Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

five freedoms of animal welfare

A

freedom from hunger and thirst
freedom from discomfort
freedom from pain, injury and disease
freedom to express normal behavior
freedom from dear and distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

examples of the 5 freedoms of discomfort

A

normal physical behavior
normal behavior
adequate nutrition
good husbandry
routine care
one health
biosecurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do you determine if an animal is healthy

A

behavior
condition of animal
physical exam
5 senses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is our greatest tools of veterinary medicine

A

physical exams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 senses

A

nose
eyes
ears
touch
taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

examples of observations

A

what you see when you get to the farm
what you see in your exam room
observation before touching the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

examples of smell

A

what do you sell when you get out of the truck

what do you smell in the exam room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

examples of what you hear in the barn

A

animal moving
coughing
respiratory sounds
growling
barking
heart
lungs
gastrointestinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

examples of touch

A

what do you palpate on the patient
glands
bones
muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

industry uses of goats/sheep

A

meat
dairy
fiber
hobby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most producers have less than _____ head of sheep in the US

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Highest producing states in sheep production

A

Texas
california
colorado
Wyoming
Utah

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Parts of the US with greatest goat production

A

western
southeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lambs or goats has the lowest fat content

A

goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lambs age

A

1-3 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mutton age

A

older than 3 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is consumed more, mutton or lamb

A

lamb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When ethnic holidays are in season what happens to meat industry demand

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

examples of ethnic holidays that effect market demand

A

easter
4th of July
cinco de mayo
passover
Christmas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

examples of breeds of sheep

A

cheviot
dorset
hampshire
terminal sires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

examples of terminal sires

A

suffolk
texel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most common meat breed of goats

A

boer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Boer origin and estrous

A

south africa
polyestrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kiko origin

A

new zealand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

fainting goats origin

A

Tennessee and texas
cross bred with other meat goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

goat known for good meat carcass

A

spanish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

spanish origin and estrous

A

Oklahoma
polyestrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sheep fiber is based on 4 textures

A

coarse
medium
fine
speciality
Angora
chasmere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which coat type of sheep is selected for their fiber

A

fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

examples of coarse sheep

A

romney
Lincoln

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

examples of medium sheep

A

Suffolk
hampshire
dorset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

examples of fine sheep

A

merino
Rambouillet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

examples of specialty sheep

A

karakul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

define specialty hair

A

more fine, like normal hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

examples of Angora fiber goats

A

mohair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

define mohair goat

A

two times a year
5.3 pounds of fiber per year
delicate
low kidding rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

define cashmere goat

A

dual coats
shorn yearly
2.5 pounds per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

percent cashmere

A

20-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which part of the dual coat is cashmere in goats

A

undercoat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

We import more than we produce

A

goat milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

benefits of goat milk

A

healthier than cows milk
better for allergies and lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define east friesian milk breed sheep

A

500-700 pounds
6-7% fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define lacaune milk breed sheep origin and what it produces

A

from France
known for blue cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define Awassi milk breed sheep origin and use

A

South west Asia
middle asia
multi-purpose
high producer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the dairy breed
- swiss
- 2.600 pounds
- 3.3% fat
- cooler regions

A

Saanen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the dairy breed
- N. Sudan X Anglo breeds
- high temperatures
prolonged breeding period
- 1800 pounds
- 4.9% fat

A

Nubian/ Anglo-Nubian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the dairy breed
- spain
- 2100 pounds
- 4% fat

A

LaMancha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the dairy breed
- europe
- early settlers
- 2300 pounds
- 3.4 % fat

A

Alpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Alpine is known as early settlers, why

A

easy to move on boat and bring over to the americas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the dairy breed
- swiss
- oldest known dairy breed
- 2100 pounds
- 3.2 % fat
- cooler regions

A

Toggenburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

main use for sheep

A

fun/hobby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

housing for sheep/goats

A

ventilation
no condensation
dry and clean bedding
water and feed access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

housing is needed to prevent

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

pasture for sheep/goats

A

access
open range
shelter
rotational grazing
can mix with other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

why are goats good to mix with other animals

A

eat brush and clean fence rows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

shelter for sheep/goats

A

run in shed
slatted platform
wind breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

dry lots in sheep/goats

A

when paddock feed is limited
finishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

finishing diet for sheep/goats

A

concentrate based diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

paddock feed is limited to sheep/goats

A

dry seasons
reduced ground cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fencing for sheep/goats

A

wire stands (4-5)
woven wire
48’’ high
boundary fencing
use donkeys, horses and dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

types of dairy operations for goats

A

hand milking
machine milking bucket
machine milking parlor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

lambing for small herds

A

shed
provided feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

lambing for large herds

A

best if temps are 45 degrees of higher
increase feed availability (grass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

famacha score

A

looking at the color of tissues around eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

five point check

A

nose - discharge
jaw - swelling
eye - anemia
back - condition
tail - staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

BCS score in sheep/goats

A

1-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

BCS thin in sheep/goats

A

1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

BCS medium in sheep/goats

A

4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

BCS fat in sheep/goats

A

7-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how many compounds are in swines manure that gives its smell

A

125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the 5 input production model

A

health
genetics
nutrition
environment
management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

pig flow organization structure

A

production phase
housing
scheduling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

production basis

A

producer to consumer
inout to output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

inputs in swine production

A

tangible
people
capital
information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

tangible inputs in swine production

A

corn of diets
breeding stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

people inputs in swine production

A

labor
management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

capital inputs in swine production

A

financing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

information inputs in swine production

A

internal - records
external - research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the name of the equation

asset turnover X net profit margin X leverage

A

Dupont Equation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

examples of asset turnover in swine

A

daily gain
litter size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

net profit margin in swine production

A

feed efficiency
decreased vaccine cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

leverage in swine production

A

shift ownership but maintains control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

5 input model examples of disease

A

diagnosis
prevention
control
treatment
welfare requirements
biosecurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

5 input model examples of nutrition

A

control at farm level
feed adjustment
feed intake monitoring
particle size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

5 input model examples of genetics

A

biosecurity
semen movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

5 input model examples of environment

A

internal + facility related
easily identify problems
with with others seek solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

5 input model examples of management

A

many factors
workers
equipment
housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

feed intake for swine is

A

meal or pellet forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

nutrition of growing pigs

A

fed ad lib
4% body fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

nutrition of gilts prior to breeding

A

fed near ad Lib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

nutrition of gestating sows

A

feed limited
1% of body fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

nutrition of lactating sows

A

fed ad lib except for 3-4 days post-farrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

water intake for swine

A

free choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

examples of waters for swine

A

nipple drinkers
cup drinkers
water troughs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

how much weight does swine need per 100 pounds of body weight

A

1 gallon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

normal litter size for pigs

A

10-15 piglets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

maternal breeds for swine

A

large white - Yorkshire + landrace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

define Yorkshire pigs

A

erect ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

define landrace pigs

A

floppy ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

material breeds for swine

A

duroc (red)
Hampshire (belt)
pietrain (spots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

material female pigs are used to make

A

commercial breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

terminal males are used to make

A

purebreds
F1 cross
synthetic lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what are synthetic lines

A

developed by crossing a breed to themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

commercial pigs crossing

A

material lines X terminal lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

pigs environment needs

A

good air quality
critical temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

effective environment temperature

A

heat loss/gain through
conduction
evaporation
convection
infrared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

conduction

A

skin contact with the floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

evaporation

A

water on skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

convection

A

air movement across skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

infrared

A

distance from hot/cold surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

describe pigs flow in production

A

even flow = increase production = money
control disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

veterinary practices that manage swine farms

A

blood work
necropsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

vet roles In management

A

information
- internal
- external
problem identification
monitoring
training
advising
communication
- listening
- oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

internal information from veterinarians

A

observation
records
diagnostics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

external information from veterinarians

A

research information
experiences
vet school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

model uses

A

production planning
trouble shooting problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

production planning in model uses

A

new operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

trouble shooting in model uses

A

holistic approach
consider all problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

4 P’s in marketing pork as food

A

product -quality
price - low cost - commodity
place - location
- corn belt for finishing
positioning - target audience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

aspects of meat quality

A

taste
color
pH
H2O holdig place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

define TQA

A

trucker quality assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

define PQA and its role

A

pork quality assurance
antibiotic residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

antibiotic resistance in bacterial contamination

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

pork is a

A

commodity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

excess supply dramatically reduces prices paid to farmers

A

consumer demand
packing industry capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

example of why price will gravitate towards cost of production

A

biofuels increased production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

challenge for pork suppliers

A

exports - 20 to 25% of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

when exports decrease

A

cost increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

waste management on swine farms

A

phosphorus build up
lagoons versus deep storage pits
ground and surface water contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

odor and gas emissions

A

from facility
manure application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

neighborhood issues

A

traffic
work force
culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

stalls for gestating sows in primary issues

A

stall size vs sow size
tethers - phased out
number of pens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

other issues on swine farms

A

farrowing crates for lactating sows
casteration
tail docking
ear notching
transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

ownership on swine operations

A

family
corporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

facility size on swine operations

A

increased with breeding herd
decreased with finishing pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

labor on swine operations

A

family based to employees
immigrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

management on swine operations

A

family based to professionals
highly educated
experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

foward vertical integration fowards

A

feed manufactures starts with raising pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

backwards vertical integration

A

packer starts raining pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

vertical coordination in industry

A

purchase contracts from packers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

process verification on swine operations

A

documentation
audits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

dependency on exports on swine operations

A

exchange rates
barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

disease control

A

age segregation
AIAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

gilt

A

female pig of any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

select gilt

A

retained for breeding at 5-6 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

parity on swine operations

A

O prior to farrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

sow

A

female that has farrowed at least one litter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

sows are kept for how many litters

A

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

sows average number of litters

A

3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

boar

A

intact male that is kept for AI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

barrow

A

casterated male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

casteration for pigs is recommend

A

7 days or less of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

gestation length

A

115 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

another name for farrowing

A

parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

lactation length

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

define weaning

A

abrupt where entire litter is removed from milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

breeding/gestation age and weight

A

6 mo to 8+ parities
200-600 lbs for females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

farrowing age and weight

A

wean at 3-4 weeks
2-5 pounds weaning
12-15 pounds weaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

nursery age and weight

A

stays 6-8 weeks
50-70 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

finisher age and weight

A

stay until market
240-300 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

replacement gilts and boars enter around _____ of age

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

pigs weaned at _______ of age

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

boars AI uses starts around ________ of age

A

8-10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Boards semen is collected through

A

AI
natural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

AI center on swine operations is located

A

off site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

heat detection for sows/gilts

A

teaser boars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

phase optional on swine operations

A

wean to finish
nuresry
finisher
nursery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

facility management of AIAO on swine operations

A

facility is cleaned and emptied before next group come in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

how has man shaped dog breeds

A

physical and mental ability
suitable for work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

how many breeds are known throughout the world

A

340

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

sporting groups for dogs

A

active
alert
regular exercise needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

examples of sporting dogs

A

spaniels
pointers
retrievers
settlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

working groups for dogs

A

quick to learn
smart
strong
alert
guarding
pulling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

examples of working dogs

A

cane corso
mastiff
boxer
great dane
husky
doberman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

herding groups for dogs

A

control movement of other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

examples of herding dogs

A

corgi
collie
border collie
German shepherd
Australian shepherd
Australian cattle dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

hound groups for dogs

A

sight
scent
hunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

examples of hound dogs

A

treeing walker
beagle
greyhound
basset hound
plott hound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

toy groups for dogs

A

small in size but large in personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

examples of toy dogs

A

pug
shih zue
poodle
maltese
terrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

terrier groups for dogs

A

feisty and energetic
bred to hunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

examples of terrier group

A

rat terrier
bull terrier
west highland terrier
airedale terrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

non-sporting groups for dogs

A

diverse group depending on size and personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

non-sporting examples of dogs

A

Dalmatian
bull dog
chow chow
French bull dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Brachycephalic breeds

A

short nose
chow chow
bull dog
pug
French bull dog
boxer
Boston terrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

define brachycephalic breeds

A

elongated soft palate
stenotic nares
everted laryngeal saccules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

dolichocephalic breeds

A

engaged nose
German shepherd
Great Danes
hounds
poodles
huskies
Bassett hound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

define dolichocephalic breeds and what they are prone to

A

used for hunting, sport and tracking
prone to fungal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Mesaticephalic breeds

A

golden retrievers
beagles
dalmations
German short hair pointer
rottweiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Mesaticephalic has a ______ skull

A

square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

puppy stage

A

6-9 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

young adult stage

A

9 mo to 4 yrs of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

mature adult stage

A

4 yrs to start of 25% of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

senior stage

A

last 25% of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

end of life diagram for hospice

A

emotional
social
physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

aspects of wellness and preventive care to be discussed at each life stage

A

physical exam
patient safety
behavior
zoonotic disease
nutrition
parasites
dental health
reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

inherited disease

A

caused by genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

predisposed disease

A

likely to get disease due to genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

pug with inherited small snout can lead to what predisposed diseases

A

heat stroke
dental issues
skin issues
eye problems
respiratory diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

dash hound with long back can predispose them to

A

disease dick or IVDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

cranial cruciate rupture examples in dogs

A

golden retrievers
German shepherds
Rottweilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

hip/elbow dysplasia examples in dogs

A

large breeds dogs
golden retrievers
Rottweiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

heart disease examples in dogs

A

toy poodle
dachshunds
boxer
great dane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

murmurs in heart disease examples in dogs

A

King Charles cavalier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy examples in dogs

A

boxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

neoplasia lymphoma examples in dogs

A

golden retriever
boxer
Bassett hound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

neoplasia hemangiosarcoma examples in dogs

A

German shepherd
golden retrievers
boxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

neoplasia osteosarcoma examples in dogs

A

boxer
Rottweiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

mast cell tumors examples in dogs

A

boxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

diseases worth talking about to owners throughout life

A

MDR1 gene - herding dogs
platelet - grey hounds
higher RBC- sight hounds
bloat - great danes
degenerative myelopathy - German shepherd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

pets life style to talk about with dog owners

A

exercise
exposure to other animals
housing
exposure to toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

zoonotic disease in dogs

A

endoparasites - hookworms + roundworms

toxoplasmosis - ringworm
ectoparasite - flea + ticks
rabies - bite prevention
leptospirosis
bortonella henselae
salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

for all ages screen for

A

allergies
intolerance
BCS
diet
schedule of feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

is muscle and body condition score the same

A

NO, look at the separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

parasite control of all life stages

A

year around intestinal control
year around heart worm
year around flea and tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

fecals for young dogs

A

every 2 weeks during vaccinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

decals for older dogs

A

once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

core vaccinations for dogs

A

booster after 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

non-core vaccination for dogs

A

booster yearly as needed
based on risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

antibody testing for

A

CDV
CPV
CAV2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

when do you start dental practices

A

younger age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

some animals are _______ to losing teeth

A

pre-exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

help adult/senior life a stress free life by

A

cleaning/removing bad teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

discussion of intact dogs

A

disease such as enraged prostates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

discussion of breeding pets

A

brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

discussion as dogs get older

A

mammy gland neoplasia
prostatic issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

feline breeds are named by

A

hair coat color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

feline breeds

A

calico
tabby
ci-color
tri-color
tuxedo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

define polydactyl

A

many toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

brachycephalic cat

A

himyalayan
persian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

mesaticephalic cat

A

bengal
maine coon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

dolichocephalic cats

A

siamese
somali
sphynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

kitten stage

A

birth to 1 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

young adult cat stage

A

1-6 yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

mature adult cat stage

A

7-10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

senior cat stage

A

older than 10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

what do owners think is common in cats but is bad

A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

safety measures to consider when talking to clients about cats

A

toys
strings
plants - Lillies
human pain medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

How many litter boxes are needed in the house

EX. I own 5 cats

A

6 litter boxes needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

prevalent in pregnant women with cats when changing litter boxes

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

FVRCP in cats

A

8
12
16
weeks of age
booster 6 months and 1-3 years

242
Q

FeLV in cats

A

12 and 16 weeks of age
booster at 1 year of age

243
Q

rabies in cats

A

12 or 16 weeks of age depending on label

booster at 1 year

244
Q

senior cats after _______ years of age discuss risk/benefits

A

10

245
Q

genetic and congenital diseases in cat breeds

A

manx
rag doll
persians
main coon
sphynx

246
Q

examples of genetic and congenital diseases in sphynx

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

247
Q

infectious disease in cats

A

parasites
viral
retroviral
felines infectious peritonitis
upper respiratory disease
dermatophytosis

248
Q

diseases that require attention in young adult cats

A

feline bronchial disease
cardiomyopathy
chronic enteropathy
FIP
systemic final disease
FAD

249
Q

diseases in older cats

A

chronic kidney disease
neoplasia
cognitive disease syndrome
DJD
hyperthyroidism `

250
Q

what are the type of riding

A

English
western

251
Q

A horses walk has how many beats

A

4

252
Q

name the types of walk

A

stepping pace
rack
tolt

253
Q

Is a horses walk diagonal or symmertical

A

diagonal

254
Q

a horses trot has how many beats

A

2

255
Q

variations of trot

A

pace
jog
passage
piaffe
extend
medium
length

256
Q

canter from horses has how many beats

A

3

257
Q

variation of canter in horses

A

lope

258
Q

which gait helps identify lameness in horses

A

trot

259
Q

a gallop in horses has how many beats

A

4

260
Q

what is the breed of horse:
well muscled
14-16 hands
good tempered
variation in job and type

A

America quarter horse

261
Q

describe buckskin horse

A

golden with black mane and tail
no dorsal strips

262
Q

describe a Dun horse

A

red
bay
black

263
Q

describe a grullo horse

A

black dun

264
Q

describe a roan horse

A

white hairs in base color

265
Q

describe a palomino horse

A

golden with cream mane and tail

266
Q

what are the color of the following horses

A
267
Q

dun factor marking

A

distinct dorsal strip
ear barring
ear tips
leg barring
cobwebbing
lower fast mask

268
Q

main colors of dun

A

black
bay
chestnut
grullo
bay dun
red dun

269
Q

Name the following colors

A
270
Q

Describe the American paint/pinto horse

A

not a quarter horse
with pattern with color base coat
has to go above the knee and hock

271
Q

pinto is any type of paint regarless of

A

breed type

272
Q

examples of QH work

A

cutting
barrel racing
roping
reining sprinters
western pleasure
halter horse
hunt seat
trail

273
Q

ethical concerns of wester pleasure QH

A

tie heads up over extended period of time so they drop their head during show and keep it dropped

274
Q

genetic disorders in QH

A

Impressive passed down HYPP

275
Q

HYPP is

A

potassium metabolism causes seizers

276
Q

describe Appaloosa

A

base color with spots
may have stripped feet

277
Q

what is the breed of horse:
bred for speed
very old breed
15-17 hands
lighter muscle and longer limbed
high energy
identification through lip tattoo

A

thoroughbred

278
Q

thoroughbred is moving from lip tattoo to

A

microchips

279
Q

TB common jobs

A

dirt
steeplechase
turf
eventing
barrel racing
dressage
polo
chuck wagon races

280
Q

ethical concerns for horse racing speed

A

breakdowns

281
Q

ethical concerns for horse racing money

A

cheating at the expense of the horse

282
Q

ethical concerns for horse racing controversial medications

A

NSAIDS - inflammation control
shock wave

283
Q

what happens when racing horses retire

A

slaughter
other careers
breeding if highly valuable

284
Q

Describe the breed:
similar to TB
jug heads
much calmer temperature
trotters
pacers
identification via freeze branding on the neck

A

Standardbred

285
Q

Standardbred movement pattern

A

symmetrically

286
Q

use of amish standard bred horses

A

Working
pulling
not a companion animal

287
Q

what is the breed:
dished face
pointy tail head
foundation breed from middle east
hot horse
14-15 hands
refined features
some have 5 instead of 6 lumbar vertebrae and 17 instead of 18 ribs

A

Arabian

288
Q

use of Arabian horses

A

work in the desert
show
racing

289
Q

new practice in Arabian horses

A

bred to have a swan neck

290
Q

what is the breed:
built for specialty movement and comfort
15-16 hands
tail set
high neck set
can have a 4 beat ambling gait

A

American Saddle bred

291
Q

what is the breed:
gaited = running walk
big lick
not supposed to trot or canter
comfort
15-17 hands
4 beat gait

A

Tennessee Walking Horses

292
Q

TWH jobs

A

show
trail

293
Q

ethical concerns for TWH and ASB

A

tail setting
training aids to lift feet higher
soring
chain
stacks

294
Q

Examples of other gaited horses

A

Missouri fox trotter
rocky mountain
spotted saddle horse

295
Q

examples of draft horses

A

Percheron - show
clydesdale - pull
Belgian - work

296
Q

draft horse jobs

A

pulling carts
show
pulling
showing
eventing

297
Q

ethical considerations of draft horses

A

tail docking for breed standard

298
Q

PMU in horses

A

pregnant mares urine was used for estrogen drug (Premarin) for women going through menopause

299
Q

when was Premarin decline

A

2000’s for synthetic replacement

300
Q

what is the breed:
hanoverian
holsteiner
dutch
belgian
hot and cold breed
16-18 hands
used for Olympic sport

A

European warmblood

301
Q

examples of warmblood

A

friesian
gypsy vanner

302
Q

WB jobs

A

pulling
showing
eventing

303
Q

the following are examples of:
welsh
shetland
pony of Americans
miniature horse

A

Ponies

304
Q

ponies jobs

A

barrel racing
fun
cart pulling
eventing

305
Q

dependent on an individuals or groups experiences, beliefs, and values

A

Animal Welfare

306
Q

Means how an animal is coping with the conditions in which it lives

A

Animal Welfare

307
Q

who started the discussion on animal welfare

A

Bentham

308
Q

define Vivisection

A

practice of animals for human research

309
Q

Boyles Experiment

A

checked to see if respiration was important is important

310
Q

Anthropomorphism

A

attribution of human characteristics to animals

311
Q

good Anthropomorphism

A

surgery

312
Q

bad Anthropomorphism

A

giving animals human food

313
Q

Sentience

A

capacity to have feelings and experiences suffering and pleasure

314
Q

examples of sentience

A

awareness
positive emotion

315
Q

important stakeholders in animal welfare

A

general public
Vet students
producers
consumers
media
interest groups - welfare groups
government
veterinarians

316
Q

protection of animal health and welfare, the prevention and relief of animal suffering

A

veterinary oath

317
Q

what are the following describes as
- responsible use
- balancing scientific knowledge and professional judgement
- provide water, food and proper handling, health care and environment
- minimize fear, pain, stress and suffering
- continual evaluated
- conservation and management
- respect and dignity
- strive to improve animal health and welfare

A

9 principles to follow during veterinary practice

318
Q

do we consider one species more than another

A

species considered

319
Q

The 5 freedoms

A
  • freedom from hunger and thirst
  • freedom from discomfort
  • freedoms from pain, injury and diseas
  • freedom to express normal behavior
  • freedom from dear and distress
320
Q

The 5 domains

A

nutrition
environment
health
behavior
mental state

321
Q

Three orientations

A

mind
body
nature

322
Q

The three R’s

A

reduce
replace
refine

323
Q

Brambell committee was appointed by the minister of agriculture, fisheries and food and Secretary of State examined

A

conditions in which livestock are kept under systems of intensive husbandry and welfare

324
Q

bramble started the framework of the 5 freedoms based on the ability of the animal to

A

stand
lie down
turn around
groom themselves
stretch their limbs

325
Q

committee created in response to Brambells 5 freedoms

A

Farm animal welfare advisory committee

326
Q

farm animal welfare advisories name was changed in 1979 to

A

farm animal welfare council

327
Q

initial five freedoms were categorized alongside previsions in

A

1993

328
Q

pitfalls of the 5 freedoms

A

focuses on mere satisfaction of achieving relief from suffering

weak attention on metal health

general to all animals and not specific

329
Q

Applications of welfare assessment in the 5 freedoms

A

AVMA
veterinarians
WOAH

330
Q

David Mellor and Dr. Cam Reid reformulated the 5 freedoms to include?

A

physical and functional factors
mental state
welfare compromise

331
Q

the framework of the 5 domains looks at

A

the positive and negative values

332
Q

Examples of Applications in Animal welfare assessments of the 5 domains

A

make sure less native species are not harmed

hunt for invasive pest

333
Q

The three circle model consist of

A

basic health and functioning

affective states

natural living

334
Q

the three circle model was made in

A

1997

335
Q

the three circles model addresses both

A

objective science
subjective human values

336
Q

the three circles model helps individuals

A

understand their own bias

337
Q

basic health and functioning of the three circles model

A

physical fitness
good health
normal growth and development

ex. calves welfare is good because it appears healthy

338
Q

natural living of the three circles model

A

lead reasonably natural lives

ex. calves welfare is bad because it cannot preform natural behaviors

339
Q

affective states of the three circles model

A

good mentality without subject to extreme stress

ex. calves aggravated because it can not suck, but it can adapt to its new environment because it does need to suck

340
Q

Three R’s created by what two English biologist

A

Russell and burch

341
Q

Russell and Burch created the 3 R’s which explains

A

the principle of humane experimental technique

provides a framework for performing more humane research

342
Q

replacement of the 3 R’s

A

methods to avoid using animals

343
Q

partial replacement of the 3 R’s

A

animal tissue/cells are still required. animals are not exposed to distress

344
Q

absolute replacement of the 3 R’s

A

animals are not required in any stage of the research

345
Q

reduction of the 3 R’s

A

maximizing the information obtained from a given number of animals

346
Q

examples of reduction of the 3 R’s

A

animals serving as their own control
telemetry - implant check stats
sharing data
imagining technologies

347
Q

refinement of the 3 R’s

A

modification of husbandry or experimental procedures to enhance animals well-being and minimize or eliminate pain and distress

348
Q

identify all possible courses of action
establish interest of affected parties
identify ethical issues involved
establish legal position of the dilemma
choose a course of action
minimize the impact of the decision

A

the Ethical Matrix

349
Q

what matters is relative cost and benefit to us alone. treating animals well can serve us alone

A

Contractarian

350
Q

sentience is morally relevant so cost and benefits to people and animals must be weighed up. greatest good for the greatest number overall

A

utilitarian

351
Q

consequences for species not individuals

A

respect for nature

352
Q

ethical theories: deontological (obligation)

A

rights and relational

there are certain things that are forbidden and some that are required no matter the consequences

353
Q

rights of obligation ethical theories

A

animals subject of a life confers the right to direct own lives and not be killed or used as means to an end

354
Q

relational ethical theories of obligation

A

mutually beneficial relationship. animals depend on their food and we depend on their product

355
Q

define contractarianism

A

we may have indirect ethical obligations towards animals, because they can matter to other animals

356
Q

define Utilitarianism

A

we must consider welfare consequences as well as benefits to humans

357
Q

define relational

A

focuses on the way in which our treatment of animals might affect our treatment of humans

358
Q

animal rights in ethical theories

A

place a limit on treatment. there are some things we are not allowed to do

359
Q

respect for nature in ethical theories

A

we have the duty to protect not just individual animals, but the species to which they belong

360
Q

the problem of the animal welfare act of 1966

A

people would steal pets and sell them to research labs

361
Q

the solution to animal welfare act

A

people who buy, sell , and breed animals must have a license and follow animal care laws

research animals must be registered and acquired from approved sources

362
Q

Animal welfare act and regulation controls

A

dogs
cats
non-primate
transport of animals
purchase and sell of animals through breeders
exhibition of animals
veterinary care
record keeping
research registration requirements

363
Q

Animal welfare act and regulation does not control

A

lab rats and mice
cold blooded vertebrates

364
Q

the research facility must

A

be register to regulate animals

have animal care and use committee

IACUC to accesss request of animals

ensures everyone acting with animals are trained

have attending veterinarian on sight to care for animals

365
Q

Humane Methods of Slaughter acts states

A

humane methods of the slaughter of livestock to prevent suffering and better working conditions

366
Q

Tenessee states animal cruelty laws

A

animal fighting
cruelty
cremation

367
Q

Maine passed what law for animals

A

companion animals custody law

368
Q

eliminating bad genes or selecting for good genes

A

improvement of genetics

369
Q

traditional methods to avoid bad genes

A

avoid breeding animals with bad genetics

370
Q

traditional methods of genetic selection

A

data from the animal breeds
phenotype

371
Q

newer methods of genetic selection

A

BLUP - best linear unbiased prediction
SNPs - single nucleotide polymorphism

372
Q

BLUP model is described as

A

utilizing phenotypic data from animals to be bred and relatives

373
Q

SNPs model is described as

A

identify superior and inferior genes using molecular techniques to aid in the selection process

374
Q

gene insertion Bt corn

A

insert gene from Bt bacteria that codes for toxin that can impact insects

375
Q

gene deletion

Ex. PRRS virus

A

delete genes that code for the cell receptors that enables the virus to attack

376
Q

examples of gene deletion

A

CRISPR 9 screening

377
Q

how has increased production been accompanied

A

genetic selection programs
more output per animal unit
feed conversion ratio
more weight per animal at slaughter
cost per cow

378
Q

ADG of swine

A

1.35 to 1.75

379
Q

Swine body style

A

carcass lean %
230 to 295 pounds at slaughter

380
Q

mature body weight of dairy cattle

A

1500 to 1600 pounds

381
Q

associated consequences with increased body size

A

lameness
impaired reproduction
crowding in pens
inadequate stall size

382
Q

Dairy semen is implanted through

A

AI

383
Q

lameness health in increased body size

A

mechanical stress
injury due to interaction with stalls and environment

384
Q

environment of increased body size

A

facility design
ventilation

385
Q

as genetics changes can the other outputs be modified to avoid problems?

A

nutrition
health
management
environment

386
Q

vets role in industry

A

promote accountability- did things improve

plan your work, work your plan

387
Q

what factors contribute to your though process

A

policy
welfare
moral values
communication

388
Q

hydrocephalus

A

build up of fluid in the brain

389
Q

breeding extremes can cause what problems in French bulldogs for example

A

fainting smells
inflammation in parts of airway
tiring more quickly during activity
overall breathing problems
issues with body cooling

390
Q

welfare problems associated with genetic changes in breed standards, irresponsible breeding and overall implications

A

affects a large number of animals
potenital to cause negative impact on future
several adverse feelings
effects can be long duration

391
Q

Ocular morphology is an example of

A

breed standard in pugs

392
Q

Breed standard in pugs

A

large head
round head
no indention of the skull
eyes dark in color
thin ears
wrinkles are large and deep
muzzle is short blunt and square
slight underbite

393
Q

clinical consequences of breed standard for pugs

A

decreased breathing
turning of eyelids
hair in-contact with eye
allergies
decreased bathing
inflammation
exophthalmos
corneal scratches
ulcers
deformed facial structures
irritation
hyperpigmentation

394
Q

lagophthalmos

A

inability to completely close the eyelids

395
Q

tear film deficiency

A

dry eye is a disorder of the tear film caused by tear deficiency or excessive evaporation

396
Q

medial canthal entropian

A

lower eyelid rolls inward and covers up the lower nasolacrimal punch + trichiasis hairs that deviate towards the cornea

397
Q

pigmentary keratitis

A

development of corneal pigmentation associated with chronic inflammation

398
Q

ocular trauma

A

shallow bony orbits provide considerably less globe protection

399
Q

responsibility for contributing to the tackling of the problem fall to many groups including

A

breed standrads
companion animal breeders
judges
veterinarians
geneticist
animal welfare scientist
regulators
animal owners

400
Q

controversial word describing the breeds standard for the eye

A

large

401
Q

organizations setting breed standards

A

kennel club
American kennel club

402
Q

Dutch prohibition of the breeding of dogs with too short muzzles

A

kop the skull alone = 0%
snuit is extended nose from skull = 33% and 50%

403
Q

campaign organizations in the Netherlands

A

illegal to breed flat faced Breeds, but they are allowed to buy or sell them

404
Q

how do you apply the ethical matrix

A

take viewpoints from all people

405
Q

define biotechnology

A

vaccines
nutrition
reproduction

406
Q

transgenics

A

using pigs kidneys in humans

globefish sold as pets

407
Q

transgenics

A

using pigs kidneys in humans

globefish sold as pets

408
Q

examples of biotechnology

A

transgenic animals
animal breeding
animal nutrition
embryo transfer

409
Q

Dublin describes biotechnology as

A

the controlled and deliberated manipulation of biological systems for the efficient manufacturing or processing of useful products

410
Q

why was transgenic technology invented

A

research tool to study gene function in disease models

411
Q

example of transgenic technology

A

green florescent protein

412
Q

what is green florescent protein used for in veterinary medicine

A

eye stain

413
Q

transgenic line goes against the

A

3 R’s

414
Q

transgenic implication positives

A

new desirable characteristics quickly
greater accuracy
more disease resistance
some negatives may occur

415
Q

anthropomorphism

A

te attribution of human characteristics or behaviors to a god, animal or object

416
Q

how can welfare assessments be helpful

A

communication with other through analogies but understand and recognize limitations

417
Q

small example of welfare assessment

A

animals can be lethargic but not depressed

418
Q

define eustress

A

stress that is not unpleasant necessarily

419
Q

examples of eustress

A

exercise
training
milking
AI
semen collection

420
Q

distress

A

negative state in which coping and adaptation processes fail to return an organism to homeostasis

421
Q

distress progression

A

may be due to severe or prolonged stressor or multiple stressors insults with animals welfare

422
Q

clinical practice in welfare assemment

A

management of sick animals
individual water and feed intake
groups based on behavior and activity

423
Q

treatment plan of welfare diagnosis

A

primary cause
supportive therapies

424
Q

prognosis in welfare assessment

A

overall outcome - future
progression or improvement
time line for euthanasia

425
Q

animal welfare husbandry provision of resources

A

food and water
environment
temperature
sanitation
oversight
disease control

426
Q

example of research not directly related to animal welfare

A

vaccine efficiency study

427
Q

use of animal welfare research studies

A

focused on perceived welfare concerns with modifying production and providing intervention that improves welfare

parameters measured are welfare based

428
Q

animal welfare behavior

A

can be positive or negative

429
Q

negative animal welfare behavior

A

tail biting
cribbing
repetitive behavior

430
Q

positive animal welfare behavior

A

grooming
exposure to enrichments
repeat for exposure

431
Q

physiological welfare assessments

A

heart rate
respiration rate

432
Q

immunological welfare assessment

A

cortisol levels indicating stress
normal functions
blood work

433
Q

decreased feed intake leads to what in vaccine ability

A

decreased

434
Q

definition of pain

A

unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with tissue damage and describe in terms of such damage

435
Q

reaction to pain

A

usually instant

436
Q

behavioral modification to pain in animal welfare

A

rest
locomotion changes
altered mood
learned avoidance
response to analgesics

437
Q

three types of pain

A

nociceptive - physiological protection
inflammatory - process of healing
dysfunctional - nervous system

438
Q

how to decrease innate fears

A

expose young to stressors at a young age

439
Q

learned behavior in animals

A

separation anxiety in dogs

440
Q

malaise

A

when an animal suffers the consequences of being sick

when it fails to cope or has extreme difficulty coping

440
Q

malaise

A

when an animal suffers the consequences of being sick

when it fails to cope or has extreme difficulty coping

441
Q

treatment of clinical signs in behavioral assessments

A

fever
pain
inappetence
dehydration

442
Q

frustration examples in behavioral assessments

A

laying hen unable to use a nesting box
billy goat unable to breed due to fence
weaned calves separated from mom

443
Q

boredom behavioral assessments

A

cannabolism
biting
fighting
benefit to enrichment

444
Q

why do we have pleasure

A

makes up feel good

445
Q

when animals tend to disguise how they feel to avoid appearing vulnerable to predators

A

normal behavioral assessment

446
Q

examples of normal behavioral assessment

A

skunk spraying
playing dead
deer running
bringing in a horse
alert
active
fight or flight

447
Q

characterization of insult/challenge/ stimulation

A

abnormal behavioral assessment

448
Q

chilled nursery age pigs, just weaned
- rough hair coats
- normal laying but heaters run constantly

this is an example of

A

abnormal behavioral assessment

449
Q

how to measure effective environmental temperature

A

air temperature - thermomerter
surface temperature - infrared
drafts - air flow

450
Q

subjectivity and accuracy in behavioral assessment

A

intra-observation
job performance
job design
motivation

451
Q

communication in behavioral assessment

A

transform subjective observation to objective information that leads to the appropriate action

452
Q

communication in behavioral assessment is done through

A

score keeping
record keeping
out of control proces

453
Q

physiological adaptation activation of the hypothalamic pituitary

A

increased ACTH
increased glucocorticoids
increased catecholamines

454
Q

physiological adaptation direct measurable responses

A

increased HR, temp, respiration
increased metabolic rate
increased blood metabolites
- glucose + lactic acid

455
Q

physiological adaptation to indirect markers

A

immunosuppression
neutrophhil

456
Q

physiological adaptation for direct parameters

A

loss of fitness and production related in food animals

457
Q

examples of physiological adaptation for indirect parameters

A

increased
- morbidity
- mortality
- production
decreased
- appetite
- weight gain

458
Q

issues with measuring physiological adaptation

A

increased cortisol while working cattle
research study design
may require multiple examples over time

459
Q

resources in group of nursery pigs

A

food
water
heat
comfort

460
Q

immunological stress of animal welfare

A

transmissible
group disease
BRD
metritis
physical
- lameness
- trauma

461
Q

how to observe animal observation

A

video
in person
natural
cages/pin
choice testing (animal decides something else)
operant condition (animal does something to earn reward)

462
Q

step of decisions making process

A

information gathering
interpretation
evaluation

463
Q

history taking ni companion animal clinical situations

A

purpose of animals
age
normal behavior
quality of life
interaction with other

464
Q

physical exam in companion animal medicine

A

pain score
lameness score
body condition score
neurological exam
behavioral changed

465
Q

how to diagnose companion animals

A

imaging
biopsies

466
Q

treatment response in companion animals

A

pain mitigation
primary cause

467
Q

how to make sure farms animals comply with industry standards

A

welfare assessment
quality assurance program
PQA
BQA

468
Q

measuring the farm for farm animal behavior

A

facility
records
equipment

469
Q

static observation

A

consistant over time

470
Q

dynamic observation

A

fluctuates over time

471
Q

observing the animals in farm animal welfare

A

general well being
normal activities
routine procedures
impaired animals

472
Q

ventilation in on farm assessment

A

drafts
gas levels
ammonia
carbon dioxide
oxygen

473
Q

stall size and shape on farm assessment

A

free stalls
tie stalls

474
Q

stocking density on farm assessment

A

floor space
feeder space
water drinkers
shade

475
Q

on farm assessments

A

lameness score
hock score
lying times
rumination collars
health records
intervention levels
welfare
dairy cows act like pets
cow comfort has become and important topic

476
Q

input related

A

nutrition
genetics
environment
health
management

477
Q

output related

A

frequency
what can be observed
records

478
Q

normal behavior on farm assessment

A

non-confrontational

move away when approached

479
Q

abnormal behavior degrees of sickness score

A

0
1
2
3

480
Q

0 abnormal behavior degrees of sickness

A

normal
move away when in flight zone

481
Q

1 abnormal behavior degrees of sickness

A

mild
move away when tempted

482
Q

2 abnormal behavior degrees of sickness

A

moderate
usually recumbent
repeat touching is required for animal to arise

483
Q

3 abnormal behavior degrees of sickness

A

severe
recumbent
will not rise with touching

484
Q

feedlot - formal audit program

A

group parameters - stock
environment - shade
sanitation - maure handling
cow calf and stockers

485
Q

history of dehorning

A

genetic selection
reduce age
equipment - saw, barnes, tub
restraint
pain mitigation - local + systemic

486
Q

local pain mitigation

A

corneal block with lidocaine

487
Q

systemic pain mitigation

A

banamine
ketoprofen

488
Q

assessing welfare can be done through

A

clinical cases
farm animals
research

489
Q

three general areas for assessment

A

behavioral
physiological
immunological

490
Q

dynamic welfare

A

may have good intentions
challenges are controlled

491
Q

brood cow

A

had a calf

492
Q

calf

A

nursing

493
Q

weaned calf

A

205 day weight

494
Q

feeder calf/cattle

A

weaned calf to be sold into backgrounder or feedlot

495
Q

stocker/backgrounder

A

after weaning
prior to feed lot

496
Q

fat/fed/finished

A

in feed lot
90 to 180+ days

497
Q

buller

A

steer that mounts pen mates

498
Q

stag

A

late casterated bull

499
Q

two species of cattle

A

bos taurus
bos indicus

500
Q

most common species of cattle

A

bos taurus

501
Q

what is the breed:
british
original population
meat quality

A

Angus

502
Q

what is the breed:
British
polled
horned
hardt

A

hereford

503
Q

what is the breed:
European
Switzerland
dual purpose in Europe
large frame
crosses - semi

A

Simmental

504
Q

what is the breed:
continental - france
high meat yield
carcass cut out

A

Limousin

505
Q

what is the breed:
continental france
large frame
first imported to US via Mexico in 1934

A

Charolais

506
Q

what is the breed:
- developed by cross breeding with purebreds
- eventually crosses bred to crosses
- EX: Santa Gertrudis + Beefmaster

A

composite breed

507
Q

Other breeds of cattle

A

show cattle
- mixture
grass fed
- slow maturing
- british
hobby
- dexter
- zebu
- longhorn
- mini hereford

508
Q

type of cow calf operation

A

seed stock
commercial

509
Q

primary grass based diets in cow calf operations

A

low quality forages
graze
harvested
additional feed
vitamins
minerals

510
Q

minimal housing in cow calf operation

A

shelter from extreme conditions

511
Q

continual calving strategies

A

bull always in with cows

512
Q

criteria and constrains for calving strategies

A

climate
marketing
- direct
- sale barn
transportation
cash flow
labor

513
Q

breeding with vet involved

A

AI
advanced repro
bull breeding soundness exam
pregnancy diagnosis

514
Q

calving with vet involved

A

dystocias

515
Q

vaccines with vet involved

A

brucellosis

516
Q

jobs when veterinarian involved

A

breeding
calving
vaccines
deworming
casteration
dehorning
treatment protocols
health plans
sick cattle

517
Q

abrupt weaning

A

big stressor
loud bawling for several days

518
Q

welfare during weaning

A

fence line contact
nose ring

519
Q

pre-conditioned weaning

A

routine procedures done prior to weaning
- vaccine
- casteration
- dehorning

520
Q

back grounding in cattle operation

A

dry lot

521
Q

stocker in cattle operation

A

pasture
- grass
- winter wheat

522
Q

both backgrounding and stocker

A

from weaning to entering feedlot
location
- original farm
- new farm
- both

523
Q

feedlots were historically located near

A

corn belt

524
Q

TMR stands for

A

total mixed ration

525
Q

confinement in feedlots

A

traditional sheds
hoop barns
cold temperatures

526
Q

welfare issues in feedlot

A

mud
handeling
heat stress

527
Q

waste management in feed lots

A

liquid
solid

528
Q

grass finishing systems in cattle operations

A

slow maturing
different genetics
marketed
- organic
- natural

529
Q

grass based integrated systems

A

poultry litter
swine lagoon effluent

530
Q

processing terminology in cattle

A

running cattle through a chute after arrival

531
Q

examples of processing in cattle

A

vaccines
deworming
casteration
dehorning
antibiotics
ear tagging
pregnancy check

532
Q

treatment protocol in cattle

A

first pull
second pull
different diseases

533
Q

railers in cattle

A

chronic cattle

534
Q

the following are diseases in which cattle program
- coccidia
- pink eye
- respiratory disease
- foot rot
- frothy bloat

A

stocker

535
Q

the following are diseases in which cattle program
- bloat
- foot rot
- acute pneumonia
- shipping fever
- BRD
- respiratory disease

A

feed lot

536
Q

other sources of beef

A

cull cattle
dairy steers
bulls

537
Q

cull cattle in sources of beef

A

head cows
canners - hamburger
cutters - rounds

538
Q

dairy steers in sources of beef

A

large frame size

539
Q

bulls in sources of beef

A

processed meat

540
Q

ways to sell cattle

A

sale bars
online sales
private
weight description
futures

541
Q

long futures in cattle

A

buy contract

542
Q

short features in cattle

A

sell contract

543
Q

speculator in cattle

A

not a processor or producer

544
Q

dark cutter in meat issues

A

decreased storage times
low glycogen - stressed cattle

545
Q

condemnation in meat issues

A

muscle
- injection site abscess
- bruising
organs
- liver abscess

546
Q

BQA in cattle

A

low stress cattle handling
injection location
- neck
- sub q
transport

547
Q

dairy industry terminology

A

location
marketing
segments
trends

548
Q

life cycle in cattle terminology

A

birth to cull

549
Q

genetics terminology in beef

A

breeds
selection program

550
Q

housing terminology in beef

A

comfort
types
breeding
waste management
ventilation

551
Q

nutrition terminology in beef

A

feed ingredients
feed storage
feed practices

552
Q

lactation terminology in beef

A

curve
milking
dry off

553
Q

calves terminology in beef

A

maternity pens
housing
feeding
routine procedures

554
Q

husbandry terminology in beef

A

ID
foot baths
back rubbers
lock ups
palpation rails
treatment area

555
Q

in dairy markets, who makes more, the producer or farmer

A

producer

556
Q

segments of the dairy industry

A

seed stock - registered to show
back yard
dairy used for beef calves milk

557
Q

as number of dairy herds stay the same what happens to the amount of milk produced

A

increases

558
Q

2021 average per 100 weight in dairy calves

A

$18.30

559
Q

quality premiums in dairy cattle

A

butter fat
protein
total solids
somatic cell cout - cheese yields

560
Q

how safe is our milk

A

antibiotic residue free

561
Q

definition of lactating cow

A

had a calf

562
Q

definition of heifer

A

not calved yet

563
Q

definition of freshen

A

calving

564
Q

definition of dry cow

A

non lactating cow

565
Q

definition of calf

A

less than a year old

566
Q

definition of bull

A

intact male

567
Q

definition of steer

A

castrated male

568
Q

first calf is expected around ____ years of age

A

2

569
Q

when do you start calves on dry food

A

2 weeks of age

570
Q

when do you start calves on hay

A

7-8 weeks

571
Q

when do you wean calves from mother

A

6-8 weeks of age

572
Q

definition of yearling

A

year old but not bred yet

573
Q

voluntary period of calving period

A

40-60 days

574
Q

calving interval

A

365 days

575
Q

gestation length in cattle

A

280 days

576
Q

dry period in cattle

A

45-60 days

577
Q

reasons of culling

A

rarely age
mastitis
infertile
lameness
disease
body condition

578
Q

primary breeds in the US of dairy cattle

A

holestein
jersey

579
Q

other breeds of dairy cows

A

Guernsey
ayrshire
brown swiss
milking shorthorn

580
Q

which dairy breed produces the most milk per lactation

A

holstein

581
Q

which dairy breed is the largest in size

A

jersey

582
Q

which dairy breed produces the most butter fat content

A

jersey

583
Q

which dairy breed produces the most protein percentage

A

brown Swiss

584
Q

artificial insemination in dairy cows

A

AI
- timed with no heat check
- visual heat check
- sexed vs conventional semen
Bull
- all breedings
- after 2-3 inseminations
preg checking

585
Q

feedstuff in dairy nutrition

A

corn silage
haylage

586
Q

storage in dairy nutrition

A

tower silo
silage bag
bunker silo

587
Q

feeding practices equipment

A

TMR
mixer wagon
feed manager
bunk
alley
water cup
tank

588
Q

milking procedures step

A

strip
dip
wipe
milk
remove claw
dip

589
Q

types of milking parlors

A

side opening
parellel
rotary

590
Q

bulk tanks are used to

A

cool down the milk

591
Q

remove calves ________ after birth

A

24 hours

592
Q

colostrum should be consumed within the first __________

A

6 hours

593
Q

dip navel in maternity pens

A

iodine
chlorohexidine

594
Q

dehorning tools

A

caustic paste
hot iron
tube
banres

595
Q

casteration tool

A

surgical
non-surgical

596
Q

vaccination routine calf procedures

A

scours
respiratory disease
clostridial

597
Q

1st digit in ear for identification

A

quarter of the ear

598
Q

2nd digit in ear for identification

A

official shield

599
Q

3rd digit in ear for identification

A

last digit of the year

600
Q

identification types in cattle

A

ear tags
electronic devices
painted tail
collars
leg bands

601
Q

key welfare issues in dairy

A

tail docking
casteration
dehroning
cow calf seperation
individual calf pens
access to pasture
animal abuse
health