Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the protection, promotion, and optimization of health and abilities; prevention of illness and injury; facilitation of healing; alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response; and advocacy in the care of individuals, families, groups, communities, and populations.

A

Nursing

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2
Q
  1. To promote health
  2. Prevent illness
  3. Restore health
  4. Coping with death or disability
A

4 broad aims in nursing

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3
Q

Assessment
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation

A

ADPIE

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4
Q
  • preparing for data collection
  • collecting data
  • identifying cues and making inferences
  • validating data
  • clustering related data and identifying patterns
  • reporting and recording data
A

Assessing

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5
Q

vitals, demographics, family/medication history

A

assessing

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6
Q
  • initial comprehensive assessment
  • focused assessment
  • emergency assessment
  • time-lapsed assessment
A

types of nursing assessments

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7
Q
  • Performed shortly after admittance to hospital
  • Performed to establish a complete database for problem identification and care planning
  • Performed by the nurse to collect data on all aspects of patient’s health
A

initial comprehensive assessment

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8
Q
  • May be performed during initial assessment or as routine ongoing data collection
  • Performed to gather data about a specific problem already identified or to identify new or overlooked problems
  • Performed by the nurse to collect data about the specific problem
A

focused assessment

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9
Q
  • Performed when a physiologic or psychological crisis presents
  • Performed to identify life-threatening problems
  • Performed by the nurse to gather data about a life-threatening problem
  • Ex. Acute respiratory distress, suicidal ideation, severed limb, epilepsy, stroke, MI, chest pain
A

emergency assessment

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10
Q
  • To compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier
  • To reassess health status and make necessary revisions in care plan
  • By the nurse to collect data about current health status of patient
A

time-lapsed assessment

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11
Q

Which one of the following assessments would be performed on a patient to gather data on previously diagnosed liver cancer?

A

focused assessment

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12
Q

patient, family/significant others, patient record, nursing and other healthcare literature

A

sources of patient data

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13
Q
  • nursing observation
  • patient interview
  • physical assessment
A

methods of data collection

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14
Q

inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

A

physical assessment

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15
Q
  1. ABC
  2. Vital signs
  3. Level of consciousness
A

establishing assessment priorities

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16
Q

airway
breathing
circulation

A

ABC

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17
Q

blocked (choking or anaphylaxis) or patency

A

airway

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18
Q

wheezing, cough, or clear

A

breathing

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19
Q

bleeding, clotting

A

circulation

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20
Q

temp, pulse, BP, respiratory, pain rating and description

A

vital signs

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21
Q
  • awake and alert
  • lethargic
  • stuporous
  • comatose
A

level of consciousness

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22
Q
  • fully awake; oriented to person, place, and time; responds to all stimuli, including verbal commands
  • Awake: Eyes are open
  • Alert: follows directions
  • Oriented: know who you are, where you are, and why you are there
  • A&O x 4: awake and oriented to person, place, time, and situation
A

awake and alert

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23
Q

appears drowsy or asleep most of the time but makes spontaneous movements; can be aroused by gentle shaking and saying patient’s name

A

lethargic

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24
Q

unconscious most of the time; has no spontaneous movement; must be shaken or shouted at to arouse; can make verbal responses, but these are less likely to be appropriate; responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movements

A

stuporous

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25
Q

ex. Sternal rubs is very painful and will wake them up and their purposeful movement is their reaction of pain

A

purposeful movement

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26
Q

cannot be aroused, even with use of painful stimuli; may have some reflex activity (such as gag reflex); if no reflexes present, is in a deep coma

A

comatose

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27
Q
  • Information perceived only by the affected person
  • symptoms
  • ex. pain description, gender
A

subjective data

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28
Q
  • Observable and measurable data seen, heard, or felt by someone other than the person experiencing them
  • AKA signs
  • Example: vital signs, BP, height, weight, breath sounds, biological gender
A

objective data

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29
Q
  • One of the nurse’s primary ethical responsibilities is safeguarding the privacy of patients
  • Nurses must be familiar with their institution’s policies on privacy and on the requirements of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)
  • American Nurse Association and National Council of State Boards of Nursing united to provide guidelines on social media for nurses
A

privacy, confidentiality, and professionalism

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30
Q

True or false: a patient rates his pain as a “7” on a pain rating scale. This rating is considered to be objective data

A

False

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31
Q
  • interpret and analyze patient data
  • identify patient strengths and health problems
  • formulate and validate nursing diagnosis
  • develop a prioritized list of nursing diagnoses
  • detect and refer signs and symptoms that may indicate a problem beyond the nurse’s experience
A

Diagnosis

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32
Q
  • Individualizing patient care
  • Defining domain of nursing to health care administrators, legislators, and providers
  • Seeking funding for nursing and reimbursement for nursing services
A

benefit of nursing diagnoses

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33
Q
  • Describes patient problems nurses can treat independently
  • Ex. Deficient fluid volume
A

nursing diagnoses

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34
Q
  • Describes problems for which the physician directs the primary treatment
  • Ex. Dehydration
A

medical diagnoses

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35
Q
  • problem-focused
  • risk
  • health promotion
A

types of nursing diagnoses

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36
Q
  • Undesirable human response to a health condition/life process
  • Ex: Imbalanced nutrition
A

problem-focused nursing diagnosis

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37
Q
  • Vulnerability for developing an undesirable human response to health conditions/life processes
  • Ex. Risk for infection
A

risk nursing diagnosis

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38
Q
  • Motivation and desire to increase well-being and to actualize human health potential
  • Ex: readiness for enhanced self-care
A

health promotion nursing diagnosis

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39
Q
  • Phrase as patient problem of altered health state
  • Patient problem must precede etiology linked by “related to” (R/T)
  • Defining characteristics should follow etiology linked by “as evidenced by” (AEB)
  • Write in legally advisable terms
  • Use non-judgmental language
  • Problem statement states what is unhealthy or what patient wants to enhance
  • Reread the diagnosis, ensure problem statement suggests outcomes and etiology directs selection of nursing measures
A

guidelines for writing a nursing diagnosis

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40
Q

identifies what is unhealthy about the patient, indicating the need for change (clear, concise statement of the patient’s health problem)

A

problem (nursing diagnosis)

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41
Q

suggests the patient outcomes (expectations for change)

A

purpose of problem (nursing diagnosis)

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42
Q

identifies the factors that are maintaining the unhealthy state or response (contributing or causative factors)

A

etiology (nursing diagnosis)

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43
Q

suggests the appropriate nursing measures

A

purpose of etiology

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44
Q

identify the subjective and objective data that signal the existence of the problem (cues that reflect the existence of a problem)

A

defining characteristics (nursing diagnosis)

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45
Q

suggest evaluative criteria

A

purpose of defining characteristics (nursing diagnosis)

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46
Q

Which of the following nursing diagnoses is written correctly?
A) Child abuse related to maternal hostility
B) Breast cancer related to family history
C) Deficient knowledge related to alteration in diet
D) Imbalanced nutrition related to insufficient funds in meal budget

A

D

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47
Q

A nursing is caring for a pt who presents with labored respirations, productive cough, and fever. What would be the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient? Select all that apply
A) Bronchial Pneumonia
B) Impaired gas exchange
C) Ineffective airway clearance
D) Infection related to pneumonia
E) Risk for septic shock

A

B, C, E

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48
Q

A nurse makes a clinical judgement that an African American man in a stressful job is more vulnerable to developing hypertension than a white man in the same or a similar situation. The nurse has formulated what type of nursing diagnosis?

A

Risk

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49
Q
  • establish priorities
  • identify expected patient outcomes
  • select evidence-based nursing intervention
  • take into consideration patient and nurse capabilities, time, and resources
A

Outcome identification and planning

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50
Q
  1. Individualized, patient-centered care (or person-centered care)
  2. Prioritization
  3. Bias
  4. Scope of standards of nursing practice
  5. EBP
  6. Realistic, specific, and measurable
  7. Consider long-term vs. short-term
    Keep “big picture) in focus: consider discharge goals
A

choosing outcomes and interventions

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51
Q
  • Holistic
  • Assess how patient is doing at every encounter
  • Partner with patient using shared decision making
  • Patient +/- family actively participate in own care
  • Open communication with respect and compassion
A

individualized, patient-centered care

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52
Q
  • full transparency and fast delivery of information
  • mission and values aligned with patient goals
  • care is collaborative, coordinate, accessible
  • physical comfort and emotional well-being are top priorities
  • patient and family viewpoints respected and valued
  • patient and family always included in decisions
  • family welcoming in care setting
A

patient-centered care

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53
Q

The nurse enters the room of a 32 y/o pt new cancer (CA) dx at 1900. pt scheduled for surgery in AM. Pt observed talking with mother and crying, stating “this is so unfair”; states that she has so many questions. Order in chart: bowel prep enema to be given during night shift. Pre-op checklist to be completed. The nurse establishes priorities for which of the following situations first?
A) Begin enema
B) Talk with patient about past experiences with illness
C) Talk with patient about concerns and acknowledge her sense of unfairness
D) Begin reviewing pre-operative checklist with patient

A

C

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54
Q
  • what problems need immediate attention and which ones can wait?
  • ABC
  • Maslow’s hierarchy
  • Which problems are your responsibility and which do you need to refer to someone else?
  • which problems can be dealt with by using standard plans (e.g. critical paths, standards of care)?
A

prioritization

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55
Q

basic needs
1) physiological needs: food, water, warmth, rest
2) safety needs: security, safety
psychological needs
3) belongingness and love needs: intimate relationships, friends
4) esteem needs: prestige and feeling of accomplishment
self-fulfillment needs
5) self-actualization: achieving one’s full potential, including creative activities

A

Maslow’s hierarchy

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56
Q

Which nursing diagnosis would most likely to be considered a high priority?
A) Acute pain
B) Impaired gas exchange
C) Risk for powerlessness
D) Activity intolerance

A

B

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57
Q

Practice in a manner that is congruent with cultural diversity and inclusion principles

A

bias

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58
Q
  • Nursing school clinicals
  • Employer protocols
  • American Nurses Association (ANA): 3rd edition Nursing scope of practice
  • State board of nursing
  • Agency for healthcare research and quality (AHRQ)
  • Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
  • Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JACHO)
A

scope of practice and standards of care

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59
Q
  • PICO
  • MEDLINE and CINAHL
  • appraise: valid? important? relevant?
  • integrate with clinical expertise and patient preference
A

evidence-based practice ideal

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60
Q

rely on protocols and guidelines

A

reality of evidence-based practice

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61
Q
  • Using goals, objectives, and outcomes interchangeably
  • Ex) For dx of acute pain “following administration of PRN analgesic, patient will report pain absent or diminished”
A

specific goals

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62
Q
  • often means discharge planning that begins at admission and accounts for self-care at home
  • Ex) Mrs. Goldstein returns to long-term care facility pain free with her incision healed and her left leg in good alignment
A

long-term goals

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63
Q
  • Ex) whenever observed, pt will be lying in bed with legs in correct alignment (abductor pillow in place, if ordered)
  • Ex) Before discharge, Mrs. Goldstein’s hip incision will show signs of healing (skin surface approximate, free from signs of infection-redness, swelling, heat, purulent drainage)
A

short-term goal

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64
Q

1) expressing pt outcome as nursing intervention
2) using verbs that are not observable or measurable
3) including more than one pt behavior or manifestation in short-term outcomes
4) writing vague outcomes

A

common errors in writing pt outcomes

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65
Q
  • carry out the plan
  • continue data collection and modify the plan of care as needed
  • document care
  • taking into consideration developmental age and psychosocial background, ability and willingness to participate, and response to nursing measures and progress toward goal achievement
A

implementation

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66
Q

1) patient variables - developmental stage (ex. Alzheimer’s pt) and psychosocial background/culture
2) nursing variables - resources? time? staff?, standards of care, questionable orders, anticipation

A

factors that could inhibit implementation

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67
Q

Which example illustrates a nurse variable influencing patient outcomes?
A) A patient in a SNF refuses to take their medications
B) A family whose monthly income falls below the poverty level is unable to afford formula for their newborn infant
C) A patient with alcoholism is unwilling to participate in AA meetings
D) A victim of sexual assault does not receive counseling in the emergency department because a counselor is not available

A

D

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68
Q
  • Low value attached to outcomes
  • Lack of understanding about the beliefs
  • Lack of social support
  • Adverse physical or emotional effects of treatment
  • Inability to afford treatment
  • Limited access to treatment
A

factors of patient nonadherance

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69
Q
  • Assess –> Re-assess –> Revise –> Record
  • Know the difference between direct and indirect care interventions
A

implementation phase

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70
Q

both physiological and psychosocial action; laying hands; direct care; interaction with pt

ex) Assisting with ambulating; Administering medication

A

direct intervention

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71
Q

intervention performed away from pt but on behalf of the pt

ex) consultation, calling social worker or case manager, ordering labs, prepping meds/Ivs

A

indirect intervention

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72
Q
  • Right task
  • Right circumstance
  • Right person
  • Right directions and communication
  • Right supervision and evaluation
A

considerations when delegating nursing care

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73
Q
  • clinical assessment
  • initial client education
  • discharge education
  • clinical judgment
  • initiating blood transfusion
  • psychosocial support
A

RN scope of practice

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74
Q
  • monitoring RN findings
  • reinforcing education
  • routine procedures (catheterization)
  • most medication administrations
  • ostomy care
  • tube latency and enteral feeding
  • specific assessments (eg. lung sounds, bowel sounds, neuromuscular checks)
A

LPN/LVN scope of practice

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75
Q
  • activities of daily living
  • hygiene
  • linen change
  • routine, stable vitals
  • documenting input/output
  • positioning
A

UAP scope of practice

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76
Q

The nurse is about to begin implementing care plan for 16 y/o patient with infant born prematurely 12 hours ago. Patient states “we will be fine on our own, I don’t need any care right now.” What is the nurse’s best response?

A) “You know your personal situation better than I do, so I will respect your wishes”
B) “If you don’t accept this help, your baby’s health might suffer”
C) “Let’s take a look at this plan together and see if we can fix it to meet your needs”
D) “I’m going to set a meeting with the social worker to talk to you”

A

C

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77
Q

True or False: When a patient fails to cooperate with the care plan despite the nurse’s best efforts, it is time to reassign the patient to another caretaker

A

False

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78
Q
  • measure how well the pt has achieved desired outcomes
  • identify factors contributing to the patient’s success or failure
  • modify the plan of care, if indicated
A

Evaluation

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79
Q
  1. Interpreting and summarizing findings
  2. Collecting data to determine whether evaluate criteria and standards are met
  3. Documenting your judgment (evaluative statement)
  4. Terminating, continuing, or modifying the plan
  5. Identifying evaluate criteria and standards (expected patient outcomes)
A

elements of evaluation

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80
Q

A nurse uses the classic elements of evaluation when care for patients. What is the correct order?

  1. Interpreting and summarizing findings
  2. Collecting data to determine whether evaluative criteria and standards are met
  3. Documenting your judgment (evaluative statement)
  4. Terminating, continuing, or modifying the plan
  5. Identifying evaluative criteria and standards (expected patient outcomes)
A

5,2,1,3,4

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81
Q

1) Nurse and patient together measure how well the patient has achieved the outcomes specified in the care plan
2) The nurse identifies factors that contribute to the patient’s ability to achieve expected outcomes and when necessary, modifies the care plan. Includes ongoing assessment

A

Evaluation steps

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82
Q

allow the patient’s achievement of expected outcomes to direct future nurse-patient interactions

A

purpose of evaluation

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83
Q

A nurse is writing an evaluative statement for a patient who is trying to lower cholesterol through diet and exercise. Which statement is written correctly?
A) “outcome not met”
B) “1/21/20 - patient reports no change in diet”
C) “Outcome not met. Patient reports no change in diet or activity level”
D) “1/21/20 - Outcome partially met. Patient reports increased activity since last visit, but no change in diet”

A

D

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84
Q

Assessment - “My husband and I are afraid we won’t know what to do with the baby when we get home”
Diagnosis - Nursing Dx: High risk for altered parenting R/T no previous experience in childbearing and fear
Planning - Expected outcome: before discharge, parents will demonstrate confidence in…Holding, diapering, bathing, and feeding baby
Implementation - Nursing interventions: nurse observes mother and infant during initial feeding sessions and offers teaching and support as needed
Evaluation - Evaluative statement: 6/14/22 outcome partially met, both parents correctly demonstrated holding, diapering, and bathing. Mother is still concerned baby is not getting enough milk

Revision - Provide revision if outcome partially met. Continue to spend time with mother and infant during feeding - provide positive reinforcement. Could add items: Schedule appointment with in-hospital lactation consultant

Re-assess: If during following shift mother indicates “she’s eating so well”. Re-do your assessment of mother and infant and observe improved technique and confidence, without interruption of feeding…outcome met

Result: Care plan terminated bc outcome achieved

A

ADPIE example

85
Q

What is the number 1 way to break the chain of infection?

A

hand hygiene

86
Q
  • # 1 way to break chain of infection
  • should be performed before and after ascetic technique
  • should be performed after being exposed to fluid
  • should be performed after being exposed to pt surroundings
A

hand hygiene

87
Q

1) hand hygiene
2) PPE
3) Equipment
4) Environmental
5) Linens
6) Needles
7) Resuscitation
8) Placement
9) Respiratory

A

standard precautions

88
Q
  • use soap and water for 20 seconds
  • need to do this for C.diff
A

hand hygiene

89
Q
  • consider all body substances potentially infectious
  • determined by mode of transmission of disease
  • mask, gloves, gown, face shield, respirator
A

PPE

90
Q
  • Wipe it down; Pay attention to which wipes you are using and how long it needs to stay wet
  • C.Diff uses specific wipes
  • BP machine, glucometer should be wiped down before/after each patient
A

equipment

91
Q

wiping down side table, rails, disposable curtains

A

environmental

92
Q
  • should be covered
  • should have a change as needed (PRN)
A

linens

93
Q
  • Automatic snap to protect healthcare provider from sticks
  • Dispose in sharps container
  • Never re-cap
A

needles

94
Q
  • No mouth-to-mouth
  • Gloves
  • Mask
A

resuscitation

95
Q
  • Placement of pt on unit; where is the pt stationed
  • If they have a certain disease that is highly contagious where do you place the pt
  • If two patients have the same condition they can be placed in the same room; cohorting
A

placement

96
Q

placing 2 patients in the same room because they have the same disease

A

cohosting

97
Q

try to teach pt cough etiquette

A

respiratory

98
Q

includes all activities to prevent or break the chain of infection

2 categories; medical and surgical

A

asepsis

99
Q

clean technique (standard precautions); regular gloves for tasks such as vitals, glucose reading

A

medical asepsis

100
Q

sterile technique; sterile gloves for tasks such as placing Foley catheter and tracheostomy care

A

surgical asepsis

101
Q

can go beyond 6 ft; ex. measles, TB

A

aerosolized

102
Q

drops in close proximity (3 ft); ex. ebola, flu

A

droplet

103
Q
  • use gloves, wash hands before/after, wiping down equipment, etc.
  • treat everyone as if they have something
A

standard precautions

104
Q

Standard precautions PLUS:
- Negative air-pressure room, so door must be kept closed
- N-95 respiratory
- surgical mask on patient if must be transported

A

airborne precautions (respiratory isolation)

105
Q
  • used in airborne precautions
  • takes the air and filters it outside of the hospital
A

negative pressure room

106
Q

Transmission by aerosolized, airborne droplet nuclei; 6 ft

A

airborne precautions

107
Q

Measles, TB, Covid, Chickenpox (Varicella)

A

airborne

108
Q

Transmission by close contact with large, particle droplets from respiratory tract; 3 ft

A

droplet

109
Q

Ebola, Pneumonia (PNA), Flu, Whooping Cough, Bacterial Meningitis

A

droplet

110
Q

Standard precautions PLUS:
- Surgical mask within 3-6 feet of pt
- Door may remain open
- Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection
- Gown if expecting contact with secretions (ex. Suctioning)

A

droplet precautions

111
Q

Transmission by direct patient contact or contact with items in patient’s room

A

contact

112
Q

C. diff, MRSA

A

contact

113
Q

Standard precautions PLUS:
- Gown and gloves required
- Patient-dedicated equipment
- Door may remain open and masks are not required
- Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection

A

contact precautions

114
Q

1) Gown
2) mask or respirator
3) goggles/face shield
4) gloves

A

donning PPE

115
Q

1) gloves
2) goggles/face shield
3) gown with ties in back
4) mask - OUTSIDE ROOM
5) hand hygiene

A

doffing PPE (method 1)

116
Q

1) gown and gloves
2) goggles/face shield
3) mask - OUTSIDE ROOM
4) hand hygiene

A

doffing PPE (method 2)

117
Q

what % of older adults living in institutional long-term care settings experience a fall every year

A

50-75%

118
Q

what % of older adults who fall suffer serious injuries?

A

20-30%

119
Q

how many patients a year are hospitalized because of a fall injury, most often because a head injury or hip fracture

A

over 800,000

120
Q
  • older age
  • history of falls
  • gait impairment
  • balance disorders
  • orthostatic or postural hypotension
  • depression
  • muscle weakness
  • chronic conditions such as dementia, arthritis, Parkinson’s disease, orthostatic hypotension
A

intrinsic risk factors for fall

121
Q
  • polypharmacy
  • loose carpets
  • use of adaptive devices such as cane and wheelchairs
  • inadequate lighting and footwear
  • use of physical restraints
A

extrinsic/environmental risk factors for fall

122
Q
  • anyone 65 and older
  • main cause of injury fatality
  • changes in physical strength, sensation, reaction time, and polypharmacy
A

older adults and falls

123
Q
  • lower the bed
  • furniture placement
  • equipment placement
  • slippery floors
  • rugs/bedding
  • crowding; insufficient space to move walking aids
A

environmental assessment

124
Q
  • completed on admission and throughout stay; after a fall; and transfer to a new unit
  • used on all patients regardless of age
  • 0 or 25 score; no in-between
A

morse fall scale

125
Q
  • older adults with unsteady gait
  • history of falling
  • assess mobility status, communication, level of awareness or orientation, sensory perception
A

continuous mobility assessment

126
Q

is poor lighting (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

environmental; modifiable

127
Q

is orthostatic hypotension (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

individual; modifiable

128
Q

are floor rugs (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

environmental; modifiable

129
Q

is sundowning (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

individual; environmental; modifiable (but hard to)

130
Q

are side effects of psychoactive (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

individual; modfiable

131
Q

is a sensory deficit (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

individual; modifiable

132
Q

is lower body weakness (as a fall risk factor) individual or environmental and can you modify it?

A

individual; environmental; modifiable

133
Q

risk for falls related to ____(difficulty with gait; A&O x 2); use of restraints; medication side effects) as evidenced by ______ (activity intolerance; risk for injury; impaired physical mobility)

A

NANDA Fall Risk

134
Q

high risk for falls on fall scale

A

assess (fall risk nursing process)

135
Q

risk for falls r/t unsteady gait

A

nursing dx (fall risk nursing process)

136
Q

Outcomes:
- patient will not sustain fall during hospitalization
- patient will demonstrate 3 fall preventive measures before discharge
- patient implements 2 fall prevention strategies at home before next visit

A

planning (fall risk nursing process)

137
Q

1) Place fall risk leaf on door and/or in chart
2) Place or encourage non-slip footwear
3) Keep call light in reach and bed in lowest position
4) Further assessment of risk factors
5) Education on home strategies, like grab bar
6) Notify OT of patient needs
7) Keep lighting well
8) Wristband
9) Bed in lowest position
10) Bed rails raised
i. At least 2; all 4 are considered a restraint
11) Administer prescribed vitamin D and calcium supplements
12) Assist with establishment of exercise routine (Note: reduce risk of falls 13-40%)
13) Keep wheels on chair locked
14) Leave bedside table within patient’s reach
15) Document changes in cognitive status
16) Notify charge nurse of need for sitter
17) Re-assess fall risk using Morse Fall Scale
18) Restraints as last resort

A

interventions (fall risk nursing process)

138
Q

0700, client was attempting to get out of bed without assistance. Client was re-oriented to room and provided with bedside urinal

A

implementation (fall risk nursing process)

139
Q

6/1/20, outcome partially met, client was wearing nonskid footwear but began to slip while moving to bedside commode, second assist was necessary to prevent fall

A

evaluation (fall risk nursing process)

140
Q

have pt lean on you and slide down your body; smooth assist to the floor

A

assisted fall

141
Q

What should you do if your patient has fallen?

A

1) immediately assess pt condition (ABC, injury, orientation)
2) provide appropriate care
3) Notify patient’s physician or primary caregiver of incident and your assessment of the patient
4) Ensure prompt follow-through for any test orders (example: CT scan)
5) Evaluate circumstances of the fall and the environment; institute preventive measures
6) Document incident, assessments, and interventions in medical record and complete a safety event report per facility policy

142
Q

The nurse is filling to a safety event report after a confused patient fell when getting out of bed. What action is performed appropriately?

A) The nurse includes suggestions on how to prevent the incident from recurring
B) The nurse provides details to charge nurse to fill out report
C) The nurse discusses the details with the patient before reporting them
D) The nurse records circumstance and effects on patient in safety report

A

D

143
Q
  • Any physical device used to limit patient movement
  • Ex. ties, include mitts, bed rails, and geriatric chairs with attached trays
  • Medications can be used as chemical forms
  • can increase risk of falls, such as slipping through bed rails or trying to climb over them
  • should be used as a last resort
  • when used, require frequent monitoring
  • require an order and communication with patient’s family
A

restraints

144
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient in a long-term care facility. The nurse identifies which patients to be at higher risk for falls? Select all that apply

A) Patient older than 50
B) Patient who has fallen twice before
C) Patient who is taking antibiotics
D) Patient who is experiencing postural hypotension
E) Patient who is experiencing nausea from chemotherapy
F) A 70 y/o patient who transferred from hospital to skilled nursing facility (SNF)

A

B, C, D, E, F

145
Q
  • Assess the patient’s skin at least daily and after every episode of incontinence
  • Cleanse the skin when indicated, such as when soiled, using a no-rinse, pH-balanced skin cleanser
  • Avoid using soap and hot water; avoid excessive friction and scrubbing
  • Minimize skin exposure to moisture (incontinence, wound leakage); use a skin barrier product as necessary
  • Use skin moisturizers or creams after bathing and as needed
A

general skin principles

146
Q
  • Pressure
  • Dessication (dehydration)
  • Maceration (overhydration)
  • Trauma
  • Edema
  • Infection
  • Excessing bleeding
  • Necrosis (death of tissue)
  • Presence of biofilm (grouping microorganisms)
A

local factors affecting wound healing

147
Q
  • Age
  • Circulation and oxygenation
  • Nutritional status
  • Wound etiology
  • Health status
  • Immunosuppression
  • Medication use
  • Adherence treatment plan
A

systemic factors affecting wound healing

148
Q
  • skin is more easily injured
  • skin has less capacity to insulate
  • skin wrinkles more easily
  • sensation of pressure and pain is reduced
A

subcutaneous and dermal tissues become thin

149
Q
  • skin becomes dryer
  • pruritus (itching) may occur
A

activity of the sebaceous and sweat glands decreases

150
Q
  • healing time is delayed
A

cell renewal is shorter

151
Q
  • hair becomes gray-white
  • skin may be unevenly pigmented
A

melanocytes (cells that make the pigment that colors hair and skin) decline in number

152
Q

skin loses elasticity

A

collage fiber is less organized

153
Q
  • subcutaneous and dermal tissues becomes thin
  • activity of the sebaceous and sweat glands decreases
  • cell renewal is shorter
  • melanocytes decline in number
  • collagen fiber is less organized
A

age-related changes in skin

154
Q
  • do not apply tape to skin unless necessary
  • check skin frequently for any signs of a pressure injury
  • pad bony prominences if necessary
  • asses pressure tolerance by checking pressure points for redness after 30 minutes
A

nurse strategies to subcutaneous and dermal tissue thinning

155
Q
  • clean perineal area daily but do not bathe full body on a daily basis
  • apply lotions and moisturizers as needed
  • encourage adequate hydration
  • eliminate the use of harsh soaps
A

nursing strategies for sebaceous and sweat gland decrese

156
Q

perform careful skin assessments, looking for signs of skin breakdown

A

nursing strategy for shorter cell renewal time

157
Q

assist patient with skin checks, observing for any signs of melanoma and other skin abnormalities

A

nursing strategy for melanocyte decline

158
Q

check skin frequently for tears, irritation, or breakdown

A

nursing strategy for less organized collagen fibers

159
Q
  • appearance (sight and smell)
  • character of drainage (serous; sanguineous; serosanguineous; purulent)
  • other things present? (maggots)
  • measure (length in cm; width; depth)
  • sutures, drains or tubes, and any complications
A

wound assessment

160
Q
  • open systems
  • closed systems
  • negative pressure wound therapy
A

types of drainage systems

161
Q
  • gauze, iodoform gauze
  • penrose drain
A

open systems

162
Q
  • Jackson-pratt (common with breast augmentation)
  • hemovac (larger surgeries)
  • t-tube
A

closed systems

163
Q
  • infection
  • hemorrhage
  • dehiscence and evisceration
  • fistula formation
A

wound complications

164
Q
  • edema/erythema
  • odor
  • purulent drainage
A

infection signs

165
Q
  • bleeding too much
  • loose sutures/staples
A

hemorrhage signs

166
Q

suture/staple/glue split open
prevention: hug abdomen to splint wound before coughing/sneezing; prevent pressure from exerting on injury

A

dehiscence

167
Q

organ pops out; intestine popping out

A

evisceration

168
Q

Internal vessel popping out of body

A

fistula

169
Q
  • Localized injury to skin; usually caused by pressure
    • Risk assessment (Braden scale)
    • Mobility
    • Nutritional status
    • Moisture and incontinence
    • Appearance of existing pressure injury
    • Pain assessment
    • Diagnosing
A

pressure injury assessment

170
Q
  • sensory perception: ability to respond meaningfully to pressure-related discomfort
  • moisture: degree to which skin is exposed to moisture
  • activity: degree of physical activity
  • mobility: ability to change and control body position
  • nutrition: usual food intake pattern
  • friction and shear

average score at end of assessment

A

Braden risk assessment

171
Q
  • occipital bone; scapula; vertebra; sacrum; coccyx; heel
  • frontal bone; mandible; humerus; sternum; tuberosity of pelvis; patella; tibia
  • scapula; ribs; hip; lateral knee; ankle
A

common sites for development of pressure injuries

172
Q

as related to:
- external: chemical injury agent, moisture, pressure over bony prominences, hypothermia/hyperthermia
- internal: alteration in fluid volume, inadequate nutrition, psychogenic factor

as evidenced by…
- acute pain
- bleeding, redness, hematoma
- presence of a pressure injury; destruction of skin layers
- presence of intentional or unintentional wound; disruption of skin surface

A

impaired skin integrity nursing dx

173
Q

related to:
- alteration in skin integrity
- malnutrition
- obesity
- stasis of body fluid
- associated with chronic illness, immunosuppression, and invasive procedure

as evidenced by…
- acute pain
- bleeding, redness, hematoma
- presence of a pressure injury; destruction of skin layers
- presence of intentional or unintentional wound; disruption of skin surface

A

risk for infection nursing dx

174
Q

related to:
- alteration in skin integrity
- malnutrition
- obesity
- stasis of body fluid
- associated with chronic illness, immunosuppression, and invasive procedure

as evidenced by:
- expresses desire to enhance choices of daily living for meeting goals
- expresses desire to enhance management of prescribed regimens
- expresses desire to enhance management of risk factors

A

readiness for enhanced health management nursing dx

175
Q
  • Clear and accurate
  • Skin and wound assessment tool
  • Include
    ○ Specific location on body
    ○ Type
    § Surgical, pressure, stab, laceration, etc.
    ○ Measurement in mm or cm
    § Length, width, depth, tunneling (depth, direction)
    ○ Description
    § Odor, color, wound edges, wound bed, character of drainage if present, wound stage if pressure injury)
A

wound documentation

176
Q

non-blanchable erythema of intact skin (when you depress skin, the color remains red)

A

stage 1

177
Q

partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis

A

stage 2

178
Q
  • full-thickness skin loss; not involving underlying fascia
  • Fat visible; no bone, tendon
  • Tunneling may begin; describe it as oriented to a clock
A

stage 3

179
Q
  • full-thickness skin and tissue loss
  • Muscles, bone, ligaments visible
A

stage 4

180
Q
  • obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss
  • Obscured by necrotic skin or slough (eschar)
  • Needs to be debrided via Chemical through ointment or Mechanical when physician carves away at skin until bleeding
A

unstageable

181
Q
  • aka DTI, persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration
  • may feel cool to touch
  • feels like bad tomato
  • often at the heel of foot
A

deep tissue pressure injury

182
Q

flat on back

A

supine

183
Q

flat on stomach

A

prone

184
Q

laterally on side

A

sim’s position

185
Q

sitting at 90 degrees

A

fowler

186
Q

sitting at 35-50 degrees

A

semi-fowlers

187
Q
  • head towards the floor
  • feet towards ceiling
A

trendelenburg

188
Q
  • head to ceiling
  • feet to floor
A

reverse trendelenburg

189
Q

Effects of applying heat
—– Dilates peripheral blood vessel
—– Increases tissue metabolism
—– Reduces blood viscosity and increases capillary permeability

effects of applying cold
- constricts peripheral blood vessel

A

hot and cold treatments

190
Q
  • Use of proper body movement in daily activities
  • The prevention and correction of problems associated with posture
  • The enhancement of coordination and endurance
A

proper body mechanics

191
Q
  • Uncoordinated lifts
  • Manual lifting and transferring of patients without assistive devices
  • Lifting when fatigued or after recent back injury recovery
  • Repetitive movements such as lifting transferring, and repositioning patients
  • Standing for long periods of time
  • Transferring patients
  • Repetitive tasks
  • Transferring/repositioning uncooperative or confused patients
A

variables leading to back injury in health care workers

192
Q
  • dangling
  • 1 person nurse assist
  • 2 person nurse assist
A

ways to ambulate a patient

193
Q
  • never allow anyone else to use their log-in
  • computer system should time out when not in use
  • log off system when leaving workspace
  • printouts must be discarded appropriately
A

legal implications in nursing

194
Q

ensures that patients have the following rights:
- To see and copy their health record
- To update their health record
- To request correction of any mistakes
- To get a list of the disclosures a health care institution has made independent of disclosures made for the purpose of treatment, payment, and health care operations
- To request a restriction on certain uses or disclosures
- To choose how to receive health information

A

health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)

195
Q

What to expect during your hospital stay
- High-quality hospital care
- A clean and safe environment
- Involvement in your care
- Protection of your privacy
- Help preparing you and your family for when you leave the hospital
- Help with your bill and filing insurance claims

A

patient bill of rights

196
Q

what time is nursing documenting?

A

military clock

197
Q
  • complete, accurate, concise, current, factual, and organized data communicated in a timely and confidential manner to facilitate care coordination and serve as a legal document
  • content
  • timing
  • format
  • accountability
  • confidentiality
  • The law presumes that if something was not documented, it was not done
A

documentation aim

198
Q
  • computerized on EHR
  • SOAP
  • Care plans
  • MARs
A

methods of documentation

199
Q
  • subjective
  • objective
  • assessment
  • plan
    Typhon note
A

SOAP

200
Q
  • Formal record of the patient’s problems or diagnoses, related goals, outcomes, and interventions
  • Multidisciplinary: provider, nurse, therapists, social workers, discharge planners, etc.
A

care plan

201
Q
  • Nurse who administered drug
  • Drug name, dose, route, time, indication, effectiveness
A

medication administration records (MARs)

202
Q

nurses are legally responsible for carrying out the orders of a provider unless a reasonable person would anticipate the order would lead to injury

A

questioning an order

203
Q
  • ambiguous or uses unapproved abbreviations
  • contraindicated by normal practice, e.g. an abnormally high dose
  • contraindicated by patient’s present condition
A

when to question an order

204
Q
  • what you taught (topic)
  • how was it taught (format of delivery, e.g. verbal, written material, video)
  • evaluation of patient’s understanding (verbalized understanding, teach back method, or return demonstration of a task to be completed upon discharge)
A

documenting patient education

205
Q
  • how to document a pt situation when providers are not responding to calls for assistance
  • document the facts of the incident, avoid incriminatory statements
  • document time the health care provider was called, time of response, or lack of response, and subsequent nursing response
A

documentation of urgent/emergent situations

206
Q
  • aka variance or occurrent reports
  • used for quality improvement or identifying high-risk patterns in the care of patients
A

incident reports

207
Q
  • unexpected occurrence –> death or serious physical or psychological injury
  • ex: wrong-side surgery, suicide, operative/postoperative complications
A

sentinel events

208
Q
  • include a complete account of what happened in the patient’s record as well as in the incident report
  • documentation in patient record, however should not include that fact that the incident report was filed
A

incident reports and sentinel events

209
Q
  • Hemostasis (immediate) → blood vessels constrict, blood clotting exudate
  • Inflammatory (2-3 days) → WBC’s migrate to wound, pain, heat, redness, swelling, mildly elevated temp
  • Proliferation (several weeks) → granulation tissue, WBC’s leave the wound, adequate nutrition and O2 needed
  • Maturation (~3wks-months/years) → collagen remodeled, scar develops, healing times vary
A

stages of wound healing