Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

If a reaction has a negative delta G, is it spontaneous?

A

The reaction is spontaneous because the delta G is negative.

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2
Q

______ is the free energy of the reaction under the actual reaction conditons

A

Delta G

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3
Q

______ is the free energy under the standard states.

A

Delta G degree

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4
Q

______ is the free energy under the biochemical standard states.

A

Delta G degree prime

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5
Q

______ is the free energy of the transition state.

A

Delta G transition symbol

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6
Q

When the reaction conditions match the biochemical standard states, the values of _____ and _____ will be equal.

A

Delta G and Delta G degree prime

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7
Q

The _____ determines the rate constant, while _____ determines the favorability of a reaction under standard conditons.

A

Delta G transition and Delta G degree

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8
Q

An endergonic reaction with a ______ Delta H and a ______ Delta S can be changed into an exergonic reaction by decreasing the temperature.

A

negative; negative

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9
Q

For the reaction phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP + H+ –> pyruvate + ATP, if Keq>1, which of the following conditions is TRUE?

-[pyruvate][ATP] > [phosphoenolpyruvate][ADP][H+}
-[pyruvate][ATP] < [phosphoenolpyruvate][ADP][H+}
-[pyruvate][ATP] = [phosphoenolpyruvate][ADP][H+}
-none of the above

A

[pyruvate][ATP] > [phosphoenolpyruvate][ADP][H+}

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10
Q

Change in enthalpy (Delta H) is best defined as _____.

-the sum of heat absorbed and work done
-the heat transferred at constant pressure
-the pressure change at constant temperature
-the measure of disorder in a system
-none of the above

A

The heat transferred at constant pressure

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11
Q

For a reaction with Delta H=23 kJ/mol and Delta S=22 J/L mol, at 2 degrees Celsius, the reaction is ____.

-spontaneous
-nonspontaneous
-at equilibrium
-impossible to determine reactivity
-none of the above

A

Nonspontaneous

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12
Q

A spontanous process always has ____.

-Delta G < 0
-Delta G > 0
-Delta H < 0
-Delta H > 0
-none of the above

A

Delta G < 0

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13
Q

Is adenine a purine or pyrimidine?

A

Purine

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14
Q

What is the name of the molecule that is composed of adenine linked to the C-1’ of ribose?

A

Adenosine

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15
Q

In the structure of DNA, the bases in complementary strands interact through _______, while the bases within one strand interact through _________. Lastly, phosphodiester groups interact with magnesium ions through _________.

A

-hydrogen bonds
-pi-pi interactions
-ionic interactions

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16
Q

In order to perform PCR, which of the following describes the reagents that must be included in the reaction mixture?

-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase
-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, ddNTPs, DNA polymerase
-DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA ligase
-None of the above

A

DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase

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17
Q

EcoRI recognizes the sequence 5’G arrow AATTC-3’ (arrow indicates the point of cleavage). Treatment of the following oligonucleotide with EcoRI would produce two oligonucleotides with sizes of _____ nucleotides containing _____ ends.
5’- AAGTCGATACAGAATTCGTACCTAG-3’

-12 and 13; sticky
-11 and 8; sticky
-12 and 8; blunt
-9 and 13; sticky
-12 and 13; blunt

A

12 and 13; sticky

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18
Q

Which component is not necessary for transformation?

-foreign DNA
-growth media
-plasmid
-gene gun

A

Gene gun

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding phosphodiester bonds that link adjacent nucleotides in both RNA and DNA?

-Phosphodiester bonds join the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide to the 5’ hydroxyl of the next
-Phosphodiester bonds are uncharged at pH 7.0
-Phosphodiester bonds always link G with C and A with either T or U
-Phosphodiester bonds are positively charged.

A

Phosphodiester bonds join the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide to the 5’ hydroxyl of the next

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20
Q

Phosphodiester bonds link DNA monomers to form a polymer by which mechanism?

-The OH group on the C-2 in the 2-deoxyribose monosaccharide forms a covalent to elongate the DNA polymer
-The OH group on the C-3 in the ribose carbohydrate forms a covalent to elongate the DNA chain
-The OH group on the C-3 in the 2-deoxyribose carbohydrate forms a covalent to elongate the DNA chain
-The OH group on the C-2 in the ribose carbohydrate forms a covalent to elongate the DNA polymer

A

The OH group on the C-3 in the 2-deoxyribose carbohydrate forms a covalent to elongate the DNA chain

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is most correct?

-DNA polymerase can only add a nucleotide to the free 5’-OH group of a base-paired polynucleotide
-DNA polymerase can only add a nucleotide to the free 3’-OH group of a base-paired polynucleotide
-DNA polymerase can only add a nucleotide to the free 3’-OH group of a polynucleotide that is not base-paired
-DNA polymerase can only add pyrophosphate to the free 3’-OH group of a base-paired polynucleotide

A

DNA polymerase can only add a nucleotide to the free 3’-OH group of a base-paired polynucleotide

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22
Q

DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is used in PCR because

-the enzyme is readily deactivated by heat, effectively halting the reaction
-the genes from Thermus aquaticus are readily distinguished from those of ‘normal’ organisms
-it is stable at high temperatures
-it is not infectious
-it is a soluble protein

A

It is stable at high temperatures

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23
Q

DNA ______ is an enzyme necessary for splicing together fragments of DNA with complementary ends.

A

ligase

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24
Q

Which of the following is a function of the ribosome?

-binds mRNA and allows codon recognition
-mediates the binding of proteins necessary for initiation, elongation, and termination
-catalyzes the synthesis of peptide bonds
-translocate such that multiple codons can be read

A

All of the above

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25
Q

Which level of protein architecture is composed of multiple subunits in a protein?

-tertiary
-quarternary
-primary
-secondary

A

Quareternary

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26
Q

RNA occurs primarily as single-stranded molecules that can give rise to ____ structures.

-tautomeric
-parallel
-haploid
-stem-loop
-diploid

A

Stem-loop

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27
Q

The pyrimidine found in both DNA and RNA is ______.

A

cytosine

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28
Q

The pyrimidine found only in DNA is _______.

A

thymine

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29
Q

The pyrimidine found only in RNA is ______.

A

uracil

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30
Q

Which one of the following statements about peptide bonds is FALSE. Peptide bonds are:

-rigid and planar, with partial double-bond character
-charged
-amides
-covalent
-involved in forming the primary structure of proteins

A

Charged

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31
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes a prosthetic group?

-They are the active part of an enzyme
-They are nonpeptide molecules or ions critical to a protein’s structure
-They are short peptide chains attached to a larger protein
-They are nonfunctional components of a protein

A

They are nonpeptide molecules or ions critical to a protein’s structure

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32
Q

The _____ character of most standard amino acids causes solutions of amino acids to rotate the plane of polarized light.

-chiral
-zwitterionic
-polar
-hydrophobic
-none of the above

A

Chiral

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33
Q

For the reaction H+ (aq) + HCO3- (aq) <–> H2CO3 (aq), if the reaction is at equilibrium, which conditions must be maintained?

-[H2CO3] > [H+][HCO3-]
-[H2CO3] < [H+][HCO3-]
-[H2CO3] = [H+][HCO3-]
-none of the above

A

[H2CO3] > [H+][HCO3-]

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34
Q

Please rank the following acids in order of increasing pKa.

-CH3COOH, HF, HCl, H2O
-HF, HCl, H2O, CH3COOH
-H2O, CH3COOH, HF, HCl
-HCl, HF, CH3COOH, H2O

A

HCl, HF, CH3COOH, H2O

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35
Q

Guanine, a DNA base, tightly bonds to cytosine through which intermolecular forces?

-covalent bonding
-dipole-dipole interactions
-hydrogen bonding
-London dispersion forces

A

Hydrogen bonding

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36
Q

The second law of thermodynamics states ____.

-that spontaneous processes are characterized by the overall conversion of order to disorder
-that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of work to force
-that nonspontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of order to disorder
-that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of heat to pressure
-none of the above

A

That spontaneous processes are characterized by the overall conversion of order to disorder

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37
Q

Change in enthalpy (Delta H) is best defined as ____.

-the sum of heat absorbed and work done
-the heat transferred at constant pressure
-the pressure change at constant temperature
-the measure of disorder in a system
-none of the above

A

The heat transferred at constant pressure

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38
Q

A spontaneous process _____.

-occurs without the addition of free energy
-has a Delta G < 0
-is exergonic
-is all of the above
-is none of the above

A

Is all of the above

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39
Q

The term used to indicate the degree of randomness within a system is _____.

A

entropy

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40
Q

Spontaneous processes are characterized by a change in Gibbs free energy that is ______.

A

negative

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41
Q

The symbol for free energy under standard biochemical conditions is ______.

-Delta H degree prime
-Delta G degree prime
-Delta T
-Delta H
-is none of the above

A

Delta G degree prime

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42
Q

For a reaction with Delta H = 23 kJ/mol and Delta S = 22 J/K mol, at 2 degrees Celsius, the reaction is _____.
-spontaneous
-nonspontaneous
-at equilibrium
-impossible to determine reactivity
-none of the above

A

nonspontaneous

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43
Q

An increase in disorder in the system _____.

-is required for a process to be spontaneous
-results in a decrease in entropy
-is characteristic of a system increasing in enthalpy
-results in the factor T Delta S being positive
-is found in every exergonic process

A

Results in the factor T Delta S being positive

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44
Q

The ketone body Beta-hydroxybutyrate is a small molecule found in some metabolic states. In organisms, Beta-hydroxybutyrate will spontaneously decarboxylate into acetone and carbon dioxide. Which of the rate laws best describes this overall reaction?

-Rate = k[Beta-hydroxybutyrate]
-Rate = k[Beta-hydroxybutyrate]^2
-Rate = k[acetone][CO2]
-Rate = k[Beta-hydroxybutyrate][acetone][CO2]
-Rate = k([acetone][CO2])/[Beta-hydroxybutyrate])

A

Rate = k[Beta-hydroxybutyrate]

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45
Q

Read the following 3 statements and determine which are true and false.

i.) Nucleic acids are synthesized in the 3’-5’ direction.
ii.) The sugar-phosphate groups which form the “backbone” of the DNA double-helix are located on the outside of the helix because they are polar.
iii.) RNA polymerase “reads” a template strand by running along it in a 5’-3’ direction.

A

ii is true
i and iii are false

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46
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to the reaction catalyzed by a DNA polymerase?

-It is a phosphoryl group transfer reaction.
-It involves a nucleophilic attack by an -OH group.
-It is a biosynthetic (anabolic) reaction and so has a positive free energy change (Delta G).
-It is facilitated by the hydrolysis of a pyrophosphate group.
-It requires an abundant supply of deoxynucleoside triphosphates.

A

It is a biosynthetic (anabolic) reaction and so has a positive free energy change (Delta G).

(While the reaction catalyzed by DNA polymerases is biosynthetic, reactions in biological systems cannot proceed unless they have an overall negative free energy change.)

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47
Q

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

-It seals breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
-It cuts DNA.
-It adds a nucleotide base to the template strand of DNA.
-It unwinds DNA.

A

It cuts DNA.

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48
Q

Why does the polymerase chain reaction require a heat-stable DNA polymerase?

-High temperatures are necessary to cause strand separation after each cycle of synthesis.
-High temperatures are necessary for annealing primers.
-High temperatures are necessary for initiating DNA synthesis.
-High temperatures are necessary for high-fidelity in DNA synthesis.

A

High temperatures are necessary to cause strand separation after each cycle of synthesis.

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49
Q

Nucleotides play a central role in living organisms because ____.

-they mediate transport of energy within the cell
-they are involved in oxidation-reduction reactions
-they are involved in intracellular signaling
-they function as building blocks for nucleic acids
-all of the above

A

All of the above

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50
Q

Inside our cells, free nucleotides are almost always associated with ____.

-proteins
-cholesterol
-Cl- counterions
-fatty acids
-Mg2+ counterions

A

Mg2+ counterions

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51
Q

Nucleoside triphosphates are useful for energy transfer because the phosphoanhydride bonds are relatively _____.

-stable
-high energy
-biocampatible
-large
-low energy

A

High energy

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52
Q

Which of the following nucleotides contain energy rich bonds?

-ATP
-TTP
-CTP
-GTP
-all of the above

A

All of the above

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53
Q

Which of the following molecules does not contain an energy-rich phosphoanhydride bond?

-ADP
-GDP
-AMP
-CDP
-all of the above

A

AMP

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54
Q

DNA forms a double _____.

A

helix

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55
Q

The two strands run _____.

A

antiparallel

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56
Q

The sugar is ______.

A

deoxyribose

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57
Q

The sugar-phosphate groups are _______.

A

on the outside of the helix

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58
Q

The bases are _______.

A

in the center of the helix

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59
Q

The bases are planar, and their plane is oriented ______ to the axis of the helix.

A

perpendicular

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60
Q

The helix has a minor and major _____ on its surface.

A

groove

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61
Q

The link between a purine and ribose is made from the _____ of the purine ring to the _____ of the ribose.

A

N-9 and C-1’

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62
Q

In DNA, the ribose derivative lacks an _____ on C-_____.

-alcohol; 2
-alcohol; 3
-amine; 2
-amine;3
-none of the above

A

Alcohol; 2

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63
Q

What type of bond is made between nucleotides?

-ester
-phosphoester
-phosphodiester
-glycosidic
-none of the above

A

Phosphodiester

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64
Q

The most common base pairs in DNA are ____ and ____.

A

C-G and T-A

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65
Q

An A-T base pair consists of _____ H-bonds and a G-C base pair consists of ____ H-bonds.

A

2 and 3

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66
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the B-DNA double helix?

-antiparallel strands
-right-handed helix
-base pairs are located in the center of the helix
-one helical rotation has a rise of 3.4 nm
-all of the above

A

All of the above

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67
Q

The replication of DNA is made possible by the presence of ____ strands in the double helix of DNA.

A

complementary

68
Q

In living organisms, genetic information is most often stored in the form of _____.

-ribonucleic acid
-deoxyribonucleic acid
-proteins
-enzymes
-deoxynucleotides

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

69
Q

An E. coli has ____ replication forks on its single chromosome; humans have _____ replication forks on each chromosome.

A

2; many

70
Q

Which strand of DNA is replicated exclusively in a discontinuous fashion?

-forward strand
-reverse strand
-leading strand
-laggin strand
-the strand that is read in a 5’ to 3’ direction

A

Lagging strand

71
Q

Which of the following best describes a new strand of DNA relative to the template strand used to synthesize it?

-an exact duplicate of the template
-a negative copy of the template
-a palindromic copy of the template
-an exact copy of the template but with the 3’ and 5’ ends reversed
-none of the above

A

A negative copy of the template.

72
Q

In most organisms, replication proceeds in a ____ manner from the ____.

-bidirectional; replication origin
-bidirectional; theta site
-bidirectional; lagging strand
-unidirectional; chromosome ends
-none of the above

A

Bidirectional; replication origin

73
Q

Incorporation of which of the following would result in chain termination during sequencing of DNA?

-dATP
-dCTP
-ddTTP
-dGTP
-none of the above

A

ddTTP

74
Q

The results of DNA sequencing are obtained by first separating different-sized pieces of DNA using _____ followed by detection of the particular dideoxynucleotide using ______.

-HPLC; NMR
-HPLC; absorbance spectroscopy
-electrophoresis; fluorescence spectroscopy
-electrophoresis; X-ray crystallography
-none of the above

A

electrophoresis; fluorescence spectroscopy

75
Q

The most commonly used technique for making large numbers of copies of DNA is ____.

-polymerase chain reaction
-dideoxy-sequencing
-restriction digestion
-genetic engineering
-site-directed mutagenesis

A

Polymerase chain reaction

76
Q

What reagents are required to perform PCR?

-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase
-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, ddNTPs, DNA polymerase
-DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
-DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA polymerase, DNA endonuclease
-DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA endonuclease

A

DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase

77
Q

Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a PCR reaction beginning with double-stranded DNA?

-primer annealing, strand separation, primer extension
-strand separation, primer extension, primer annealing
-strand separation, primer annealing, primer extension
-primer extension, primer annealing, strand separation
-primer annealing, primer extension, strand separation

A

strand separation, primer annealing, primer extension

78
Q

What term describes the production of multiple identical organisms from a single ancestor?

-transcription
-cloning
-sequencing
-phenotyping
-ligation

A

Cloning

79
Q

Double-stranded DNA molecules can be cleaved at specific recognition sites by _____.

-RNA polymerase
-DNA ligase
-DNA polymerase
-reverse transcriptase
-Type II restriction endonucleases

A

Type II restriction endonucleases

80
Q

DNA sequencing by the chain-termination method uses DNA polymerase I to make a complementary copy of the target or template DNA molecule. A reaction with a 20 bp template and dideoxyadenosine nucleotides as terminators results in the production of a 5 bp fragment. Based on this result, we can conclude that the template contains _____.

-a cytosine at position 5
-a thymine at position 5
-a cytosine at position 16
-a thymine at position 16
-a uracil at position 5

A

A thymine at position 16

81
Q

In molecular cloning, transformed organisms must be identified. One common method for accomplishing this involves the inclusion of ______ in the plasmid.

-a restriction site
-a nuclease gene
-a deletion
-an origin of replication
-an antibiotic resistance gene

A

An antibiotic resistance gene

82
Q

What are the steps of DNA replication?

A
  1. Formation of a replication bubble
  2. Replication of the leading and lagging strand in 5’ to 3’ direction
  3. Ligation of the replicated strands on the lagging strand.
83
Q

A PCR experiment was performed on a highly conserved gene from two species, one prokaryotic and one eukaryotic. Which of the following statements best describes the expected results?

-The sequences of the PCR products would be identical
-The sequences of the PCR products would be mostly identical except for any random mutations.
-The sequences of the PCR product would be different since eukaryotes have introns and exons.
-The sequences of the PCR products would be different since prokaryotes have introns and exons.

A

The sequences of the PCR product would be different since eukaryotes have introns and exons.

84
Q

Which statement is TRUE for RNA but not DNA?

-RNA uses 2-deoxryribose sugar.
-RNA uses uracil as a nitrogenous base
-RNA is created from DNA in a process known as translation
-RNA is the only nucleic acid that can be absorbed in the UV spectrum

A

RNA uses uracil as a nitrogenous base

85
Q

RNA occurs primarily as single-stranded molecules that can give rise to _____ structures.

-diploid
-stem-loop
-parallel
-tautomeric
-haploid

A

Stem-loop

86
Q

Genomic DNA is ____, resulting in the production of _____.

-transcribed; mRNA
-translated; tRNA
-transcribed; protein
-translated; protein
-translated; rRNA

A

transcribed; mRNA

87
Q

Polypeptide synthesis proceeds from the ____ to the ____.

-entrance site; exit site
-50S subunit; 30S subunit
-C-terminus; N-terminus
-N-terminus; C-terminus
-peptidyl site; aminoacyl site

A

N-terminus; C-terminus

88
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA that are directly involved in translation?

A

mRNA. rRNA, tRNA

89
Q

_____ moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

A

mRNA

90
Q

______ decodes the genetic message; it matches sequences of 3 nucleotides to amino acids.

A

tRNA

91
Q

_____ is involved in the catalysis of amide bond formation

A

rRNA

92
Q

In bacteria, riboflavin can inhibit its own synthesis by binding to an mRNA element termed a _______.

A

riboswitch

93
Q

RNA interference is a mechanism of post-transcriptional RNA-dependent ______.

-chromatin-remodeling
-gene silencing
-histone methylation
-coactivation
-apoptosis

A

gene silencing

94
Q

What is the region immediately adjacent to the starting site for RNA polymerization called?

-promoter
-enhancer
-initiator
-consensus sequence
-TF binding site

A

Promoter

95
Q

Two amino acids of the standard 20 contain hydroxyl-groups. They are…

A

threonine and serine

96
Q

At a pH above its pKa, the phenol group of tyrosine is ______.

A

deprotonated

97
Q

A typical protein weighs _____ daltons.

A

50,000

98
Q

Which statement is most TRUE regarding peptide bonds?

-They are amide linkages that connect amino acids.
-They are flexible linkages that rotate around the sp2 bond in the carbonyl carbon
-They are composed of an electronegative carbonyl group and an electropositive nitrogen atom.
-They are weaker than London dispersion forces.

A

They are amide linkages that connect amino acids.

99
Q

In the tripeptide Lys-Pro-Ile, the C-terminal residue is ______.

A

Isoleucine

100
Q

The formation of a dipeptide from two amino acids involves

-side-chain complementarity
-loss of water
-oxidation of the alpha carbon
-reduction of the alpha carbon
-base catalysis

A

Loss of water

101
Q

Which one of the following statements about peptide bonds is FALSE. Peptide bonds are

-rigid and planar, with partial double-bond character
-charged
-covalent
-involved in forming the primary structure of proteins
-amides

A

charged.

102
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes a prosthetic group?

-They are nonpeptide molecules or ions critical to a protein’s structure.
-They are short peptide chains attached to a larger protein.
-They are nonfunctional components of a protein
-They are the active part of an enzyme

A

They are nonpeptide molecules or ions critical to a protein’s structure.

103
Q

Which of the following are methods of denaturing a protein?

-pH changes
-heat
-mechanical agitation
-all of the above

A

All of the above

104
Q

Why do detergents denature proteins?

-The primary structure of the protein can cause alterations in the charges of the residues.
-The secondary structure can be altered because of disruptions in the hydrogen bonding.
-The forces stabilizing the tertiary structure are disrupted, changing the conformation of the protein.
-The quarternary structure can be modified because of the deprotonation of prosthetic groups.

A

The forces stabilizing the tertiary structure are disrupted, changing the conformation of the protein.

105
Q

Two cysteine residues would most likely result in what type of bonding?

-hydrogen bond
-disulfide bond
-dispersion forces
-salt bridges

A

Disulfide bond

106
Q

The simplest protein structure is ____ structure.

A

primary

107
Q

The overall charge of the polypeptide His-Tyr-Lys-Met-Ile-Glu at pH 6.9 is ____?

A

0

108
Q

Which level of protein structure is defined as “the hydrogen bonded arrangement of the polypeptide backbone”?

A

Secondary

109
Q

Why does a decrease in pH alter/disrupt the tertiary structure of an enzyme?

-It reduces disulphide bonds
-It promotes proteolytic cleavage of peptide bonds
-It disrupts ion pairs/salt bridges
-It reduces hydrophobic interactions
-It deprotonates prosthetic groups

A

It disrupts ion pairs/salt bridges.

(Ion pairs/salt bridges are relatively weak, non-covalent interactions between charged R groups which play a role in fine-tuning protein tertiary structure. Because the charge of some amino acid R groups is sensitive to pH, changes in pH may disrupt these bonds and alter the protein’s tertiary structure.)

110
Q

Zwitterions are ____.

-amino acids
-ionic molecules that are racemic
-ions that bear both negatively and positively charged groups
-side-chain carboxylate anions
-delocalized ions

A

Ions that bear both negatively and positively charged groups

111
Q

Which of the 20 standard amino acids is optically inactive?

A

Gly

112
Q

Which amino acid has a charged polar side chan at pH 7.0?

A

Glu

113
Q

Which amino acid has a sulfur atom in its side chain?

A

Met

114
Q

At a pH above its pKa, the R-group of Asp is ______.

A

deprotonated and negatively charged.

115
Q

Leucine has a _____ side chain.

A

nonpolar

116
Q

Glutamate has a _____ side chain.

A

charged

117
Q

At physiological pH, all amino acids have at least _____ charged groups.

A

2

118
Q

In general, amino acids are ____ molecules that act as building blocks for proteins.

A

chiral

119
Q

Amino acids and amino acid derivative can act as ________ such as hormones or neurotransmitters.

A

extracellular messenger molecules

120
Q

Do ribosomes use L or D amino acids for protein synthesis?

A

L

121
Q

What amino acid/amino acid derivative can act as neurotransmitters?

A

glycine
glutamate
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

122
Q

The peptide AYDG has an N-terminal _____ residue.

A

alanine

123
Q

Which tripeptide would be expected to be the most hydrophobic?

A

GYA

124
Q

The predominant noncovalent interaction seen in alpha helices and beta sheets is ____.

A

hydrogen bond

125
Q

Which amino acid is generally absent from an alpha helix?

A

Pro

126
Q

Alpha helices and beta sheets constitute ____ structure.

A

secondary

127
Q

Which of the following best describes the peptide backbone in a beta sheet?

-coiled
-compacted
-highly extended
-rigid
-none of the above

A

Highly extended

128
Q

In a protein, the most conformationally restricted amino acid is ____; the least conformationally restricted is _____.

A

Pro; Gly

129
Q

Which of the following statements is not accurate when considering water and biological molecules?

-Water is more likely to act as a hydrogen bond donor than a hydrogen bond acceptor
-Polar substances are soluble because of their interaction with water
-The hydrogen bonding pattern of water is disrupted by the presence of hydrophobic molecules

A

Water is more likely to act as a hydrogen bond donor than a hydrogen bond acceptor.

(Water molecules are equally likely to act as either a hydrogen bond donor or acceptor.)

130
Q

According to the Brosted-Lowry definition, a _____ is a substance that can accept a proton.

A

base

131
Q

Which of the following explains the interactions that occur between the atoms of water molecules and the ions that form when sodium chloride dissolves in water?

-Hydrogens interact with the sodium ion; oxygens interact with the chloride ion
-Hydrogens interact with the chloride ion; oxygens interact with the sodium ion
-Hydrogens interact with the sodium and chloride ions.
-Oxygens interact with the sodium and chloride ions
-None of the above

A

Hydrogens interact with the chloride ion; oxygens interact with the sodium ion.

132
Q

Which functional group has two hydrogen bond donors and one hydrogen bond acceptor?

A

amine

133
Q

The boiling point of water is 264 degrees celsius higher than the boiling point of methane because _____.

-the molecular mass of methane is much lower than that of water
-methane molecules tend to avoid contact with each other
-water molecules are connected to each other by H-bonds
-Methane molecules do not undergo London dispersion forces

A

water molecules are connected to each other by H-bonds

134
Q

What is the conjugate acid of H2PO4-?

A

H3PO4

135
Q

What shows the buffer that is found in the bloodstream?

A

H2CO3 <–> HCO3- + H+

136
Q

In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the reactant that the enzyme interacts with is called the _____.

A

substrate

137
Q

The active site for elastase contains valine. Which amino acid would be most likely to bind to the active site?

-Ala
-Asp
-Ser
-Met

A

Ala

138
Q

Another name for a biological catalyst is a _____.

A

enzyme

139
Q

For a Michaelis-Menten kinetics enzyme Vmax decreases and Km increases, for which type of inhibition?

-Competitive
-Uncompetitive
-Suicide
-Mixed

A

Mixed

140
Q

Zinc is required for carbonic anhydrase to properly work. It is an example of a _____.

-cofactor
-coenzyme
-ion catalyst
-suicide inhibitor

A

Cofactor

141
Q

Which of these amino acid groups would NOT make a good nucleophilic catalyst?

-amino
-sulfhydryl
-imidazole
-methyl
-hydroxyl

A

Methyl

142
Q

Proton transfer from an acid, lowering the free energy of a reaction’s transition state is characteristic of _______

-electrostatic catalysis
-nucleophilic catalysis
-general base catalysis
-general acid catalysis
-concerted acid-base catalysis

A

General acid catalysis

143
Q

Acid base catalysis may be accomplished by

-active site specificity
-charge delocalization
-buffer effects
-induced strain
-conformational change

A

Charge delocalization

144
Q

Which statement about phosphorylation is TRUE?

-It is an irreversible covalent modification
-It is carried out by phosphatases
-It can alter the charges on proteins by making them more positively charged
-It can trigger cell signaling cascades and be turned on or off.

A

It can trigger cell signaling cascades and be turned on or off.

145
Q

Chymotrypsin catalyzes the hydrolysis of a peptide bond and is therefore characterized as an _____

-oxidoreductase
-transferase
-hydrolase
-lyase
-ligase

A

Hydrolase

146
Q

The highest point in a reaction coordinate diagram represents _______.

-an intermediate of the reaction pathway
-the reactants in an exergonic reaction
-the products in an endergonic reaction
-the transition state
-the overall Delta G for the reaction

A

The transition state

147
Q

If you add enzymes to a solution containing only the products of a reaction, would you expect any substrate to form?

-It depends on the time interval and temperature of reaction.
-It depends on the concentration of products added
-It depends on the energy difference between E + P and the transition state.
-All of the above may determine if product forms

A

It depends on the energy difference between E + P and the transition state.

148
Q

If A –> B is a zero order reaction, the rate is dependent on the ______.

A

rate constant

149
Q

A plot of velocity versus substrate concentration for a simple enzyme-catalyzed reaction produces a ____ curve. This indicates that at some point, the enzyme is _____.

A

hyperbolic curve; saturated with substrate

150
Q

When a substate and enzyme interact, the first chemical species formed is the _____.

A

enzyme-substrate complex

151
Q

Which of the following expresses the velocity for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction that obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

-v = k1[E][S]
-v = k1 [E][S] - k-1[ES]
-v = k2 [ES]
-v = k1[E][S] + k2[ES]

A

v = k2 [ES]

152
Q

Which equation must be true if the steady state assumption is to be used?

-

A

d [ES] / dt = 0

153
Q

The Michaelis constant is defined as…

A

KM = (k2 + k-1) / k1

154
Q

What equation properly expresses the Michaelis-Menten equation?

A

v0 = Vmax [S] / (KM + [S])

155
Q

KM is ____.

A

the [S] that half saturates the enzyme

156
Q

A Lineweaver-Burk plot is a ____.

-double reciprocal plot
-Michaelis-Menten plot
-sigmoidal plot
-hyperbolic plot
-logarithmic plot

A

Double reciprocal plot

157
Q

Which of the following indicates that an enzyme has evolved to its most efficient form?

-kcat is a large number
-KM is a small number
-KM is a large number
-kcat/KM is a small number
-kcat/KM is near the diffusion-controlled limit

A

kcat/KM is near the diffusion-controlled limit

158
Q

An extremely efficient enzyme has a _____ KM and a _____ kcat.

A

small; large

159
Q

Some irreversible inhibitors are called ______ because they bind to the active site of the enzyme and begin the catalytic process, just like a normal substrate.

A

suicide substrate

160
Q

Which is the conjugate base in the product of the following reaction:
H2SO4 + H2O –> HSO4- + H3O+

A

HSO4-

161
Q

For a Michaelis-Menten enzyme, the inhibitor binds to the enzyme at the active site in which type of inhibition?

A

Competitive

162
Q

Which amino acid is most likely to act as a covalent catalyst in an enzyme active site?

-Ala
-Met
-Ile
-Ser

A

Ser

163
Q

Which statement best describes the model of “induced fit”?

-Enzyme-substrate binding induces formation of the transition state, which reduces the free energy of the reaction.
-Enzyme-substrate binding induces enzyme specificity
-Enzyme-substrate binding induces a conformational change in the enzyme, such that the binding site better conforms to the shape of the substrate.
-Enzyme-substrate binding induces an increase in the reaction entropy.

A

Enzyme-substrate binding induces a conformational change in the enzyme, such that the binding site better conforms to the shape of the substrate.

164
Q

For a Michaelis-Menten enzyme, the inhibitor binds to the enzyme-substrate complex in which type of inhibition?

A

Uncompetitive

165
Q

Which amino acid would most likely participate in general acid-base catalysis under basic conditions?

-Ala
-Tyr
-Leu
-Gln

A

Tyr

166
Q

Which of these amino acid groups would NOT make a good nucleophilic catalyst?

-methyl
-hydroxyl
-imidazole
-sulfhydryl
-amino

A

Methyl