Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs ____________.

A. can help patients avoid the bone marrow suppression side effect seen with radiation therapy

B. target primarily slowly proliferating cells

C. cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles

D. have certain safe levels of occupational exposure, unlike radiation

A

C. cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles

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2
Q

Regarding rabies, the _________ stage is when we most likely see behavioral changes in affected animals, and humans are at risk - wild animals become friendly, nocturnal animals come out during the day, nice dogs become unpredictable.

A. Final

B. Furious

C. Prodromal

D. Paralytic

A

C. Prodromal

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3
Q

It is very easy to tell the difference between a benign and a malignant skin mass based only on exam.

T/F

A

False

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4
Q

Which of the following is not an effective means of preventing infectious diseases in dogs and cats?

A. Grooming
B. Passive immunity
C. Infectious vaccines (MLV)
D. Noninfectious vaccines (Killed)

A

A. Grooming

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5
Q

This feline infectious disease is a parasite that destroys the red blood cells. You can actually see the organism on the RBCs. What is this parasite?

Giardia

Clamydia

Herpes

Mycoplasma haemofelis

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

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6
Q

Which valve is most commonly involved in AV valve disease in dogs?

A. Mitral valve

B. Tricuspid valve

C. Aortic valve

D. Pulmonic valve

A

A. Mitral valve

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7
Q

_____ is the type of cardiovascular disease that affects 80% of heart cases in cats.

A. valvular disease
B. mitral valve insufficiency
C. myocardial disease
D. pericardial effusion

A

C. myocardial disease

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8
Q

A small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting _____, a symptom identified as stridor.

A. loud snorting sounds
B. excessive, continual sneezing
C. high-pitched inspiratory wheezing
D. loud snoring with apnea

A

C. high-pitched inspiratory wheezing

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9
Q

The most common clinical sign in heart failure patients is _________________.

Syncope

Exercise Intolerance

Tachypnea

Anorexia

A

Tachypnea

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10
Q

Your patient’s fecal sample shows streaks of bright red blood on the outsides of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as ____________.

A. tenesmus

B. hematemesis

C. melena

D. hematochezia

A

D. hematochezia

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11
Q

A common sequela to distemper is ______.

A. enamel dysplasia
B. hyperkeratosis of footpads
C. residual neurologic signs after the disease has resolved
D. A and B above
E. A, B, and C above

A

E. A, B, and C above

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12
Q

Which of the following is not part of the technician nursing plan?

A. implementing interventions
B. identifying and prioritizing evaluations
C. Diagnosing the patient
D. Gathering data

A

C. Diagnosing the patient

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13
Q

Which is not part of the feline upper respiratory disease complex?

A. Rhinotracheitis
B. Calicivirus
C. Panleukopenia
D. Chlamydia

A

C. Panleukopenia

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14
Q

Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. The mucous membranes show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ______, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues.

A. hypoxemia
B. hypoxia
C. dyspnea
D. hemoptysis

A

B. hypoxia

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15
Q

Every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. This is referred to as _____ nursing.

A. barrier
B. zoonotic
C. nosocomial
D. isolation

A

A. barrier

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16
Q

If an apparently healthy dog or cat bites a human, how long should the animal be quarantined for rabies observation?

A. 10 days

B. 90 days

C. 3-8 weeks

D. 6 months

A

A. 10 days

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17
Q

Which of the following conditions can cause hypoxia?

A. Reduced blood flow
B. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
C. Hypoventilation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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18
Q

The DVM needs to “work up” (diagnose) a respiratory case. Which of the following are not diagnostic tools used for respiratory disease?

A. Thoracic radiograph
B. cytology exam of nasal or tracheal secretions
C. endoscopy of the esophagus
D. rhinoscopy of the nasal cavity
E. blood – gas analysis

A

C. endoscopy of the esophagus

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19
Q

Which of the following technician evaluation would have the highest priority?

A. body condition score of 5 / 5
B. Diarrhea
C. Cyanosis
D. Pain

A

C. Cyanosis

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20
Q

Transmission of parvovirus is through ________________.

A. the aerosol route
B. the bite of a mosquito
C. fleas
D. fecal-oral route

A

D. fecal-oral route

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21
Q

___________ is related to measles; therefore, a measles vaccine can help protect a young puppy from this disease.

A. Distemper virus
B. Parvovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Hepatitis

A

A. Distemper virus

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22
Q

Which is false regarding the rabies virus?

A. It is considered a fatal disease.
B. The disease travels through the bloodstream to the brain where it replicates.
C. The most common route of infection is through a bite wound with infected saliva.
D. It is a disease that affects the central nervous system.
E. All of the above are true.

A

B. The disease travels through the bloodstream to the brain where it replicates.

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23
Q

In the infection process, a reservoir refers to ____________.

A. transmission of infection by direct contact with skin, secretions, excretions, or mucous membranes of an infected animal
B. a pathogen’s mode of transmission
C. an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive
D. the portal of entry by which the pathogen gains entry into a new host

A

C. an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive

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24
Q

Intranasally administered vaccines should not be administered ____________.

A. for any diseases
B. subcutaneously or intramuscularly
C. for respiratory diseases such as kennel cough
D. without wearing gloves

A

B. subcutaneously or intramuscularly

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about rabies is most accurate?

A. Rabies virus is transmitted by casual contact between affected and unaffected animals.
B. The disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and, in most species, death.
C. Rabies commonly affects large animal species, such as hogs and cattle.
D. Rabies is caused by a gram-negative bacterium.

A

B. The disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and, in most species, death.

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26
Q

A dog begins exhibiting _____, or excessive thirst, which can be an indication of diabetes mellitus.

A. polydipsia
B. tenesmus
C. urolithiasis
D. polyuria

A

A. polydipsia

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27
Q

Casper, a sheepdog, has been diagnosed with primary immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). This means that his immune system has ____________.

A. produced autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) in the postsynaptic membrane
B. triggered an inflammatory response, leading to joint capsule changes and effusion and to subchondral bone hypertrophy with the formation of osteophytes
C. attacked the anterior pituitary gland, which secretes large quantities of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
D. targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components

A

D. targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components

28
Q

The most common form of heart disease in dogs is _________.

A. Congestive
B. Dilated
C. Hypertrophic
D. valvular degeneration/disease

A

D. valvular degeneration/disease

29
Q

Which is not considered part of the kennel cough complex?

A. Parainfluenza
B. Bordatella bronchiseptica
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus 2

A

C. Coronavirus

30
Q

Which feline disease is caused by a herpes virus?

A. Chlamydia
B. Rhinotracheitis
C. FIV
D. Panleukopenia

A

B. Rhinotracheitis

31
Q

Bob the Dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. On palpating the joints in Bob’s hind limbs, the veterinary technician detects the following: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint laxity. These are consistent with a diagnosis of ____________.

A. Myasthenia Gravis
B. Immune Medicated Hemolytic Anemia
C. FLUTD
D. Osteoarthritis

A

D. Osteoarthritis

32
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity response to a vaccine or other stimulus that may cause respiratory arrest, cardiovascular collapse, and, potentially, death is called ____________.

A. delayed hypersensitivity.
B. anaphylaxis
C. urticaria
D. adjuvant

A

B. anaphylaxis

33
Q

Oncology is the study of ____________.

A. urinary diseases
B. cancer
C. endocrine diseases
D. immune mediated disease

A

B. cancer

34
Q

If a dog has severe dehydration, nasal and ocular discharge, and a high fever, which disease is most likely present?

A. Kennel cough
B. Rabies
C. Parvovirus
D. Distemper

A

D. Distemper

35
Q

A patient comes into your clinic in congestive heart failure. You observe pitting edema, abdominal distension, and jugular distension. Based on clinical signs alone, do you think this patient is in left-sided or right-sided heart failure?

A

Right-sided heart failure

36
Q

Tests show that your patient, Peeps, a male cat, has decreased cardiac output and the veterinarian sees signs of tissue hypoxia. Peeps is experiencing poor venous return leading to fluid overload. The most likely diagnosis for Peeps is ____________.

A. secondary cardiomyopathy
B. congestive heart failure
C. primary cardiomyopathy
D. dilated cardiomyopathy

A

B. congestive heart failure

37
Q

Which of the following would not be a part of parvo treatment?

A. Use of disposable bedding
B. Frequent walks outside to accommodate large volume of diarrhea
C. NPO until vomiting stops
D. Keeping the patient in the isolation ward

A

B. Frequent walks outside to accommodate large volume of diarrhea

38
Q

Radiotherapy is useful on tumors that are ____________.

A. slow growing
B. deep in the body
C. rapidly growing
D. next to the eyes

A

C. rapidly growing

39
Q

This feline disease is caused by a retrovirus. What is the disease?

FIV

FIP

FeLV

Calicivirus

A

FeLV

40
Q

You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is sitting or standing upright, a sign referred to as ____________.

A. dyspnea
B. orthopnea
C. hypoxemia
D. hypoxia

A

A. dyspnea

41
Q

Which of the following viral diseases of dogs is resilient in the environment (6-12 months), is easily spread by dogs and owners’ shoes, and is not easily killed by common disinfectants?

A. Distemper
B. Parvovirus
C. Parainfluenza
D. Lyme disease

A

B. Parvovirus

42
Q

According to Texas law, dogs must be vaccinated against Rabies by ____________ of age.

A. 8 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 16 weeks
D. 24 weeks

A

C. 16 weeks

43
Q

Which disease is not zoonotic?

A. Giardia
B. Distemper
C. Leptospirosis
D. Rabies

A

B. Distemper

44
Q

____________ can progress from respiratory signs, to GI signs, and finally to neurologic signs (seizures, twitching, chewing gum fits) in its disease process.

A. Parvovirus
B. Bordetella
C. Canine Influenza
D. Distemper
E. Rabies

A

D. Distemper

45
Q

Which of the following feline diseases is considered similar to canine parvovirus because it can cause dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and decreased white blood cell count?

A. Feline Panleukopenia
B. Feline infectious peritonitis
C. Feline leukemia
D. Feline calicivirus

A

A. Feline Panleukopenia

46
Q

The most common endocrine disorder in dogs is _________.

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperadrenocorticism
C. Hypoadrenocorticism
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Diabetes mellitus

A

A. Hypothyroidism

47
Q

You and your colleagues attend a lecture on the _____ of a disease to which animals in your patient’s farming community have been exposed recently. This particular lecture, then, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development of this particular disease.

A. pathogenesis
B. pathology
C. etiology
D. histopathology

A

A. pathogenesis

48
Q

Your new job is in an animal health research center that specializes in ______, which is the study of the causation or origins of diseases.

A. pathogenesis
B. pathology
C. etiology
D. histopathology

A

C. etiology

49
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is most commonly known as ____________.

A. the feline lungworm living, at the adult stage in the terminal respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts.
B. the fluke found in cystic spaces within the lung parenchyma of both dogs and cats.
C. the “giant kidney worm” that infects the right kidney of dogs
D. the canine heartworm that often reside in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries of the dog
E. the stomach worm occurring on the stomach mucosa of the horse

A

D. the canine heartworm that often reside in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries of the dog

50
Q

Infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough) is a very contagious disease of dogs. One way to prevent its spread is to vaccinate for _____________.

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
B. canine adenovirus type 1
C. Leptospira canicola
D. canine parvovirus

A

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica

51
Q

One of the oldest diseases for which a vaccine was developed is ____________.

A. Rabies
B. Distemper
C. Rhinotracheitis
D. Parvo

A

A. Rabies

52
Q

In ______, a cold source freezes superficial cancers, and the treated tissue dies and sloughs away.

A. resection

B. radiotherapy

C. chemotherapy

D. cryosurgery

A

D. cryosurgery

53
Q

A dog exposed to _____ can potentially be exposed to the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi.

A. mosquitoes

B. ticks

C. fleas

D. lice

A

B. ticks

54
Q

Idiopathic means __________.

A. the study of the cause of the disease
B. that the cause of the disease is unknown
C. that disease is caused by treatment
D. identifiable body responses

A

B. that the cause of the disease is unknown

55
Q

Which is not considered a Freedom of animal welfare?

A. From hunger and thirst
B. From discomfort
C. From embarrassing situations
D. From fear and distress

A

C. From embarrassing situations

56
Q

Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Tests indicate that Artie has _____, or disease of the heart muscle.

A. cardiomyopathy
B. cardiovascular disease
C. cardio muscular disease
D. congestive heart failure

A

A. cardiomyopathy

57
Q

Serious bacterial infection in the bloodstream (bacteremia) can develop secondary to parvovirus infection (and other serious illnesses) and is called ______.

A. sepsis
B. viremia
C. pyoderma
D. azotemia

A

A. sepsis

58
Q

A tumor that has the ability to spread from tissue of origin is called ________.

A. malignant
B. sarcoma
C. benign
D. carcinoma

A

A. malignant

59
Q

_____ is a syndrome characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer?

A. Anorexia
B. Cancer cachexia
C. Stridor
D. Hepatic encephalopathy

A

B. Cancer cachexia

60
Q

Which feline infectious disease is caused by the Lentivirus?

FIV

FeLV

FIP

Feline Panleukopenia

A

FIP

61
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the cyclical nursing process?

A. Gathering subjective and objective data
B. Identifying and prioritizing evaluations and goals based on the data
C. Developing a nursing care plan
D. Choosing the correct medications for your patient
E. Evaluating the patient’s response

A

D. Choosing the correct medications for your patient

62
Q

SOAP is the format used for medical records.
T/F

A

True

63
Q

The reason surgery could/would be used for cancer treatment is?

A. debulking/reducing the size of a tumor so it can be managed
B. removing the entire tumor beyond its margins if possible
C. redirecting the tumor to grow in a favorable direction
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

D. A and B

64
Q

A patient exhibits ______, which means the patient is coughing up blood—a symptom seen with heartworm disease.

A. hypoxemia
B. hematemesis
C. dyspnea
D. hemoptysis

A

D. hemoptysis

65
Q

Which of the following nerves must be avoided when giving intramuscular injections in a cat or dog?

A. Vagus
B. Sciatic
C. Iliac
D. Radial

A

B. Sciatic