Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Ischemic chest pain becomes unpredictable, more intense, and more difficult to review; can awaken patient from sleep

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome: Unstable Angina

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2
Q

EKG & Lab results: Unstable Angina

A

All negative/no notable findings

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3
Q

Ischemic chest pain that
EKG: ST depression or T wave changes
Labs: positive cardiac biomarkers

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome: Non-stemi

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4
Q

Associated with complete occlusion of a coronary artery by a thrombus superimposed on ruptured plaque

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome: Stemi

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5
Q

EKG & Lab results: Stemi

A

EKG: 1mm or more ST elevation two or more contiguous leads
Labs: positive cardiac biomarkers

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6
Q

2 important Cardiac Biomarkers with MI

A

Troponin
CKMB

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7
Q

RV Triad

A

Systemic hypotension
Absence of pulmonary congestion
Increased CVP and jugular venous distention

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8
Q

S/S Acute Coronary Syndrome (4)

A

Chest pain/discomfort unrelieved by rest
Sense of impending doom
-Bradycardia: inferior MI
-Tachycardia: sympathetic stimulation

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9
Q

Tx: acute coronary syndrome (6)

A

-oxygen
-325 aspirin (have them chew; so no enteric coating)
-nitroglycerin (every 5min up to 3x)
-Morphine
-Beta Blocker
-ACE inhibitor

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10
Q

treatment of stemi

A

heart cath within 90-120 minutes

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11
Q

Parameters for administering nitroglycerin

A

SBP > 90 mmHg
Pulse > 50

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12
Q

_________ decrease myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate, contractibility, and BP

A

Beta-blockers

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13
Q

___________ are generally given after repercussion therapy because they reduce infarct size and improve ventricular remodeling

A

ACE inhibitors

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14
Q
A

Normal Sinus

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15
Q
A

Sinus Brady

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16
Q
A

Sinus Tachycardia

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17
Q
A

Sinus Dysrhythmia (arrhythmia)

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18
Q
A

Premature Atrial Contraction (PAC)

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19
Q
A

Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)

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20
Q
A

Atrial Fibrillation

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21
Q
A

Atrial Flutter

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22
Q
A

Ventricular Fibrilation

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23
Q
A

Ventricular Tachycardia

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24
Q
A

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

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25
Q
A

1st degree heart block

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26
Q
A

3rd degree heart block

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27
Q

therapeutic interventions for SVT (4)

A

-vagal maneuver
-adenosine (drug of choice)
-diltiazem or beta blocker
-cardioversion

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28
Q

what should be ready when administering adenosine and why?

A

crash cart, asystole occurs after administration

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29
Q

collection of air in the pleural space

A

pneumothorax

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30
Q

occurs when air accumulates in the pleural space to the point of causing a mediastinal shift pushing the heart, great vessels, trachea, and lungs toward the unaffected side of the thoracic cavity

A

tention pneumothorax

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31
Q

collection of blood in the pleural cavity

A

hemothorax

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32
Q

excessive fluid in the pleura cavity

A

pleural effusion

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33
Q

collection of purulent material from an infection like pneumonia

A

empyema

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34
Q

4 common causes of air/fluid in the pleural space (need for a chest tube)

A

trauma
medical/surgical complications
infectious disease
cardiovascular problems

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35
Q

risk associated w/ chest tubes (5)

A

risk for infection
subcutaneous emphysema
lung trauma/perforation of diaphragm
bronchopleural fistula
malposition

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36
Q

what do you do when the chest tube becomes disconnected from the patient

A

Cover the whole with jellied gauze, taping 3 sides
If in the field, cover with cleanest thing nearby

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37
Q

what do you do when the chest tube becomes disconnected from the drainage system?

A

place tube end in sterile water until new system can be obtained

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38
Q

Which information would the nurse educator include in a presentation on how to care for clients with a chest tube drainage system? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
* Ensure that chest tube dressing is tight and intact.
* Palpate the skin to detect subcutaneous emphysema.
* Place the chest tube drainage system below the chest.
* Quickly attempt to reinsert the chest tube if it falls out.
* stripped the chest tube with long strokes to promote drainage

A

Ensure that chest tube dressing is tight and intact.
Palpate the skin to detect subcutaneous emphysema.
Place the chest tube drainage system below the chest

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39
Q

Which actions will the nurse take when caring for a client with a chest tube in place after thoracotomy, select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
* Administer prescribed analgesic medications.
* Check around chest tube insertion site for crepitus.
* Clamp the chest tube before the client ambulates.
* Add fluid to the suction control chamber as needed.
* Milk the tubing toward the collection chamber.
* Check for air bubbling in the water seal chamber.

A

Administer prescribed analgesic medications.
Check around chest tube insertion site for crepitus.
Add fluid to the suction control chamber as needed.
Check for air bubbling in the water seal chamber

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40
Q

Which finding in a client who has had a chest tube removed would be of most concern to the nurse ?
* poor cough effort.
* Pain at the chest tube site.
* Crepitus at the chest tube site.
* 2 centimeters of pink drainage on dressing

A

Crepitus at the chest tube site

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41
Q

A client with a chest tube is to be transported via a stretcher.When transporting the client, what would the nurse do?
* Keep collection device attached to mechanical suction.
* Keep chest tube clamped distal to the water seal chamber.
* Keep collection device below the level of the client’s chest.
* Keep the chest tube and covered with sterile gauze pads taped to theclient

A

Keep collection device below the level of the client’s chest

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42
Q

When a client has a chest tube placed in the second intercostal space, how will the nurse evaluate for the effectiveness of the chest tube?
* Check for bubbling in the suction control chamber.
* Measure the amount of drainage in the collection chamber.
* Inspect the amount of bubbling in the water seal chamber.
* Observe for the presence of clots in the tubing

A

Inspect the amount of bubbling in the water seal chamber

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43
Q

When caring for a client after a thoracotomy, which action would the nurse take to keep the chest tube and closed chest drainage system patent?
* Position the drainage system below the level of the client’s heart.
* Empty the collection chamber and measure contents every 12 hours.
* Assure that a daily chest X-ray is done to check chest tube position.
* Keep the client on bed rest until the chest tube is disconnected.

A

Position the drainage system below the level of the client’sheart.

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44
Q

A client anticipates removal of his or her chest tube with angst. Which diagnostic procedure does the nurse discuss when determining when to remove a client’s chest tube?
* The client tolerates disconnection from the chest tubes drainage system for 24 hours.
* A chest X-ray examination occurs before removal to determine lung re-expansion.
* A required arterial blood gas occurs to determine sustained oxygen status.
* The nurse will sedate the client 30 minutes before the scheduled procedure.

A

A chest X-ray examination occurs before removal to determine lung re-expansion

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45
Q

The client has a closed chest tube drainage systemconnected to section. Which assessment findingrequires additional evaluation by the nurse?
* A column of water 20cm high in the suction control chamber.
* 75 mL a bright red blood in the drainage collection chamber.
* An intact occlusive dressing at the insertion site.
* Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber

A

Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber

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46
Q

Which action would the nurse take to determine patency of the chest tube and closed chest drainage system in a client after left lower lobectomy?
* milk the chest tube toward the drainage unit.
* Check the amount of bubbling in the section control chamber.
* Observe for fluctuations of the fluid in the water seal chamber.
* Assess for extent of chest expansion in relation to breast sounds.

A

Observe for fluctuation of the fluid in the water seal chamber

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47
Q

After being notified that a client with a sucking chest wound Is being transported to the emergency department, the nurse will anticipate which initial collaborative intervention?
* Obtaining a chest X-ray.
* Notifying the on call surgeon.
* Preparing for chest tube insertion.
* Drawing blood for laboratory studies

A

Prepare for chest tube inertion

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48
Q

Which nursing action is of the highest priority when aclient’s chest tube has accidentally dislodged?
* place the client in a left side lying position.
* Apply oxygen via non rebreather mask.
* Apply a petroleum gauze dressing over the site.
* Prepare to insert a new chest tube.

A

Apply a petroleum gauze dressing over the site

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49
Q

When caring for a client who has a hemopneumothorax and a chest tube, which prescribed action by the health care provider would the nurse question?
* Auto transfuse the blood in the collection chamber after six hours
* Disconnect the drainage system from the suction to ambulate the client.
* Add sterile water to the suction control chamber to maintain the 20cm Of suction.
* Use a dressing impregnated with a petroleum Jelly around the chest tube insertion site.

A

Auto transfuse the blood in the collection chamber after six hours

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50
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with a pneumothorax who has a chest tube attached to a closed chest drainage system. If the chest tube and the closed chest drainage system are affective, which type of pressure will be reestablished?
* Neutral pressure in the pleural space.
* Negative pressure in the pleural space.
* Atmospheric pressure in the thoracic cavity.
* Intrapulmonary pressure in the thoracic cavity.

A

Negative pressure in the pleural space

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51
Q

While walking in a hallway, a client with a chest tube becomes confused and pulls the chest tube out. Which action would the nurse take?
* Place the client in the supine position.
* Spread a clamp in the insertion site to hold the site open.
* Obtain a sterile Vaseline gauze to cover the opening.
* Cover the opening with the cleanest material available.

A

Cover the opening with the cleanest material available.

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52
Q

After a change of shift report, which client would the nurse assess first?
* Client with possible lung cancer who has just returned from the nursing unit after mediastinoscopy
* Client with cough whose chest X-ray shows possible active tuberculosis and needs sputum testing.
* Client who has pneumococcal pneumonia and very decreased breath sounds in the right lung base.
* Client who has a chest tube with rapid bubbling in the suction controlChamber of the drainage system.

A

Client with possible lung cancer who has just returnedfrom the nursing unit after mediastinoscopy

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53
Q

Ventilator mode that allows for a minimum # of preset mandatory breaths delivered by the vent but does NOT allow for spontaneous breaths

A

Assist/Control mode

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54
Q

Complication from A/C mode

A

hyperventilation -> respiratory alkalosis

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55
Q

Ventilator mode that allows for preset minimum # of breaths and ALLOWS patient to initiate spontaneous breaths in-between mandatory ones

A

Synchronous Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) mode

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56
Q

When should A/C vs SIMV mode be used

A

-A/C should be used for pts who need full ventilatory support
-SIMV should be used for pts who need partial ventilatory support or are weaning off vent

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57
Q

advantages of SIMV mode (3)

A

-helps maintain respiratory muscle strength avoiding atrophy of respiratory muscles
-distributes tidal volume throughout the lung fields evenly
-helps to decrease mean airway pressure

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58
Q

vent mode that allows pressure above atmospheric pressure to be maintained throughout the breath cycle

A

CPAP

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59
Q

vent mode that allows spontaneous breaths supported by the vent during inspiratory breathing phase

A

Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV)

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60
Q

vent mode that delivers a supported breath to reach a set tidal volume

A

volume support

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61
Q

FiO2 > __________ for a prolonged time increase risk of oxygen toxicity

A

60%

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62
Q

Flow rate too low can cause: (2)

A

-patient-ventilator dyssnchrony
-increase work of breathing

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63
Q

Side effects of PEEP (5)

A

decreased systolic blood pressure
decreased cardiac output
decreased venous return to heart
barotrauma
increased ICP

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64
Q

Nursing care during intubation (5)

A

-assist with set-up
-administer medications
-monitor vs
-documentation
-family/patient education

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65
Q

what is needed in intubation set-up (3)

A

intubation box/cart
suction
Ambu-bag

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66
Q

intervention measures to clear airway (4)

A

suctioning
CPT
position changes
promote mobility

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67
Q

how to prevent ventilation association pneumonia (VAP) (5)

A

-HOB up 30-45 degrees
-oral care every 2 hours
-Closed suction device
-humidified oxygen
-in-line metered dose inhaler administration

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68
Q

Ventilator bundle (6)

A

-oral care every 2 hours
-HOB elevated at least 30 degrees
-daily sedation holiday/interruption
-daily assessment for extubation/weaning
-GI prophylaxis
-DVT prophylaxis

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69
Q

Vent bundle GI prophylaxis includes (2)

A

H2 blocker (Pepcid)
PPI (Protonix, Prilosec, or Nexium)

70
Q

Vent bundle DVT prophylaxis inlcludes (2)

A

-anticoagulation (heparin, lovenox)
-SCDs

71
Q

Complications of mechanical ventilation (6)

A

-barotrauma/volutrauma
-hemodynamic instability
-Ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
-aspiration
-immobilization
-anxiety/pain/delirium

72
Q

Post extubation nursing bedside swallow screening procedures (4)

A

-patient must be alert and able to sit upright
-position patient at 90 deg with head in neutral position
-instruct patient to drink 3ox water w/o interruption
-watch for s/s of aspiration up to 1 min after water drank

73
Q

if patient fails swallow screen: (2)

A

NPO
Speech consult

74
Q

consequences of pain (8)

A

-inadequate sleep
-anxiety
-increases stress response
-prevents and slows rest/healing
-tachycardia
-hypertension
-hypoxia
-linked to patient death

75
Q

Scales to assess pain (3)

A

-self report
-behavioral pain scale (BPS)
-Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT)

76
Q

non-pharmacological interventions for pain (7)

A

-ET section/repositioning
-Reposition patient in bed
-Oral care
-Reassurance/family presence
-heat/cold therapy
-massage, acupuncture, relaxation
-muscle, low lights, room temp

77
Q

Pharmacological pain management (2)

A

-continuous pain management
-breakthrough pain management

78
Q

Most common medications for pain management (6)

A

-hydromorphone
-morphine
-fentanyl
-methadone
-oxycodone
-hydrocodone

79
Q

scales to assess agitation

A

RASS
Ramsay SAS
Riker SAS

80
Q

goal is to reach a quality of sedation where patients are:

A

cooperative
comfortable
accepting of care

81
Q

Sedative medications (5)

A

Dexmedetomidine (presidex)
Lorazepam
Propofol
Midazolam
Barbituates

82
Q

Role of RN with sedation management (6)

A

Daily sedation holiday
educate family
skin management
DVT prophylaxis
pain control
assessment

83
Q

Equipment needed for conscious sedation (7)

A

intravenous access
monitoring equipment (pulse, BP, rhythm)
Emergency cart w/ defibrillator & medications
Suction equipment
Ambu bag
Supplemental oxygen
appropriate artificial airways

84
Q

monitor that measures and displays end tidal carbon dioxide

A

capnograph monitor

85
Q

daily planned discontinuation of paralytics and/or sedation in order to do neurological assessment of paient

A

Sedation holiday

86
Q

syndrome characterized by the acute onset of cerebral dysfunction with a change or fluctuation in baseline mental status, inattention, and either disorganized thinking or an altered level of consciousness

A

delirium

87
Q

impact of delirium (4)

A

-increased mortality
-increased length of stay
-increased cost of care
-long-term cognition impairment

88
Q

assessment tools for delirium (2)

A

Confusion assessment method of the ICU (CAM-ICU)
Intensive Care Delirium Screening Checklist (ICDSC)

89
Q

3 subtypes of delirium

A

-Hyperactive
-Hypoactive
-Mixed

90
Q

characteristics of hyperactive delirium (3)

A

Combative
Agitated
Restless

91
Q

characteristics of hypoactive delirium (3)

A

-lethargic
-Sedated
-Stupor

92
Q

Management of delirium (6)

A

-treat the cause of the delirium
-mobilize the patient if possible
-provide sleep enhancement
-antipsychotic such as haloperidol
-manage withdrawal symptoms
-family involvement

93
Q

Goal of neuromuscular blockage (4)

A

decrease:
-oxygen consumption
-total body work
-pain and anxiety
-temeprature

94
Q

golden rule of sedation/paralytic

A

never start a neuromuscular blockade without sedation

95
Q

Common paralytics (3)

A

Norcuron (vecuronium)
Pavulon (pancuronium)
Rocuronium

96
Q

classification of post complications (3)

A

immediate: within 24 hrs of procedure
early: occurs as inpatient or within 30 days of procedure
late: occurs following discharge of >30 days of procedure

97
Q

amount of blood pumped by ventricle in liters per minute

A

cardiac output

98
Q

percent of end diastolic volume ejected with each heart beat (left ventricle)

A

ejection fraction

99
Q

amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat

A

stroke volume

100
Q

3 components of stroke volume

A

preload
afterload
contractility

101
Q

degree of stretch of cardiac muscle fibers at end of diastole

A

preload

102
Q

resistance to ejection of blood from ventricles

A

afterload

103
Q

ability of cardiac muscle to shorten in response to electrical impulse

A

contractility

104
Q

cardiac output formula

A

heart rate x stroke volume = cardiac output

105
Q

normal cardiac output:

A

4-8 L/min

106
Q

cardiac output correction method accounting for body surface area (CO/BSA)

A

cardiac index

107
Q

normal cardiac index

A

2.5-4 L/min/m2

108
Q

direct measurement of blood pressure in the right atrium and vena cava

A

central venous pressure

109
Q

normal central venous pressure

A

2-6 mmHg

110
Q

indications for central venous access (7)

A

-need to rapid fluid infusion
-IV fluid requiring CVC
-Frequent blood draws
-Chronically ill/unable to obtain peripheral access
-CVP monitoring
-SvO2 monitoring
-Administration of several IV medications/vasoactive/incompatible meds

111
Q

contraindications for central line (2)

A

recurrent sepsis
hypercoagulable state

112
Q

normal MAP ranges from

A

70-90 mm

113
Q

MAP formula

A

(Systolic + (2x diastolic)) / 3

114
Q

isotonic fluids given to

A

increase intravascular volume

115
Q

isotonic fluids (3)

A

0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
Lactated ringers (LR)
Dextrose 5% in water (DSW)

116
Q

Hypotonic Fluids (3)

A

Quarter (0.225%) normal saline
Half (0.45%) normal saline
Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)

117
Q

hypotonic fluid indications

A

hyper- states (hypernatremia, DKA)

118
Q

hypertonic fluid indications

A

Hypo-states (hypovolemia, hyponatremia)

119
Q

Dexmedetomidine (presidex) side effects (4)

A

hypotension
bradycardia
sinus arest
AFib

120
Q

Dexmedetomidine (presidex) nursing implications (2)

A

continuous vital sign, telemetry, & fluid balance monitoring
assess sedation w/ sedation scale

121
Q

Dexmedetomidine (presidex) expected outcomes

A

sedation & decreased need for additional analgesia medication

122
Q

Dexmedetomidine (presidex) teaching (5)

A

report agitation, confusion, weakness, abdominal pain, & changes in bowel movements

123
Q

Digoxin expected outcomes (2)

A

slow heart rate
increase cardiac output

124
Q

Digoxin side effects (5)

A

dizziness
fatigue
headache
weakness
blurred vision

125
Q

Digoxin nursing implications (4)

A

monitor apical pulse and hold if <60 bpm
Monitor BP and heart rhythm
Monitor I&O, edema, lung sounds for fluid overload
Monitor potassium, calcium, and magnesium

126
Q

Digoxin teaching (3)

A

How to take pulse and hold if <60bpm
Don’t double dose
Report s/s of toxicity

127
Q

Digoxin toxicity s/s (3)

A

-GI distress
-visual disturbances
-arrhythmais

128
Q

Fentynal expected outcome

A

decrease moderate-severe pain

129
Q

Fentynal s/s (5)

A

confusion/sedation
weakness
constipation
apnea
respiratory depression

130
Q

Fentanyl nursing implications (3)

A

-baseline assessment of vitals, pain, and respiratory status before and after giving
-remove old patches before placing new ones
-if overdose occurs, removing patch will not immediately reverse effects

131
Q

Fentanyl education (3)

A

-avoid alcohol consumption
-constipation, over sedation, and dependency risks
-change positions carefully & avoid driving

132
Q

Heparin action/expected outcome

A

prevention/treatment of thrombi emboli and DIC

133
Q

Heparin side effects (4)

A

hematuria
hemorrhage
prolonged coagulation time
tarry stools

134
Q

heparin nursing indications (3)

A

-obtain PTT and anti-Xa labs prior to & designated interbals
-assess for s/s of bleeding
-rotate subq sites

135
Q

heparin antidote

A

protamine sulfate

136
Q

heparin teaching (4)

A

-report s/s of bleeding
-n/v of blood
-dark tary stools
-report bruising or bleeding from gums

137
Q

Ipratropium action

A

maintenance therapy of reversible airway obstruction through bronchodilator or reduction in rhinorrhea

138
Q

ipratropium side effects (6)

A

dizziness
nervousness
blurred vision
bronchospasm
cough
hypotension

139
Q

Ipratropium nursing indications (4)

A

assess respiratory status before & at peak
have patient rinse mouth after use
assess oral cavity for stomatitis
intranasal: avoid inhalation during administration

140
Q

Ipratropium education (2)

A

rinse mouth after use (inhalation)
don’t inhale medication (intranasal)

141
Q

Lorazepam action (3)

A

CNS depressant decreases anxiety, improves sleep, and decreases seizure activity

142
Q

Lorazepam side effects (5)

A

dizziness
drowsiness/lethargy
confusion
hepatic dysfunction
respiratory depression

143
Q

Lorazepam nursing interventions (5)

A

-Assess geriatric patients carefully for CNS reaction
-Assess fall risk
-Monitor renal, hepatic, and hematologic function
-Monitor VS for hypotension
-Verify patient is not pregnant

144
Q

Lorazepam education (3)

A

-Used for short-term therapy
-Avoid driving until response to medication is known
-Taper off when stopping

145
Q

Morphine/Dilaudid action

A

relief of moderate to sever pain

146
Q

Morphine is the analgesic of choice for (2)

A

MI pain
Acute pulmonary edema associated w/ left ventricle failure

147
Q

Morphine/Dilaudid side effects (5)

A

respiratory depression
anxiety
bradycardia
constipation
urinary retention

148
Q

Morphine/Dilaudid nursing implications (2)

A

Frequent VS & pain assessment before and after
Have oxygen, respiratory equipment, and antidote available

149
Q

dilaudid/morphine teaching (3)

A

avoid alcohol
educate about constipation, over sedation, and dependency risks
change positions carefully and avoid driving

150
Q

Nitroglycerin action

A

increases coronary blood flow to relieve or prevent angina pain and reduce BP

151
Q

Nitroglycerin side effects (5)

A

Dizziness
headache
hypotention
tachycardia
nausea

152
Q

Nitrolgycerin nursing interventions (3)

A

-Monitor BP, HR, & telemetry
-have patient sit or lie down before giving med
-notify PCP if patient is taking erectile
dysfunction medication

153
Q

Nitroglycerin education (3)

A

sit down before taking
avoid alcohol
change positions slowly

154
Q

propanolol action

A

decreases heart rate & BP
arrhythmia suppression
MI prevention

155
Q

propranolol side effects (6)

A

fatigue/weakness
bradycardia
pulmonary edema
hyper/hypoglycemia
bronchospasm
orthostatic hypotension

156
Q

propranolol nursing implications (4)

A

hold if SBP <100
Monitor telemetry, I/O, edema, & lung sounds
monitor renal function and potassium levels
monitor blood glucose

157
Q

propranolol education (3)

A

check pulse daily & BP bi-weekly
take at same time each day
taper off medication when stopping

158
Q

Vecuronium Bromide action

A

paralysis

159
Q

Vecuronium Bromide side effects (6)

A

muscle weakness
respiratory insufficiency
apnea
bronchospams
hypotension
tachycardia

160
Q

Vecuronium Bromide nursing implications (3)

A

assess patient response using nerve stimulator
monitor vital signs
promote frequent ROM & repositioning

161
Q

Vecuronium Bromide education

A

use of paralytic during ET intubation and mechanical ventilation

162
Q

normal pH

A

7.35

163
Q

normal PaCo2

A

35-45

164
Q

normal HCO2

A

22-26

165
Q

pH high; PCO2 is low

A

respiratory alkalosis

166
Q

pH low; PCO2 is high

A

Respiratory acidosis

167
Q

pH high; HCO3 high

A

metabolic alkalosis

168
Q

pH low; HCO3 low

A

metabolic acidosis

169
Q

ABG: uncompensated

A

if respiratory: HCO3 is normal
if metabolic: PCO2 is normal

170
Q

ABG: partially compensated

A

nothing is normal

171
Q

ABG: compensated

A

pH is normal