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CM1A E1 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What cells are typically. elevated in the presence of an infection?

A

Leukocytes

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2
Q

What are the granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

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3
Q

What are the Agrangulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes, Monocytes

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4
Q

What is the mnemonic for the proportions of different types of WBCs?

A

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils

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5
Q

What is the most abundant WBC? What does it defend against?

A

Neutrophil-bacterial infections! Also active in fungal infections in physiological stress. First to arrive at site of an acute infection

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6
Q

What is the primary defense cell for viral infections?

A

Lymphocytes. Most common WBC in the lymph

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7
Q

What is the largest WBC? When are they elevated?

A

Monocytes. Elevation noted in late or chronic infection

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8
Q

What WBC responds to allergic reactions or parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophils

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9
Q

What WBCs defend in hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Basophils. they release inflammatory mediators

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10
Q

What does a cloudy/Turbid Urinalysis significant of?

A

consistent with pyuria

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11
Q

What is strong/fishy urinalysis odor consistent with?

A

infection

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12
Q

When is a Wet prep/KOH prep indicated?

A

vaginal/cervical/urethral discharge

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13
Q

What is a KOH prep best for visualizing?

A

fungal cells

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14
Q

What are clue cells?

A

Epithelial cells of the vagina that get their distinctive stippled appearance by being covered with bacteria

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15
Q

When is a lateral decubitus used?

A

When collecting fluid in which opening pressure is needed

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16
Q

What is Xanthochromia indicative of?

A

bleeding in CSF

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17
Q

How should CSF present?

A

Clear and colorless

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18
Q

What does cloudy/turbid CSF indicative of?

A

infection

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19
Q

How should CSF viscosity present?

A

same as water

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20
Q

What is thick CSF viscosity indicative of?

A

infection

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21
Q

What is the MC side effect after a lumbar puncture?

A

HA

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22
Q

How does a pleural fluid analysis normally present?

A

light yellow and clear

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23
Q

What is a milky appearance of pleural fluid analysis indicative of?

A

lymphatic system involvement

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24
Q

Reddish fluid in the pleural fluid analysis is indicative of the what?

A

blood

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25
Q

What is a cloudy, thick pleural fluid indicative of in pleural fluid analysis.

A

microorganisms and/or WBC

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26
Q

What are some complications from a pericardiocentesis?

A

myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema

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27
Q

How do CT scans work?

A

they utilize radiation to produce images

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28
Q

How do MRIs work?

A

they use powerful magnetic fields and radio frequency pulses to produce images

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29
Q

How would you order a stool culture?

A

Order a stool for “Ova and Parasites”

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30
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in a UTI?

A

E. Coli

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31
Q

Rust colored sputum indicates what?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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32
Q

Yellowish/Green colored sputum indicates what?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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33
Q

Green sputum indicates what?

A

Pseudomonas

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34
Q

Red, currant-jelly sputum is indicative of what?

A

Klebsiella

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35
Q

Bloody sputum is indicative of what?

A

TB

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36
Q

Foul smelling/bad tasting sputum is indicative of?

A

Anaerobes

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37
Q

Thin/scant sticky sputum is indicative of?

A

Atypicals-mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia pneumoniae

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38
Q

Who should you avoid a strep test on?

A

Children <3 y/o

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39
Q

What is the MOA of Beta lactams?

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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40
Q

What four antibiotics make up the Beta-Lactams?

A

Penicillinis, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Monobactams

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41
Q

What is the first line treatment for strep throat?

A

Natural Pencillin

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42
Q

What is the first line treatment for Syphilis?

A

Natural Penicllin

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43
Q

What is the first line treatment for Otitis media?

A

Aminopenicillins (amoxicillin, ampicillin)

44
Q

What are the three bacterias that cause otitis media?

A

H. Flu
S. Pneumo
M. Cat

45
Q

What is first line for sinusitis/ pneumonia/COPD exacerbations?

A

Augmentin and Unasyn

46
Q

What has amazing pseudomonas coverage?

A

Piperacillin/tazobactam

47
Q

What are the first generation cephalosporins?

A

cephalexin (keflex), cefazolin (ancef), cefadroxil

48
Q

What are the 2nd gen cephalosporins?

A

Cefuroxime
Cefoxitin
Cefotetan
Cefaclor
Cefprozil

49
Q

What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins?

A

Ceftriaxone (rocephin)
cefdinir (omnicef)
cefditoren (spectracef)
cefixime
cefpodoxime
ceftazidime
Ceftibuten

50
Q

What is the first line treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Rocephin, meningitis, PID

51
Q

What is the only beta-lactam with MRSA coverage

A

Ceftaroline

52
Q

Which cephlasporin generation starts crossing the BBB

A

3rd generation

53
Q

What drugs are a part of the carbapenems?

A

Imipenem
Imipenem/Cilastatin
Meropenem
Ertapenem
Doripenem

54
Q

What is the MOA for carbapenems?

A

same as other beta-lactams

55
Q

What is the MOA of vancomycin?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
binds to D-ala D-ala, a side chain in peptidoglycan, preventing the formation of peptidoglycan and phospholipids
this results in a weakening of the cell wall and inhibition of bacterial replication

56
Q

What type of bacteria is Staph aureus?

A

Gram + Cocci

57
Q

What type of bacteria is Clostridium?

A

Gram + Bacilli

58
Q

What is the drug of choice for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

59
Q

What do you have to adjust for with vancomycin?

A

renal impairment

60
Q

What are some adverse effects of Vancomycin?

A

Hyperemia (Red man syndrome)
Nephrotoxicity/Ototoxicity

61
Q

What is a good alternative to vancomycin for VRE infections?

A

Daptomycin, Linezolid, Oritavancin

62
Q

What drugs fall under aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin, Streptomycin

63
Q

What is the MOA for aminoglycosides?

A

Binds to the 30S subunit inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
Post antibiotic suppression of bacterial growth

64
Q

When are aminoglycosides indicated?

A

gram -
mycobacterium tuberculosis

65
Q

What BBW come with aminoglycosides?

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Neuromuscular paralysis

66
Q

What pregnancy category are aminoglycosides?

A

Pregnancy category D

67
Q

Do aminoglycosides have a narrow or wide therapeutic window?

A

Narrow–high risk of toxicity
Monitor peak and trough levels
Monitor BUN/Cr at baseline and periodically
Monitor audiometry-high doses, long term use or s/sx of hearing impairment

68
Q

What drugs are tetracyclines?

A

Tetracycline
Doxycycline
Minocycline

69
Q

What is the MOA for tetracyclines?

A

Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit
Blocks tRNA

70
Q

What spectrum of activity do tetracyclines have?

A

Gram + and Gram -
MRSA coverage
Atypicals- mycoplasma, rickettsiae, chlamydiae, spirochetes

71
Q

What is the first line treatment for lyme disease?

A

tetracycline

72
Q

what is the first line treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

tetracyclines

73
Q

what is the first line treatment for cholera?

A

tetracyclines

74
Q

What is the first line treatment for acne?

A

Tetracyclines

75
Q

Where are tetracyclines Contraindicated?

A

children <8-9 y/o because of the tooth discoloration during tooth development
relative CI-children <13 y/o
Pregnancy or nursing mothers

76
Q

What are some adverse effects of tetracyclines?

A

GI distress, hepatotoxicity, photosensitivity, vestibular problems-specifically minocycline
Candida infections; C. diff

77
Q

What are the macrolides?

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin

78
Q

What is the MOA for macrolides?

A

inhibits protein synthesis and translocation needed to replicate (50S subunit)

79
Q

Do macrolides cross the BBB?

A

nope!!

80
Q

When are macrolides uses as first line treatments?

A

Community acquired pneumonia
atypicals-mycoplasma, chlamydia
chlamydia
legionella
diptheria
COPD-acute exacerbations

81
Q

Is azithromycin approved for the treatment of sinusitis?

A

NOPE

82
Q

What are the adverse effects of macrolides?

A

GI-N/D (MC), c. diff
Hepatoxtocicity
Prolonged QT interval
Ototoxicity (transient)

83
Q

What pregnancy category are macrolides?

A

Cat B

84
Q

What does clindamycin cover?

A

Gram + (including some strains of MRSA)
Anaerobes

85
Q

What is the BBW for clindamycin?

A

C. difficile colitis

86
Q

What are the 3 quinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin

87
Q

What is the MOA of quinolones?

A

inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis/DNA inhibitors
Inhibition of DNA gyrase and Topoisomerase IV
Rapid Bactericidal activity

88
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for quinolones?

A

Gram - > Gram +
Gram +: Streptococcus and MSSA
Anaerobes: moxifloxacin

89
Q

What are quinolones used as first line treatment for?

A

Pyelonephritis
Prostatisis
Traveller’s diarrhea
Anthrax
URIs/Pneumonia with Comorbidities

90
Q

Who are quinolones contraindicated for?

A

Prolonged QT/arrhythmias
Myasthenia Gravis

91
Q

What pregnancy cateogry are Quinolones?

A

Cat C

92
Q

What is the BBW for Quinolones?

A

Tendinitis/Tendon Rupture

93
Q

What is the MOA for Trimethoprim?

A

Folate reductase inhibitor-inhibits bacterial amino acid synthesis

94
Q

What is the MOA for sulfamethoxazole?

A

Folate synthesis inhibitor

95
Q

What is Bactrim a DOC for?

A

Outpatient treatment for MRSA, UTI cystitis

96
Q

What are the adverse effects of bactrim?

A

megaloblastic anemia
GI distress
Photosensitivity
Hepatotoxicity

97
Q

What pregnancy cat is Bactrim?

A

Cat C

98
Q

What is the MOA for Nitrofuratoin?

A

inhibits bacterial enzymes and damages DNA

99
Q

What is Nitrofurantoin DOC for?

A

UTI

100
Q

What is the MOA for Metronidazole and Tinidazole?

A

Disrupts microbial DNA

101
Q

What is metronidazole the DOC for?

A

Trichomonas
Bacterial Vaginosis
C. Diff colitis
Amebiasis
Giardiasis

102
Q

What should not be taken with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole!!

103
Q

What are some adverse effects of metronidazole?

A

GI distress: N/V/D
Metallic taste
Disulfiram-like reaction

104
Q

What is the BBW for metronidazole?

A

Carcinogenic in mice and rats

105
Q

What is mupirocin most commonly indicated for?

A

Impetigo

106
Q

What can you use for pseudomonas in the eye?

A

Polymyxin B

107
Q

What is Bacitracin indicated for?

A

Gram + stuff
but it’s limited to topical application only d/t nephrotoxicity

CM1A E1 (2 decks)

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