blockade (which occur first, then last)

A

B fibers, C fibers, then A delta, then A alpha

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32
Q

Recovery or “Wearing Off” of Blockade

A

A-alpha, then A-delta, then C fibers, then B fibers

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33
Q

sensory/afferent = ______lateral aspect of the cord

A

dorso

(from the body)

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34
Q

motor/efferent = _______lateral aspect of the cord

A

ventro

(to the body)

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35
Q

These 2 roots converge to form a spinal nerve before dividing into dorsal and ventral rami which innervate anterior and posterior structures

A

dorsal root
ventral root

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36
Q

subarachnoid/spinal space
_________ dose

A

smaller

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37
Q

epidural space
_________ dose

A

larger

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38
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves

A

31 pairs

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39
Q

how many bones

A

33

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40
Q

cervical NERVES

A

8*

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41
Q

cervical nerves lie ______ the named vertebral body

EXCEPT for ____, which is _________

A

ABOVE

(except for the 8th, which is below the vertebral body)

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42
Q

cervical VERTEBRAE

A

7

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43
Q

thoracic NERVES

A

12

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44
Q

thoracic VERTEBRAE

A

12

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45
Q

lumbar VERTEBRAE

A

5

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46
Q

lumbar NERVES

A

5

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47
Q

sacral VERTEBRAE

A

5

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48
Q

sacral NERVES

A

5

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49
Q

coccygeal NERVE

A

1

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50
Q

coccygeal VERTEBRAE

A

4*

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51
Q

cervical spinous processes are pointed _________

A

caudad (toward the feet)

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52
Q

lumbar spinous processes are pointed _________

A

straight

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53
Q

landmark:
cricoid cartilage

A

C6

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54
Q

landmark:
most prominent cervical level called “vertebral prominens”

A

C7

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55
Q

landmark:
superior angle of the scapula and sternal notch

A

T2

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56
Q

landmark:
plane of Ludwig; carina; angle of Louis

A

T4

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57
Q

landmark:
inferior angle of the scapulae

A

T7

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58
Q

landmark:
xiphoid process

A

T9

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59
Q

landmark:
umbilicus

A

T10

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60
Q

landmark:
superior iliac crest

A

L4

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61
Q

what goes farther, sensation or motor?

A

sensation (dermatomes)

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62
Q

true or false
there is OVERLAP in nerve function

A

true

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63
Q

plexus:

cervical

A

C1-C4

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64
Q

plexus:

brachial

A

C5-T1

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65
Q

plexus:

lumbar

A

T12-L4

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66
Q

plexus:

sacral

A

L4-S4

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67
Q

the brachial plexus is located between the __________ and ________ scalene muscles

A

anterior
middle

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68
Q

Triceps
Supination
Extension of wrist
Extension of other fingers
ABduction of thumb

A

radial

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69
Q

Follows the track of the brachial artery (lying MEDIAL to it)

Pronates
Flexion of wrist + elbow
Flexion of fingers and thumb
ABduction of thumb

A

mediaN

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70
Q

Formed from C8-T1

Follows the brachial artery following the posterior aspect of the medial epicondyle

Flexion of wrist, ring, and pinky finger
Flexion of thumb
ADduction of fingers + thumb

A

ulnar

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71
Q

nerve:

Formed from L2-L4

A

femoral

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72
Q

nerve:

Formed from L4-S3

A

tibial

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73
Q

nerve:

Formed from L4-S2

A

common peroneal

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74
Q

nerve:

Formed from tibial + common peroneal

Extension of hip
Flexion of knee
Plantarflexion of ankle
Dorsiflexion of ankle
All movements of the toes

A

sciatic

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75
Q

why block a plexus, instead of an individual nerve (2)

A
  • In case there is an anomaly
  • Convenience (they are very close together)
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76
Q

binds to the lipid side with carbon OXYGEN

A

ester

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77
Q

Metabolism: plasma/pseudocholinesterases

Caution with: pseudo cholinesterase deficiency; risk of toxicity due to SLOWER metabolism!

A

ester

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78
Q

Less stable; shorter ½ life; shorter acting

More easily hydrolyzed/broken apart

A

ester

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79
Q

Allergies are MORE likely

  • Metabolites para-amino benzoic acid (PABA); causes reaction
A

ester

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80
Q

binds to the lipid side with carbon NITROGEN + HYDROGEN

A

amide

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81
Q

Metabolism: P450 enzymes (liver)

Caution with: liver disease, protein binding issue, enzyme inducing issue!

A

amide

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82
Q

More stable; longer ½ life; longer acting

Less likely to be hydrolyzed/broken apart

A

amide

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83
Q

Some allergies can still occur, rarer
* Due to preservatives such as methylparaben in the LA

A

amide

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84
Q

most common LAs for allergies:
amide

A

prilocaine

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85
Q

most common LAs for allergies:
ester

A

procaine

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86
Q

what is the longest acting ester

A

tetracaine

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87
Q

_________ are more lipophilic and protein bound of the LAs

longer acting

A

amides

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88
Q

lipophilic portion (ring)

A

aromatic ring

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89
Q

linker region (classifies LA)

A

ester or amide

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90
Q

lipophilic region of LA

A

hydrocarbon chain

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91
Q

ionizable/hydrophilic region of the LA

A

tertiary amine

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92
Q

when does metabolism of LAs occur

A

during “uptake”

once the non-intravascular injected LA gets into circulation/plasma/bloodstream

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93
Q

what is the exception, the only one that does NOT get metabolized by pseudocholinesterase for esters

A

cocaine (metabolized in the liver)

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94
Q

An LA can have a long clinical effect until it gets into the bloodstream

DECREASES toxicity!

A

slow uptake

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95
Q

true or false

we want to SLOW the UPTAKE process

A

true

example: epi

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96
Q

where are plasma/pseudo cholinesterases found

A

OUTSIDE the NMJ
(in the plasma)

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97
Q

what is Ach metabolized by

A

acetylcholinesterase drugs (inside the NMJ)

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98
Q

what is the best LA group for true allergic patients

A

preservative-free amide LA

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99
Q

what 2 LAs are common culprits of methemoglobinemia

A

benzocaine (hurricane spray)
prilocaine

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100
Q

signs of methemoglobinemia (3)

A

tachypnea
low PO2 “blue blood”
LEFT shift (inability of Hgb to carry oxygen)

presents like a PE

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101
Q

treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

methylene blue (1-2 mg/kg IV)

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102
Q

the pH at which ½ of the drug is unionized and ionized

A

pKa

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103
Q

If a pH solution (patient) is ________ than the pKa of the drug, then the LA becomes more ionized/hydrophilic, and is LESS able to enter the nerve and have its effect

A

LOWER

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104
Q

with infections, the LA onset is _________ and _______ dense

A

slower and less dense

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105
Q

another term for lipid-solubility in LAs

A

alkalization

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106
Q

what 3 things are associated with lipid philicity

A

binds better to tissue
longer duration
higher potency

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107
Q

_________________ is what allows sodium channel to close

A

hydrophilicity

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108
Q

When a drug has a HIGH pKA, it becomes more _____________ to enter the nerve for action

A

high pKa= more DIFFICULT

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109
Q

a HIGH pKa = more ___________/____________

A

ionized/hydrophilic

this can be exaggerated when pH is lower or with additives that make the pH lower

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110
Q

LAs enter the nerve, ______________________________, ionized portion binds

A

equilibration of non-ionized and ionized portion = pKa equal

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111
Q

3 factors of duration/longevity of action of LAs

A

1) starting dose

2) tissue distribution (lipid solubility)

3) drug metabolism = delay of uptake

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112
Q

true or false

the larger the dose of LA, the longer the duration

A

true

113
Q

increased blood flow is ____________ related to duration of action

A

inversely

opposite

114
Q

systemic absorption of LA can be affected by 3 things

A

site of injection (vessel rich vs vessel poor)

dose

properties (pKa, pH, lipophilicity, protein binding)

115
Q

HIGH protein binding (adherence to tissue) ___________ uptake*

A

decreases uptake (makes it last longer!)

free drug is more quickly used up

116
Q

what represents the duration of clinical utility

A

uptake of LA

117
Q

what organ removes a large portion of LA (especially lidocaine)

A

lungs

118
Q

after injection into tissue, it is how long the LA stays in the tissue (around the nerve) before it gets absorbed into circulation/plasma and taken away for metabolism

A

clinical duration of action

119
Q

Rates of Uptake from Fastest to Slowest*

(shortest to longest duration)

A

IV (inadvertent) > tracheal > intercostal > caudal/sacrum > epidural > brachial plexus > femoral = tied with sciatic

120
Q

what LA disables pseudo/plasmacholinesterase

A

dibucaine

121
Q

the higher the dibucaine number, the __________

A

better

example: dibucaine 80; 80% of enzyme (plasmacholinesterase) is inhibited

122
Q

what drugs are affected by plasma cholinesterases (4)

A

remifentanil
esmolol
Sch
esters

123
Q

toxicity with LAs is due to ______________ of inhibitory neurons

A

depression

124
Q

signs of LAST (5)

A

SNS symptoms:

ringing in ears

circumoral numbness

tongue numbness

seizures, hyperexcitation

resp arrest, cardiac collapse
(DECREASED conductance)

125
Q

LAST can cause smooth muscle _______________

A

relaxation

126
Q

which type of LAs are associated with cardiac toxicity (3)

A

high-protein binding
longer acting drugs
bupivacaine

127
Q

.25% is _____mg/ml

A

2.5

128
Q

toxicity of LAs occur __-__ minutes from time of injection

A

1!!-5 min

this is often due to it being intravascular (IV)

129
Q

how can you prevent toxicity of LAs (7)

A
  • Frequent aspiration
  • Avoidance of excessive dosing
  • Use of ultrasound
  • Test-dosing for epidurals
  • Incremental dosing

stay below MAX dose

use less lipophilic drugs

130
Q

A form of toxicity in the INTRATHECAL space; nerve roots

permanent

loss of function
intractable pain

A

cauda equina syndrome

131
Q

causes of cauda equina syndrome or TNS (3)

A

LAs in prolonged exposure

Mechanical processes such as infection, compression/hematoma, or structural changes

Subarachnoid catheters (particularly with lidocaine, high concentration 5%)

132
Q

Resolvable within a few weeks

loss of function
intractable pain

A

transient neurologic symptoms (TNS)

133
Q

“Sympathectomy”

A

LAST

134
Q

LAs are additive**

A

if giving 2, you need to 1/2 it

135
Q

what is the most lipophilic LA

A

bupivacaine

136
Q

4 drugs and 1 thing to do for LAST treatment

A

benzos (best option)

propofol (10%)

20% lipid solution/chelating agent

paralytic

oxygenation/ventilation/control airway

137
Q

CARDIAC treatment for LAST

A

smaller doses of epi
100 mcg

138
Q

what is the best method to sustain a patient for LAST

A

cardiac bypass

139
Q

What can exacerbate severity of LAST (5)

A

seizure threshold (HIGH PaCO2)

high PaCO2, hypoventilation

acidosis

hypoxia

hyperkalemia

140
Q

what is the best treatment for LAST
respiratory

A

hyperventilation

141
Q

true or false

toxicity is NOT a “large dose”

A

true

often, it is a higher % concentration

142
Q

how are LAs discussed (2)

A

% concentration
volume

143
Q

g/____ml

A

100ml

144
Q

LA additives:

steroids (1)

A

duration/improve blockade

145
Q

LA additives:

alpha 2 agonist (2)
clonidine + dex

A

less pain (potency)

duration/improve blockade

(neurodepressive)

146
Q

LA additives:

opioids (3)

A

lessen pain (potency)

pontentiation/cumulative effect

speed of onset (efficacy)

does NOT affect density or duration

synergistic with LAs

147
Q

LA additives:

sodium bicarb (2)

A

lessen pain (potency)

speed of onset (efficacy)

148
Q

LA additives:

epi (3)

A

safety

lessens pain (potency)

duration

149
Q

which is more prominent, alpha 2 agonists or epi

A

alpha 2 agonists

150
Q

Has a unique metabolite; o-toluidine; this is a pre-cursor for methemoglobin

A

prilocaine

151
Q

permanently non-ionized (lipophilic ALWAYS; rapid onset)

has the ability to cause methemoglobinemia

secondary amine

A

BENZOcaine

152
Q

o Not used anymore
o Historically was used regularly for sub-arachnoid block (spinal)

reports of neurotoxicity

A

5% lidocaine

153
Q

Has a particular propensity to cause cardiac effects (high affinity) more than other LAs

Has a LONG duration of action, highly lipid-soluble

A

BUPIVacaine

154
Q

Behaves similarly to bupivacaine with respect to onset/time/duration

However, it has less cardiotoxic effects and generally has less pronounced motor block potency

Second generation

Safer

A

ROPIVacaine

155
Q

EMLA cream

eutectic mixture (LOWER boiling point)

_____________+______________

A

lidocaine + prilocaine

156
Q

how far in advance does EMLA cream need to be applied

A

1 hour

157
Q

o A sustained release LA
o Designated for infiltration, this LA is found to have prolonged duration of action, presumably due to DELAYED uptake!

LONGEST DURATION of action (24-48 hours)

good for ortho/joint surgery

A

liposomal BUPIVacaine (EXPAREL)

158
Q

what can LAs be used for (5)

A

nerve blockade

inhibition of vent dysrhythmias

reduction in CBF (high ICP)

pain

blunt resp stimulation

159
Q

CAUTION to LAs for cardiac patients

A

heart block/conduction delay (can cause cardiac standstill)

beta blockers

calcium channel blockers

160
Q

how do we pick which LA to use (2)

A

onset/duration

safety factor

161
Q

If you need a LARGE volume of a certain medicine, you need to ____________ the % concentration, so you do not reach the max dose

A

DECREASE

162
Q

_______ axis of the needle

A

LONG

163
Q

_______ axis of the structure

A

SHORT

164
Q

reasons for regional anesthesia (4)

A

postop pain control

opioid reduction or elimination

avoidance of general anesthesia and airway manipulation

reduction in side effects of GAs (cardiac, lung, PONV)

165
Q

what are the 2 ABSOLUTE contraindications to regional

A

patient refusal

coagulopathy
(depending on severity of block and severity of lab value)

166
Q

what are the 4 RELATIVE contraindications to regional

A

infection

tolerance for pain (AMS)

risk vs benefit

risk for LAST

167
Q

infection: pH of the tissue is _________ the pKa

A

BELOW (more ionized)

168
Q

what is a patient at HIGH risk for PTX and regional is CONTRAindicated

A

COPD patient, at home with 4L O2, 50% CPAP at night

169
Q

what is the best type of skin prep

A

chloroprep

170
Q

how much lidocaine should be used for a skin wheel

A

0.5 to 1ml
1%
30g needle

171
Q

what type of system is used for a nerve stimulator

A

2-lead
positive: connected to EKG sticker
negative: nerve

172
Q

what type of needle is used with a 2-lead system

A

block/blunt/B needle

conical/rounded in shape

(does NOT have shearing action)

173
Q

true or false:
block needles only have electrical stimuli at the tip

A

true

174
Q

by adjusting the power/milliamp stimulation (turning it DOWN) you make it more ______________

A

sensitive

175
Q

how much milliamp do you want

A

.3 to .5 mA

176
Q

when do you want to inject LA

A

right after losing muscle movement

177
Q

true or false

ultrasound beam lies ONLY DIRECTLY UNDER the probe

A

true

178
Q

cross section = ________ axis

A

short

179
Q

longitudinal = _______ axis

A

long

180
Q

what do you want to use first _________ axis

A

short axis

181
Q

with short axis, you can see ________/________ or _________

A

left/right or WIDTH

182
Q

with long axis, you can see ________

A

depth

must be “in-plane”

183
Q

what is the ONLY upper approach that does NOT have risk of PTX

A

axillary

184
Q

paralysis of half the diaphragm

A

ipsilateral (SAME SIDE)

185
Q

ipsilateral (SAME SIDE) hemiparesis is related to what nerve

A

phrenic

186
Q

temporary, only occur during the duration of the block

uptake of LA into the head and neck may result in sympathetic blockade to nerves affecting facial structures (PNS symptoms!)

A

horner’s syndrome

187
Q

3 symptoms of horner’s syndrome

A

1) drooping of eye (ptosis)
2) pupil CONSTRICTION (miosis)
3) ABSENCE of sweat (anhidrosis)

188
Q

true or false

horner’s syndrome is temporary

A

true

189
Q

5 complications of UPPER regional blocks

A

1) PTX
2) ipsilateral hemiparesis
3) horner’s syndrome
4) hemorrhage
5) accidental vascular (IV) injection

190
Q

what approaches have a HIGH risk of hemorrhage (non-compressible)

A

infraclavicular, central

191
Q

what approach has LOW risk of hemorrhage

A

axillary

192
Q

cervical blockade can cause 5 issues

A

vertebral artery injection

sub-arachnoid injection

phrenic nerve paralysis (temp)

IV injection

vagus/recurrent laryngeal nerve blockade

193
Q

what nerve roots are associated with cervical

A

C2, C3, C4

194
Q

interscalene blocks:
________

A

trunks

think InTer (“IT”)

195
Q

SUPRAclavicular blocks:
___________

A

divisions

196
Q

INFRAclavicular block:
_______

A

cords

197
Q

axillary block:
_________

A

branches

198
Q

what nerve roots are involved in brachial plexus

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

199
Q

What are the “distal” plexus approaches

A

INFRAclavicular
axillary

200
Q

what is the only block that provides coverage to the shoulder

A

INTERscalene

201
Q

what is the landmark for interscalene

A

cricoid cartilage (C6)

202
Q

what 2 muscles is the interscalene block between

A

anterior and middle scalene

203
Q

which block has the HIGHEST risk for PTX

A

SUPRAclavicular

204
Q

what is a UPPER block that is challenging and painful

A

INFRAclavicular

205
Q

for axillary block:
which nerve is most SUPERFICIAL

A

median

206
Q

for axillary block:
which nerve is most DEEP

A

radial

207
Q

for axillary block:
which nerve is on TRICEPS side

A

ulnar

208
Q

for axillary block:
which nerve is on BICEPS side

A

musculocutaneous

209
Q

which block can use landmark technique,
less precise,
involves intentional puncture of artery

A

axillary “transarterial”

2 puncture sites

210
Q

how many mL for intercostal block

A

3-5 ml per site

211
Q

how deep of injection (inferior edge of rib)
for INTERCOSTAL block

A

2-3 mm

212
Q

which block is ONLY MIXED, not a sole anesthetic

A

trasversus abdominis plane (TAP)

213
Q

true or false

TAP block does NOT affect ambulation

A

true

214
Q

into what fascial plane do you inject for TAP block

A

transversus abdominus (fascial plane BEFORE reaching that muscle)

215
Q

what nerves are blocked in TAP

A

T9-L1

216
Q

what are the 3 muscles involved with TAP block

A

external oblique
internal oblique
transversus abdominis

217
Q

which block does NOT use ultrasound or landmarks

A

bier block
IV regional

218
Q

how long must tourniquet be inflated with bier block

A

AT LEAST 20 min

219
Q

who is CONTRAindicated from using bier block (3)

A

dialysis patients
mastectomy patients
trauma patients

220
Q

____mL of preservative-free, epi-free lidocaine is used
what ___%

A

50 ml
0.5%

221
Q

what 2 things occur with tourniquet release

A

HYPOthermia
HYPOtension

222
Q

how many mLs per level for PARAVERTEBRAL block

duration?

how many cm depth?

A

5ml

4 hour

1 cm

223
Q

what is a safe block for the back

A

erector spinae plane

224
Q

you want to see the erector spinae MUSCLE in the _______ axis

A

LONG (like the needle)

225
Q

erector spinae muscle:

TRANSVERSE PROCESS in the _______ axis

A

SHORT axis

226
Q

lumbar plexus

A

L2, L3, L4

227
Q

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

L2, L3

228
Q

obturator nerve

A

L2, L3, L4

229
Q

what are 2 main nerves that come out of the lumbar plexus

A

obturator
LFCN

230
Q

what is the drawback of the femoral nerve and LFCN block

A

canNOT ambulate

231
Q

tibial nerve causes:
_________flexion

A

plantar

232
Q

common peroneal nerve causes:
_________flexion

A

dorsi

233
Q

foot drop occurs when injured

A

common peroneal nerve

234
Q

femoral nerve block:

nerve is approached _____________ from the femoral artery

and ____________ the inguinal ligament/fascial layer

A

LATERAL
BELOW inguinal ligament

235
Q

how many mLs for a femoral nerve block

A

20-30ml

236
Q

what is the key target of the fascia iliaca block

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

(femoral occurs by default)

237
Q

2 other names for adductor canal block

A

saphenous nerve block

distal femoral block

238
Q

true or false

adductor canal block does NOT affect the hip

A

true

239
Q

true or false

which block is difficult to see the nerve (this is normal)

A

adductor canal block

240
Q

what is the target of the adductor canal block

A

below/adjacent to the sartorious muscle

241
Q

very few branches come off the ________ plexus

A

SACRAL

242
Q

how many cm along the perpendicular line should the sciatic nerve block occur

A

5 cm
CAUDAD

243
Q

where does the sciatic nerve divide:

____cm ABOVE the bend of the knee

A

10cm

244
Q

true or false
you still ambulate with a popliteal block

A

true

245
Q

which block requires the prone position

A

popliteal

246
Q

nerves are _________ to vein/artery

A

LATERAL

247
Q

tibial nerve is more ______________,
___________ to the vein and artery

A

MEDIAL
CLOSER to the vein/artery

248
Q

common peroneal nerve is more ______________,
___________ to the vein and artery

A

LATERAL
FARTHER from the vein/artery

249
Q

true or false

tibial nerve is LARGER

A

true

250
Q

true or false

tibial and common peroneal nerves are VERY CLOSE together

A

true

251
Q

5 nerves of the ankle

A

posterior tibial (PT)
saphenous
deep peroneal (DP)
superficial peroneal (SP)
sural

252
Q

posterior to the PT artery

A

PT nerve

253
Q

medial side, anterior to malleolus

A

saphenous

254
Q

lateral to anterior tibial artery

A

DP

255
Q

lateral, anterior to malleolus

A

superficial peroneal

256
Q

lateral, posterior to malleolus

A

sural

257
Q

true or false

ankle block is often LANDMARK guided

A

true

258
Q

sural sensation

A

pinky toe

259
Q

SP sensation

A

lateral/on the side

260
Q

DP sensation

A

between first and second tarsal

261
Q

PT and saph sensation

A

medial

262
Q

How does complete anesthesia of the leg or knee occur

A

Femoral + sciatic nerve block

263
Q

As long as you block ________ the site of surgery/pain, you are okay

A

ABOVE

264
Q

Which nerve would NOT be covered with a popliteal block

A

saphenous

265
Q

What nerve is covered by the Adductor Canal Block/saphenous Nerve Block

A

femoral

266
Q

What 6 nerves will the sciatic cover

A

tibial
common peroneal
PT
DP
SP
sural

267
Q

what is NOT covered by the interscalene block

A

ulnar nerve
and
sensory to the hand

268
Q

what is NOT covered by the supraclavicular block

A

shoulder

269
Q

what is NOT covered by the infraclavicular block

A

shoulder, upper arm

270
Q

what is NOT covered by the axillary block

A

shoulder, upper arm, elbow

271
Q

3 blocks for ANTERIOR KNEE

A

adductor
femoral
fascia iliaca

272
Q

3 blocks for ANKLE

A

popliteal
sciatic
ankle

273
Q

5 additives

A
  1. sodium bicarbonate
  2. epinephrine
  3. opioids
  4. alpha 2 agonist (clonidine)
  5. steroids (dexamethasone)
274
Q

adjusts the SENSITIVITY of the probe to the tissue

A

gain

275
Q

increases the DISTANCE that the probe scans the tissue

A

depth

certain probes may DECREASING WIDTH of the scan as DEPTH INCREASES

276
Q

C6

A

radial

277
Q

C7

A

medial

278
Q

C8

A

ulnar

279
Q

what site has the highest risk of toxicity

A

tracheal (highest rate of uptake, besides IV)