Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Intracellular water volume is how much of body weight and found mostly where?

A

2/3, and mostly found in muscle mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is your total body water?

A

50-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Extracellular water is how much of body weight and where is it mostly found?

A

20%, and mostly found in CV system and interstitial spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Plasma is what percentage of extracellular fluid and how much of blood volume?

A

25% of extracellular, and 50% of blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood volume is how much of your total body weight?

A

approx 8% (15% arterial and 85%venous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Formula for male blood volume?

A

75ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Formula for female blood volume?

A

65ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Formula for neonate blood volume?

A

85ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Formula for preemie blood volume?

A

90ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does body water differ from males, females, elderly, and newborns?

A

Male-60% water, Female-50%, elderly-45-55%, newborn-75-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the major components in intracellular?

A

K+, Mg, Phos, proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Major components of extracellular fluid?

A

Na+, Ca++, Cl-, HCO3, Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is orthostatic BP?

A

systolic bp decrease 20mmHg or more from supine to standing or sitting. Indicative of 6-8% volume deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are compensatory responses to intravascular deficit (orthostatic hypotension)?

A

increase in HR but not if beta blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How much intravascular volume loss is need to cause a decrease in arterial BP?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lab signs of hypovolemia

A

Increased Hct, metabolic acidosis, urine specific gravity 1.010, urine osmolality >450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NPO fluid calculation is What?

A

1st: 10kg= 4ml/kg/hr, next: 10kg= 2ml/kg/hr, each kg over 20kg 1ml/kg/hr. (quick way= (weight + 40 ml)x hrs NPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is needed to obtain informed consent?

A

Make sure patient understands: 1. type of surgery being done, 2. Understand anesthetic type, risks and questions about anesthesia, 3. Explain possible complications and document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When reviewing chart make sure surgical consent is signed by whom?

A

(Adult non-emergent)-Patient or legal guardian
(Emergency)- closest relative or surgeon
(under 18)- signed by parent or closest legal guardian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Old anesthetic records are helpful why?

A

can give info on past difficult anesthetics and intubations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What other allergy is associated with an allergy to Avocado, Bananas, Chestnuts?

A

Latex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If anaphylaxis occurs intra-operatively and no source can be identified what could be a possible source?

A

Latex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What Meds should you continue prior to surgery?

A

4-As DHGTI- Antihypertensives, Antianginal, Anticonvulsants, Asthma, Digitalis, Hormones, GERD, Thyroid, Insulin (for insulin see pg. ….)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Malignant Hyperthermia?

A

genetic inability to breakdown succinalcholate & anesthesia which causes increases in Temp, Ca++ release, contractions, CO2, HR, acidosis, Rhabdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If patient has taken steroids in last 6 months what med should be given?

A

Hydrocortisone 100mg q6hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Up to what time can a patient have black coffee before sugery?

A

2hrs (clear liquid as long as no creamer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Up to what time can a patient have any food they want before surgery?

A

up to 8hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Up to what time can a patient have light meal or for baby infant formula/non-human milk before sugery?

A

up to 6 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Infants can have breast milk up to what time before surgery?

A

4hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What lab should be done on all women under 50?

A

Serum or urine HCG (pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Abnormal blood chemistry such as electrolytes are most common in what patient populations?

A

Chronic diuretic therapy, cardiac history, renal disease, diabetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In assessment of patient preparing for emergent surgery what key evaluations should be made?

A
  1. last oral intake (always presume full stomach), 2. get type and cross and is blood available, 3. Check/get IV access or lines, 4. Allergies, 5. Pertinent med hx and system review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If child is scheduled for non-urgent surgery and has upper respiratory infection what should you do?

A
  • If severe symptoms postpone 4 weeks
  • If case under general anesthesia consider risk factors and risk/benefit (avoid ETT, consider LMA, hydrate, humidify, anticholinergics?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the goals of general anesthesia?

A

Amnesia, analgesia, skeletal muscle relaxation, and control of SNS responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the gold standard for local anesthetics?

A

bupivacaine last 2-3 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the ASA classification system?

A 
P1= normal healthy pt. 
P2= pt with mild systemic disease
P3= pt with severe systemic disease or multiple mild disease
P4= disease is constant threat to life
P5= Moribund pt. not expect to survive without surg
P6= brain dead organ donation
E =  emergency qualifier and can be added to each class
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Major intracellular and extracellular cations?

A
  • intracellular- Na+

- extracellular- K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What labs would be indicators of possible hypovolemia?

A

increase hematocrit
metabolic acidosis
urine specific gravity 1.010 (normal 1.010-1.025)
urine osmolality >450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Absorption of irrigation solutions during TURP’s or endometrial ablations can lead to what?

A

hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment for hyponatremia?

A

Hypertonic Saline, correct underlying problem (abandon surgery), restrict fluids, increased H2O loss (diuretics if hypervolemic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens with K+ levels with each 10mmHg decrease in PCO2?

A

They decrease approx 0.5mEq/l (K+ high with acidosis and decreases with alkalosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

IV calcium 1gm
Alkalosis (hyperventilate, IV NaHCO3)
Albuterol 5mg/3cc saline q20min
Glucose 25gm followed by 10-15units reg insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How would hypokalemia show up on an EKG?

A

ST depression, flattened T waves, widened QRS, **U waves (after T waves)

44
Q

How would hyperkalemia show up on EKG?

A

Widened QRS, shorted QT, peaked T waves, cardiac arrest (most detrimental)

45
Q

What are some causes of hypocalemia?

A

Alkalosis
citrated from transfusions
renal failure
parathyroid damage or removal

46
Q

What symptoms often occur with hypocalcemia?

A

Seizures, increased membrane excitability, laryngospasm, myocardial failure, or bradycardia.

47
Q

How do you calculate maintenance fluids for surgeries with minimal blood/fluid loss?

A

2ml/kg/hr usually LR or D5LR this is minimum for all pts

48
Q

How much replacement fluid should be given for minimal surgical trauma (breast biopsy, superficial)?

A

2ml/Kg/hr

49
Q

How much replacement fluid should be given for moderate surgical trauma (appendectomy, laproscopic surgery, hysterectomy)?

A

2-4ml/kg/hr

50
Q

How much replacement fluid should be given for Extreme surgical trauma (bowel resections, highly invasive prolonged)?

A

4-8ml/kg/hr

51
Q

How do you calculate acceptable blood loss?

A

acceptable blood loss=

EBV* (start hct-lowest accepted hct)/ start hct

52
Q

How is volume replaced when there is moderate blood loss <20% total blood volume?

A

With 3ml of crystalloid/ 1ml of blood loss

53
Q

How much sodium is in LR, D5.45, and 0.9%?

A

LR= 600mg/100ml (K+ in LR can accumulate in renal pt)
D5.45= 450mg/100ml
0.9%= 900mg/100ml (may cause hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis)
pg. 392 N&P

54
Q

When is albumin/colloids used?

A

after burns or large protein loss, when fluid replacement is 3-4 liters behind, each gram of albumin binds 18ml water, acts as carrier protein for several drugs

55
Q

For an elective surgery how many IV’s and what size?

A

One 18 or 20 gauge IV

56
Q

For a bowel case what type of IV access would you have?

A

Two 16 or 18 gauge IV’s

57
Q

For a unstable shock pt what type of IV access?

A

2 large bore IV’s and CVP (central line)

58
Q

What type of access for local sedation case or poor venous access?

A

one 20 gauge

59
Q

What are some complication of IV insertion/administration?

A

Cellulitis, lymphangitis, thrombophlebitis, air embolism, extravasation, injection of wrong drug, inadvertent intra-arterial injection

60
Q

What types of cases would you normally have CVP monitoring with central line?

A

sitting crani’s, large blood loss or fluid shifts, rapid infusions, pts with pre-existing cardio/resp disease, compression of great vessels, or pacer insertion

61
Q

What is the best way to recognize venous air embolism?

A

2D echo superior to precordial doppler

62
Q

What monitoring is necessary for sitting cases (such as crani’s) when surgical site is higher than heart?

A
  • Doppler auscultation between 3-6 intercostal space on right side to listen for air embolus.
  • Will also need central line with stop-cock to aspirate air if mill wheel murmur is heard.
63
Q

What lead is best for arrhythmia detection?

A

lead II

64
Q

What lead is best for ischemia detection?

A

modified V5

65
Q

What things does monitoring EKG help identify?

A
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • myocardial ischemia
  • electrolyte changes
  • heart rate changes (audible QRS should be turned on to help identify changes)
66
Q

Other than arterial monitoring what type of BP measurement is most accurate?

A

Oscillometric- most automated cuffs use this method and correlates well with arterial mean and diastolic bp

67
Q

What are indications for arterial bp monitoring?

A

Cardiac surg, deliberate hypotension, cranis, major vasc surg, extensive trauma, inability to measure bp with cuff, unstable cardio or respiratory disease, large blood or fluid losses, compression of great vessels.

68
Q

What parameters can be derived from A-line that cannot be from cuff bp?

A

circulating blood volume, and beat to beat changes in bp (such as hypovolemia with positive pressure ventilation.)

69
Q

What are some complication of A-line insertion?

A

ischemia, embolism, hemorrhage, thrombosis, infection (most common), av fistula, aneurysm

70
Q

Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP’s) are used for what?

A
  • monitor cerebral function and ischemia with cerebral/neuro/spinal/CEA procedures,
  • better to have less/balanced anesthesia when using SSEP’s (no NMBA or N2O)
71
Q

Oxygen delivery monitors use mass spectrometry what are its limitations?

A

-Cannot sense pressure changes, ventilatory quality/volume, or tissue perfusion.

72
Q

What are some causes of low pressure alarms on vent?

A
  • disconnect
  • major leak (tracheal tube or cuff, breathing system)
  • failure of gas supply to vent
73
Q

What are some causes of high pressure alarms on vent?

A 
secretions
tubing kinked
coughing
bronchospasm
surgical retractor
surgeon leaning
pneumothorax
74
Q

How would you calculate tidal volume for adult and ped?

A

8-10ml/kg for adult

1ml/lb for ped

75
Q

Where would you place to detect right mainstem intubation? What about upper airway obstruction?

A
  1. left side of chest

2. sternal notch

76
Q

Errors with pulse oximetry can be caused by what?

A 
electrocautery interference
carbon monoxide poisoning
venous congestion
synthetic fingernails
dirt
adhesives
**dye indicators (methly blue cause transient decrease in pulse ox)
motion
light
warmers
77
Q

What does BIS monitor do and what is optimal range for general anesthesia?

A

measures depth of anesthesia extrapolates from EEG
45-60 optimal for GA, (0=flat line EEG, 100=awake)
not reliable in prone position due to sensor location

78
Q

What can cause increase in baseline for ETCO2?

A
  • exhausted CO2 absorber
  • calibration error
  • H2O in CO2 analyzer
  • defective expiratory valave
79
Q

Where would you like to keep ETCO2?

A

29-34 (low end)

80
Q

On normal capnogram what does each point delineate? (pg. 29 of monitoring notes)

A 
A= beginning of exhalation
AB= anatomic dead space being exhaled
BC= ascending limb represents increase conc CO2 
CD= alveolar plateau containing mixed alveolar gases
D= ETCO2
DE= descending limb and inspiratory phase rapid CO2 decrease
81
Q

What is Curare cleft or notch on capnogram?

A

asynchrony between intercostals and diaphragm

inadequate muscle relaxant reversal

82
Q

What should you do if you see spontaneous breaths on ETCO2 graph?

A

adjust vent settings, give agent, narcotic, muscle relaxant

83
Q

How many ml can Raytex sponges hold wet and dry?

A

Dry=15

Wet=10

84
Q

How many ml can Minilap sponges hold wet and dry?

A

Dry=40

Wet=25

85
Q

How many ml can Regular lap sponges hold wet and dry?

A

Dry=75

Wet=40

86
Q

How many ml can Gyn lap sponges hold wet and dry?

A

Dry= 150

Wet=65

87
Q

How many ml can kidney basin and bulb syringe hold?

A

Kidney basin= 500ml

bulb syringe= 160ml

88
Q

What are methods of heat loss and definition of each?

A
  1. conduction- heat from patient to OR table
  2. convection- heat transferred to air motion (12%)
  3. radiation- pt heat transferred to air (60%)
  4. evaporation- skin and lungs (H2O loss 25%)
89
Q

Major complication of hypothermia?

A

Wound infection pg. 320

90
Q

Who is at greatest risk for hypothermia?

A 
infants and small children
elderly
critically ill
long cases
extensive abdominal or thoracic cases
91
Q

What is the normal and minimal urine output?

A

normal= 1ml/kg/hr

minimum acceptable= 0.5ml/kg/hr

92
Q

Prior and during position changes what should be done?

A

pre-hydrate
move slowly
decrease anesthetic agent to decrease vasodilation

93
Q

What factors cause injury to bone and soft tissue?

A
  • muscle relaxants can potentiate

- pressure >70mmHg applied constantly over >2hrs can cause irreversible ischemia and pressure alopecia

94
Q

In what position does ocular injury most commonly occur?

A

Prone

95
Q

What is Grade 1 nerve injury?

A

Neuropraxis= response for blunt force or compression, temporary dysfunction, slight demyelination with axon degeneration

96
Q

What is grade 2 nerve injury?

A

Axonotmesis= destruction of axons, and myelin sheath without damage to supporting matrix, axon can regenerate and function may be restored

97
Q

What is grade 3 nerve injury?

A

Neurotmesis= crushed, avulsed or severed nerve fibers connective tissue and schwanns sheath are completely disrupted, loss of function

98
Q

What is the most common nerve injury?

A

Ulnar neuropathy

99
Q

What is treatment for hypotension after position changes?

A

volume replacement

100
Q

What is major concern with trendelenburg position in cardiac patients?

A

increased venous return causes increased myocardial oxygen consumption in pts with CAD

101
Q

Zone I of lungs creates what in absence of perfusion?

A

Alveolar dead space (alveoli vented but not perfused)

102
Q

In lateral position what happens to perfusion of lungs?

A
  • down lung becomes zone 3= increased perfusion decreased ventilation (decreased tidal volume and increased congestion)
  • up lung- receives ventilation preference but decrease perfusion
  • V/Q mismatch
103
Q

In supine position what nerve injury can take place?

A

Brachial plexus (avoid extending arm >90 degrees)

104
Q

After changing positions what should you always do?

A

Check breath sounds to make sure ET tube still in right place (especially prone position turning)

105
Q

What types of cases most commonly cause ischemic optic neuropathy?

A

Spine cases

106
Q

Ischemic optic neuropathy are exacerbated by what conditions?

A

Anemia, hypotension, improper positioning, DM, vascular disease, smoking, glaucoma, long cases, prone position

107
Q

In lithotomy position an obese patient may have this?

A

V/Q mismatch from visceral forces beneath diaphragm

Principles (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions